Chapter 16 Flashcards

1
Q
The ? Vessel drains the head?
A. Intercostal trunk
B. brochomediastinal
C. Subclavian trunk
D. Jugular trunk
A

C. Subclavian trunk drains the arm area and the jugular veins which drain the head

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2
Q
The lymphatic ducts will empty directly into the ?
A. Heart
B. subclavian veins
C. Thoracic veins
D. Brachiocephalic veins
A

B. subclavian veins. The ducts do not directly connect to the heart

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3
Q
Which is one major force that causes interstitial fluid to enter lymphatic capillaries?
A, blood osmotic pressure
B. blood hydrostatic pressure 
C. Tissue osmotic pressure
D. Tissue hydrostatic pressure
A

D. Tissue hydrostatic pressure . Blood osmotic pressure draws fluid into the blood

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4
Q
The main activity that causes fluid to flow through lymphatic vessels is?
A. Muscle contraction
B.hydrostatic pressure
C. Osmotic pressure
D. Blood pressure
A

A. Since lymphatic pressure is low, it’s flow must be influenced by the same factors that increase venous return such as the contraction of smooth muscle in the vessel walls and the surrounding action of the skeletal muscles (skeletal pump)

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5
Q
The white pulp of the spleen functions to?
A. Produce lymphocytes
B. remove foreign particles
C. Store blood
D. Phagocytize bacteria
A

A. Produce lymphocytes. The white pulp contains a tissue similar to nodules that produce lymphocytes, lymphocytes are not phagocytic

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6
Q
An infection results when pathogens
A. Enter a tissue area
B. enter the blood
C. Grow and multiply
D. Grow and cause damage
A

D. Grow and cause damage . An infection is the invasion, growth, and multiplication of pathogens such as bacteria that cause damage to a tissue

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7
Q
The fact that humans usually cannot contract monkey pneumonia is explained by the theory of
A. Mechanical barriers
B. enzyme actions
C. Interferon 
D. Species resistance
A

D. Species resistance occurs when an agent will not cause infection in an animal which is not genetically similar to another animal that has the infection.

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8
Q
A nonspecific class of chemicals that can inhibit viruses and cancer cell growth is
A. Antibodies
B. peptides
C. Interferons
D. Antigens
A

C. Interferon. Antibodies are all quite specific

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9
Q
Which one is not an enzyme capable of destroying foreign bacteria?
A. Pepsin
B. fibrin
C. Lysozyme 
D. Lipase
A

B fibrin. Pepsin is a proteolytic enzyme

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10
Q
Which is the most common immunoglobulin for allergies?
A. IgA
B. IgE
C. IgD
D. IgG
A

B. IgE is the most common immunoglobulin that causes the pattern of type I allergy such as hay fever

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11
Q
Erythrocytes clump together because of a ? Process
A. Clotting
B. agglutination
C. Complement 
D. Precipitin
A

B. agglutination

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12
Q
Which one can be initiated by any type of antibody fixation
A. Complement
B. neutralization 
C. Lysis phenomena
D. Antibodies
A

A. Complement. One of the functions of antibodies is to activate the blood enzymes called the complement system which then directly causes a given response.

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13
Q
The process which increases the chance of a neutrophil or monocyte engulfing an invader is
A. Phagocytosis
B. neutralization 
C. Complement fixation
D. Opsonization
A

D. Opsonins are antibodies that coat the surface of pathogens such as bacteria making them more susceptible to phagocytosis

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14
Q
Tumors are most likely inactivated by ? Cells
A. B
B. helper T
C. Cytotoxic T
D. Suppressor T
A

C. Cytotoxic T cells or killer T cells are stimulated by the antigen to attack and render non-viable the host cell the antigen is in, such as an abnormal protein from a tumor

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15
Q
The increase in antibody levels in a second antigen exposure is due to the 
A. Memory B cell
B. T cells
C. Helper T cells
D. B clones
A

A. The memory B cells create a population of clones that can rapidly respond to a second exposure to antigens

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16
Q
Which one is not a function of the lymph nodes
A. House lymphocytes and macrophages 
B. filter lymph
C. Produce red blood cells
D. Produce lymphocytes
A

C. Produce red blood cells

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17
Q

What is the role of the thymus in protecting the body against disease
A. It houses decaying lymphocytes, recycling the nutrients within them
B. it is the maturation of T lymphocytes and the production of thymosin
C. It is the production and maturation of b lymphocytes
D. Macrophages and monocytes are produced here and migrate to other tissues of the body

