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Microbiology > Chapter 17 > Flashcards

Chapter 17 Flashcards

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1
Q

What type of immunity results from vaccination?

A

Artificially acquired active immunity

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2
Q

What type of immunity results from recovery from mumps?

A

Naturally acquired active immunity

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3
Q

What type of immunity is NOT due to antibodies?

A

Innate immunity

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4
Q

Immunity due to injection of an antigen is an example of

A

Artificially acquired active immunity.

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5
Q

CD4+ T cells are activated by

A

Interaction between CD4+ and MHC II.

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6
Q

The specificity of an antibody is due to

A

The variable portions of the H and L chains.

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7
Q

The antibodies found in mucus, saliva, and tears are

A

IgA

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8
Q

The most abundant class of antibodies in serum is

A

IgG

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9
Q

The best definition of antigen is

A

Any substance that causes antibody formation.

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10
Q

The best definition antibody is

A

A protein made in response to an antigen that can combine with that antigen.

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11
Q

Which of the following results in comparatively long-lasting immunity?

A

A person survives an infectious disease.

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12
Q

In humans, where do B cells mature?

A

in the bone marrow

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13
Q

What is the function of T cytotoxic cells?

A

They induce apoptosis of target cells.

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14
Q

The secondary (anamnestic) immune response is due to __________.

A

long-lived memory cells

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15
Q

Which of these cells do NOT have a role in cell-mediated immunity?

A

erythrocytes

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16
Q

T-dependent antigens is true

A

Activation of a B cell by a T-dependent antigen requires cytokines secreted by a TH cell.

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17
Q

What is a plasma cell?

A

a cell that produces antibodies

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18
Q

How do NK cells recognize the target cells that they will destroy?

A

The target cells lack MHC I self-antigens.

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19
Q

Immunity acquired by transplacental transfer is called __________.

A

naturally acquired passive immunity

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20
Q

A new chemical messenger has been discovered that enhances the chemotaxis of macrophages and neutrophils toward sites of infection. It would be specifically classified as a(n) __________.

A

chemokine

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21
Q

Which of these pathogens would most likely be attacked by antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity?

A

blood flukes (schistosomes)

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22
Q

correct order of differentiation?

A

stem cells to B cells to plasma cells

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23
Q

The resistance to reinfection with measles virus following recovery from measles infection is called __________.

A

adaptive immunity

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24
Q

HIV selectively destroys CD4 cells and as a result, a person with AIDS is susceptible to life-threatening viral infections. Knowing this, you can conclude that __________.