A

B. the thymus makes T cells immunocompetent

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18
Q

Select the one that is true above the splee
A. It filters the lymph the same way lymph nodes filter the blood
B. it harbors eosinophils waiting for parasites to attack the body
C. It is the major site of red and white blood cell production in the adults
D. The spleen filters the blood much the same way the lymph nodes filter the lymph

A

D. The spleen is in many ways like a large lymph node

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19
Q
Which one is not a nonspecific defense against disease
A. Species resistance
B. phagocytosis 
C. Interferon 
D. Hair color and texture
A

D. Hair color and texture

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20
Q
Where are B lymphocytes believed to mature in adult humans
A. Bursa of Fabricus
B. bone marrow
C. Compact bone
D. Liver
A

B. B lymphocytes are believed to mature in the bone marrow of adult humans. Bursa of Fabricus is a bird structure

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21
Q
What can happen if the pectoral lymph nodes were removed during a surgical procedure 
A. Cancer would develop in the area
B. infections would spread
C. The area would dehydrate
D. Edema would develop distally
A

D. Since the lymph nodes are part of the lymphatic vessels, edema would develop in the areas that would otherwise have been drained, this often happens during breast cancer surgery

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22
Q
What's the main cause of edema following damage to an area of lymphatic vessels
A. Increase in tissue proteins
B. loss of tissue proteins
C. Increase in blood osmotic pressure 
D. Increase in tissue osmotic pressure
A

A. Damage to a vessel interferes with the normal return of proteins that are lost from the circulation, consequently the osmotic pressure of the interstitial fluids increases

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23
Q
An efferent vessel is carrying fluid
A. Away from the heart
B. towards the lymph node
C. Out of an area
D. Away from a node
A

D. Away from a node. A lymph node has affferent vessels that lead into it and efferent vessels that edit from the hilum.

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24
Q
Which on is not an area that contains lymph nodes?
A. Abdominal cavity
B. cranial cavity
C. Thoracic cavity
D. Axillary region
A

B. cranial cavity

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25
Q
Which of these nodes cannot be directly palpated?
A. Inguinal
B. axillary
C. Cubital
D. Mesenteric
A

D. Mesenteric

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26
Q
The breast tissue fluid will drain into the ? Nodes
A. Inguinal
B. pelvic
C. Axillary
D. Cervical
A

C. Axillary

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27
Q
What is the largest lymphatic organ in a child?
A. Spleen
B. adenoids
C. Thymus
D. Appendix
A

C. Thymus. The spleen is the largest lymphatic organ in an adult.

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28
Q
Where is the thymus gland located?
A. Mediastinum
B. pleural cavity
C. Abdominal cavity
D. Superior to the pelvic nodes
A

A. Mediastinum. The thymus gland is embedded in the tissue on the superior surface of the heart and great vessels (mediastinum)

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29
Q
The cells with in the thymus gland originated from the ?
A. Spleen
B. liver
C. Bone marrow
D. Peyer's patches
A

C. Bone marrow. In development, leukocytes, and erythrocytes begin as stem cells in the yolk sac which then enter the fetus and migrate to blood islands in the bone marrow, some of these cells migrate to and remain in the thymus.

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30
Q
The red pulp of the spleen functions to.
A. Produce erythrocytes 
B. produce lymphocytes
C. Phagocytize senescent cells
D. Produce B cells
A

C. Phagocytize senescent cells

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31
Q
The one is not a symptom of inflammation?
A. Edema
B. hyperemia
C. Exudate
D. Dehydration
A

D. Dehydration. In a typical inflammatory response, the area becomes swollen and congested with blood and fluids, exudates are secretions rich in fibrin

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32
Q
Which inflammatory response provides the greatest protection from the spread of pathogens?
A. Antibody production
B. increase in leukocytes 
C. Fibroblast activity
D. Redness and edema
A

C. Fibroblast activity

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33
Q
The major pathologic feature of inflammation is
A. Fibroblast activity
B. capillary permeability 
C. Increase in blood
D. Loss of function
A

D. Loss of function

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34
Q
What is the main inflammatory blood cell?
A. Monocytes 
B. neutrophil 
C. Lymphocytes 
D. Eosinophils
A

B. neutrophil

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35
Q
Which of these does not belong to the others?
A. Monocytes 
B. neutrophil 
C. Macrophages 
D. Histiocytes
A

B. neutrophils. Research indicates that the origin of many tissue macrophages or histiocytes appears to be monocytes that have left circulation and entered tissue spaces.

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36
Q
Which of the following is a specific immune defense?
A. Antibody
B. interferon
C. Phagocytosis 
D. All of these
A

A. Antibody. Antibodies are specially produced only in response to definite antigens or foreign substances

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37
Q
Thymus derived lymphocytes comprise about ? % of the circulating lymphocytes?
A. 99
B. 10
C. 50
D. 75
A

D. 75. About 70-80% of the peripheral blood lymphocytes are T-cells which originated in the bone marrow from thymus migration.

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38
Q
Where is the greatest number of B cells found?
A. Lymph node
B. circulating blood
C. Bone marrow
D. Lymph vessel
A

A. Lymph node. Only 20-30% of the circulating lymphocytes are B-cells, the majority reside in the lymph modules and nodes until mobilized.

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39
Q
Antigens are foreign substances recognized by
A. Macrophages
B. T cells
C. B cells
D. All of these
A

D. All of these. The recognition of foreign particles is a complex process that involves the collaboration among many cell types

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40
Q
Which one could not be antigenic by themselves 
A. Protein
B. polysaccharides
C. Haptens
D. Glycolipids
A

C. Haptens. Haptens are chemicals that do not elicit immune responses by themselves but must be combined with some other agent

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41
Q
Which one activates the cytotoxic T cells
A. Interferon
B. interleukin-1
C. Interleukin-2
D. Interleukin-4
A

C. Interleukin-2. T cells mediate immunity by producing chemicals such as interleukin-2 which then stimulates other T cells to produce toxins which attack the antigen

42
Q
Which factor stimulates B cell proliferation?
A. Interleukin-1
B. interleukin-2
C. Gamma-interferon
D. CSF
A

D. CSF. CSF can stimulate the growth and development of B cell populations, B and T cells often collaborate

43
Q
Which factor activates phagocytosis by monocytes 
A. Cytokine
B. gamma-interferon
C. Interleukin-4 
D. Lymphokine
A

A. Gamma-interferon.

44
Q
T cells may produce ? Which is lethal to the target cells invaded by a pathogen.
A. Interleukin 
B. perforin
C. Interferon
D. Interleukin-3
A

B. perforin. Performing are chemicals produced by T cells that can destroy the invading agents such as viruses, by destroying their host cell

45
Q
Humoral immunity is mediated by the ?
A. Monocytes
B. T cells
C. B cells
D. Neutrophil
A

C. B cells

46
Q
The specific source of antibodies is the 
A. B cell
B. T cell
C. Macrophages
D. Plasma cell
A

D. Plasma cell

47
Q
A gammaglobinemia will seriously impair which ability
A. CMI
B. T cell functions
C. Antibody production
D. Phagocytosis
A

C. Antibody production. Since most antibodies are derived from gamma globulins, this deficiency will reduce the ability to produce AMI but not necessarily impair CMI

48
Q
The heavy chains of an immunoglobulin differ by having
A. Fewer lipids
B. more amino acids
C. More antigen sites
D. Sme sulfur atoms
A

B. more amino acids. The typical gamma globulin has 2 light and 2 heavy amino acid chains held together by sulfur bonds

49
Q
Most of the circulating antibodies are derives from ? Class immunoglobulin 
A. A
B. E
C. G
D. D
A

C. G. 80% of the circulating antibodies are derived from immunoglobulin G (IgG)

50
Q
A vaccine is an example of ? Immunity
A. Naturally acquired active
B. artificially acquired active
C. Artificially acquired passive
D. Naturally acquired passive
A

B. artificially acquired active

51
Q
Artificially acquired passive immunity could be the result of ? Injection
A. Antigen
B. toxoid
C. Gamma globulin
D. Cortisone
A

C. Gamma globulin

52
Q
Naturally acquired passive immunity results from
A. A bee sting
B. immunization
C. A flu shot
D placental transfer
A

D placental transfer. The mother transfers immune factors through the placenta and later breast milk to the fetus and infant

53
Q
AIDS is caused by viruses that specifically invade ?
A. The liver
B. B cells
C. T cells
D. Neutrophil
A

C. T cells. The HIV virus invade the T cell causing a severe decrease in total immune abilities

54
Q
Purified protein derivative is used to screen for?
A. AIDS
B. leukemia
C. Tuberculosis
D. Syphilis
A

C. Tuberculosis. PPD is used in the tuberculin test, antigens related to the tubercle bacillus are introduced into the ski