A

these viruses have T-dependent antigens

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25
Cell-mediated immunity in part protects against __________.
intracellular bacteria and viruses
26
cell types is NOT involved in cell-mediated immunity?
plasma cells
27
antigens
They often have a molecular weight of less than 10,000.
28
The most abundant Ig in the blood serum is __________.
G
29
IgA antibody class
It can trigger the complement cascade.
30
antigen-presenting cells ?
helper T cells
31
NOT normally used in a vaccine?
Antibodies
32
Patient's serum, influenza virus, and red blood cells are mixed in a tube. What happens if the patient has antibodies against influenza virus?
Hemagglutination-inhibition
33
A patient shows the presence of antibodies against diphtheria toxin. Which of the following statements is false?
The patient was near someone who had the disease.
34
In an agglutination test, eight serial dilutions to determine antibody titer were set up: tube #1 contained a 1:2 dilution; tube #2, a 1:4, etc. If tube #6 is the last tube showing agglutination, what is the antibody titer?
64
35
Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of a live virus vaccine?
Antibody response is not as good as with inactivated viruses.
36
CANNOT yield antibodies for serological testing
Viral cultures
37
A reaction between an antibody and soluble antigen-forming lattices is called a(n)
Precipitation reaction.
38
A reaction between antibody and particulate antigen is called a(n)
Agglutination reaction.
39
Which of the following is a test to determine a patient's blood type by mixing the patient's red blood cells with antisera?
direct agglutination reaction
40
Which item is from the patient in a direct ELISA test?
antigen
41
As a pediatric oncology nurse, you work with children who are receiving chemotherapy and are frequently immunosuppressed. Which of these types of vaccines are generally NOT appropriate for this patient population?
attenuated whole-agent vaccines
42
Vaccination eliminates diseases such as smallpox and polio by __________.
producing non-susceptible hosts
43
A rapid test for Bordetella pertussis uses fluorescent dye-labeled antibodies to stain a smear made from a nasopharyngeal swab. What would a positive test show?
fluorescent cells
44
Which of the following would you use to detect antibodies against HIV in a patient?
indirect ELISA
45
Which kind of vaccine may confer lifelong immunity against a pathogen?
live attenuated vaccines
46
What is the purpose of a complement fixation test?
to detect low levels of antibodies
47
A vaccine consisting of an inactivated diphtheria toxin is called a(n) __________.
toxoid
48
I developed a test for a pathogen that is very specific but NOT very sensitive. What does this mean?
My test is very accurate, but there must be a lot of pathogen present for it to work.
49
A vaccine consisting of a live avirulent strain of mumps virus is called a(n) __________.
attenuated vaccine
50
What is the name for a vaccine that is made from an antigenic fragment of a pathogen?
subunit vaccine
51
Knowing that rubella virus causes hemagglutination, you mix red blood cells, rubella virus, and a patient's serum in a tube. Hemagglutination does NOT occur. What do you conclude?
The patient has antibodies against rubella virus.
52
For both the direct and the indirect ELISA, __________.
substrate is added as a final step
53
Which of the following statements is NOT true of toxoid vaccines?
Only one dose is generally enough to infer a lasting immune response.
54
Subunit vaccines tend to be safer than whole-cell vaccines because __________
they cannot reproduce in the host
55
Which of these statements is true for conjugated vaccines?
They are useful because infants respond poorly to polysaccharide-based antigens.
56
The results of a titer for varicella antibodies show that Sarah is nonimmune to varicella virus. She decides to get the varicella vaccine, but her physician will not vaccinate her at this time because she is currently pregnant. Why should this vaccine NOT be given to pregnant women?
There is a risk of the attenuated vaccine strain crossing the placenta and infecting the fetus.
57
Viral vaccines have been produced using viruses grown by all of these methods
grown in bird embryos grown in animal cell culture isolated directly from human grown in animals
58
Hemagglutination in an immunoassay __________.
involves antibodies cross-linking erythrocytes
59
The viral hemagglutination inhibition test __________.
can be used to detect the presence of antibody to the measles virus in patient serum
60
A patient's serum is tested using the complement fixation test. If hemolysis occurs, __________.
complement was not fixed by antibodies in the patient's serum and was available to the antibodies, thus inducing lysis of sheep red blood cells
61
More than half of our antibiotics are
produced by bacteria.
62
Most of the available antimicrobial agents are effective against
bacteria
63
Protozoan and helminthic diseases are difficult to treat because
their cells are structurally and functionally similar to human cells.
64
antibiotics does NOT interfere with cell wall synthesis?
macrolides
65
drug resistance is FALSE?
It is found only in gram-negative bacteria
66
Drug resistance occurs
when antibiotics are used indiscriminately.
67
To date, most of our natural antibiotics have been found to be produced by members of what genus?
Streptomyces
68
The antimicrobial drugs with the broadest spectrum of activity are
tetracyclines
69
Penicillin and streptomycin are commonly used in synergism because they display the same mode of action.
False
70
An antimicrobial drug that inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis is most likely to be effective against __________.
gram-positive bacteria
71
A disk-diffusion test identifies __________.
agents to which a test culture is sensitive, in terms of growth or survival
72
Rifampin blocks RNA polymerase and therefore inhibits __________.
transcription
73
Bacterial infections are easier to treat using chemotherapy than are other types of infections caused by other types of microorganisms. Why?
Bacteria are prokaryotic and thus, have targets different than eukaryotic cells
74
Polyenes, azoles, and allylamines interfere with __________
fungal cell membranes
75
A chemical that kills gram-positive bacteria and gram-negative bacteria would best be described as __________.
broad spectrum
76
A drug that inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis is __________.
antibacterial
77
Which of the following is an antihelminthic drug that causes paralysis of the worm?
ivermectin
78
A drug that inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis is __________.
antibacterial
79
antibiotics is true
Most of our antibiotics are produced by Streptomyces, a genus of filamentous soil bacteria.
80
A drug that binds with sterols would injure _
eukaryotic plasma membranes
81
What is the method of action of nucleoside analogs?
inhibition of DNA synthesis
82
Tetracyclines are effective against all of the following EXCEPT __________.
fungi
83
Which of the following antibiotics inhibits protein synthesis?
streptomycin
84
You are reviewing the following results of a disk- diffusion antibiotic susceptibility test on an isolate of Staphylococcus aureus: Antibiotic A: ZI (zone of inhibition) = 0 millimeters Antibiotic B: ZI = 23 millimeters Antibiotic C: ZI = 16 millimeters Antibiotic D: ZI = 19 millimeters Which antibiotic is bactericidal?
The correct answer cannot be determined from the information provided.
85
Which antimicrobial works by inhibiting the synthesis of mycolic acid?
isoniazid
86
Which of the following antibiotics is a common choice to treat streptococcal infections in children?
erythromycin
87
Which of the following antibiotics inhibits folic acid synthesis?
sulfanilamide
88
drugs inhibits the synthesis of mRNA in bacteria?
rifampin
89
types of antibiotics is most likely to be associated with the development of a superinfection?
broad-spectrum antibiotics
90
drug would be used to treat athlete's foot?
clotrimazole

Microbiology (10 decks)

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