55
Q
Which one causes the symptoms of an immediate allergy reaction?
A. B cells
B. T cells
C. Mast cells
D. Neutrophil
A

C. Mast cells. Mast cells are the target of the IgE complexes that release vasoactive substances that cause the rash and itching or severe broncho-constriction that occurs in B cell allergies

56
Q
Which one is an autoimmune disease of the thyroid gland
A. Graves' disease
B. SLE
C. Scleroderma
D. Rheumatoid arthritis
A

A. Graves’s disease causes hyperthyroidism because of the interference to the thyroid by antibodies

57
Q
The walls of lymphatic vessels are similar to those of cardiovascular 
A. Arteries
B. veins
C. Capillaries
D. Distributing arteries
A

B. veins. Lymphatic vessels are like veins but have even more valves

58
Q
The lymphatic trunk that drains the upper limb is the 
A. Brochomediastinal trunk
B. intestinal trunk
C. Subclavian trunk
D. Jugular trunk
A

C. Subclavian trunk. The subclavian trunk drains the same area that the subclavian artery and vein serve

59
Q

Lymphatic capillaries are able to receive cellular debris and foreign particles because

A

Of the structure of their flap like valve. Larger items can enter lymphatic capillaries through valves

60
Q
Which one is not a nonspecific defense against disease
A. Species resistance
B. phagocytosis
C. Interferon
D. Hair color and texture
A

D. Hair color and texture

61
Q

What traits characterize antigens?

A

Antigens may be proteins, polysaccharides, glycolipids or glycoproteins that stimulate an immune response.
Antigens are generally large and are immunoreactive.

62
Q
Which one is not produced by T cells and macrophages?
A. Growth-inhibiting factors
B. cytokines 
C. Colony-stimulating factors
D. Tissue thromboplastin
A

D. Tissue thromboplastin are produced by leukocytes

63
Q

How are B cells activated?

A

B cell is activated when it encounters an antigen that matches its B cell receptors and receives cytokines from helper a T cells.
B cells are activated by stimulation and costimulation.

64
Q
Which type of immunoglobulin molecule is passed on to nursing infants in breast milk?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgE
A

C. IgA which is also called secretory antibody

65
Q

Antibodies interact with antigens in all these ways except
A. Opsonization
B. attracting macrophages to the area (chemotaxis)
C. Releasing interferon
D. Agglutination

A

C. Releasing interferons. Antibodies cause the release of interferons

66
Q

Vaccines generally confer what type of immunity?

A

Artificially acquired active immunity. Vaccines are artificial, but usually cause enough of an immune response to exhibit memory

67
Q
Which one would not be found in lymph fluid?
A. Proteins 
B. sodium ions
C. Neutrophil 
D. Erythrocytes
A

D. Erythrocytes are RBC or red blood cells

68
Q
The thoracic duct empties directly into the ? Vein
A. Right subclavian 
B. left subclavian 
C. Right axillary 
D. Brachiocephalic
A

B. left subclavian. The thoracic duct empties into the blood circulation just before the left subclavian merges with the external and internal jugulars

69
Q
Which one does not belong with the other?
A. Thymus
B. lymph nodes
C. Sinus
D. Nodule
A

A. Thymus. The thymus is a primary lymph organ, the others are part of a lymph node which is a secondary lymph organ

70
Q

Where would the Peyer’s patches be found?

A

Most Peyer’s patches are located in the distal small intestine

71
Q
Which lymph lode could not be palpated with fingers?
A. Axillary
B. inguinal
C. Cervical
D. Mesenteric
A

D. Messenteric

72
Q
Which is not a property of the red pulp with in the spleen?
A. Produces lymphocytes 
B. has erythrocytes 
C. Has macrophages
D. Produces erythrocytes
A

A. Lymphocytes are only produced in primary lymph organs

73
Q

T lymphocytes can be found in the bone marrow, spleen, blood, and tonsils as well as thymus gland.
T or F

A

True. Although the T cells originated in the thymus gland, they migrate outward and seed other areas

74
Q

The sinuses of the lymph nodes and spleen are cavities filled with blood.
T or F

A

False the sinuses of the lymph nodes always contain clear lymph fluid, although the spleen has a similar structure, the spleen is an organ served by arteries and veins

75
Q

The spleen always stops its hematopoietic activity at birth

T of F

A

False. Although it is true that red blood cell production by the spleen normally ceases at birth, there are some instances in which red blood production resumes such as in erythroblastosis fetalis.

76
Q

Macrophages are specialized lymphocytes that engulf foreign particles.
T or F

A

False. Macrophages are phagocytic cells that belong to the reticuloendothial system, as far as we know lymphocytes do not differentiate into phagocytic cells

77
Q

Tears contain lysozyme enzymes that can destroy bacteria

T or F

A

True. Tears contain bacteria ideal enzymes such as muramidase ( a lysozyme ) that are effective against some pathogens such as gram positive bacteria, tears act as a chemical barrier to eye infection,

78
Q

Inflammation is a nonspecific defense mechanism that is caused by any cell damage.
T or F

A

True. Inflammation is evoked by chemicals released from damaged tissue and not specific pathogens

79
Q

Mucous membranes provide a barrier to infection mainly because of its phagocytic properties.
T or F

A

False. Mucous membranes act as mechanical barriers to infection and will function efficiently as long as the mucus is constantly removed and replaced.

80
Q

A macrophage could belong to the lymphatic and reticuloendothial systems at the same time.
T or F

A

True. Macrophages are phagocytic and therefore part of the RES in the functional sense but may anatomically be found in a lymphatic area.

81
Q

All phagocytes belong to the nonspecific mechanisms of defense,
T or F

A

False. Phagocytic cells may play roles in either a non-specific or a specific immune mechanism

82
Q

The origin of the B cell is the bone marrow

T or F

A

True

83
Q

A clone is a group of cells with identical genetic properties
T or F

A

True. A clone is a sub population do cells such as certain B or T cells that were produced from a single cell for a specific function

84
Q

The area designated the constant region of the immunoglobulin will bind to the antigen
T or F

A

False. Antigens will bind to the amino acid are called the variable region of the immunoglobulin protein

85
Q

Immunoglobulin E can produce allergic or inflammatory reactions that are life threatening
T or F

A

True, IgE can mediate anaphylaxis or severe inflammatory reactions, although antibody production is a normal defense mechanism, the effect may be deleterious.

86
Q

B cells usually require the presence of some activating factor before they can recognize an antigen
T or F

A

False. A B cell can recognize an antigen but a T cell usually requires an antigen-presenting cell to recognize antigens

87
Q

Neutralizing antibodies cause antigens to lose their toxic properties.
T or F

A

True. Neutralizing antibodies react with antigens and chemically block their toxicity such as tetanus antitoxin.

88
Q

T cell produce factors that stimulate the activity of other cells including B cells.
T or F

A

True. The T cell produces lymphokines and other factors that stimulate phagocytosis, chemotaxis and antibody production

89
Q

The delayed reaction allergy to a chemical is mediated by the B cell system.
T or F

A

False. The delayed allergy pattern, such as contact dermatitis, is caused by T cells

90
Q

The HIV virus causes death from conditions such as pneumonia.
T or F

A

True. Death from AIDS results from secondary conditions such as pneumonia or Kaposi’s sarcoma cancer,

91
Q

Immunosuppressive drugs can be used to suppress the histocompatibility complex reaction in a tissue organ or graft rejection.
T or F

A

True. Immunosuppressive drugs such as Cyclosporine block the sites of lymphocytes recognition and subsequent rejection

92
Q

SLE is an autoimmune disease, which attacks body tissues because of T cell activation.
T or F

A

False. Systemic Lupus Erythematosis is a disease that produces abnormal antibodies from B cells that attack normal tissues.

93
Q

The lymphatic system is an ancillary circulatory system of blood vessels that delivers nutrients and removes wastes from tissues.
T or F

A

False. The lymphatic system is a one-way system of vessels that returns tissue fluids to the heart.

94
Q

Lymphatic vessels contain elastic fibers and valves.

T or F

A

True. Larger lymphatic vessels contain elastic fibers, smooth muscle, and valves much like veins

95
Q

Lymphatic vessels contain valves to allow for one-way movement of fluid.
T or F

A

True. The flow in lymphatic a is similar to that in veins

96
Q

Thymosin is an enzyme requires to stimulate T cell production in the spleen.
T or F

A

False. Thymosin is a class of hormones produced by the thymus.

97
Q

T cell lymphocytes die if they are not capable of recognizing foreign particles.
T or F

A

True. If the thymus finds T cells are not immunocompetent they are destroyed.

98
Q

The lymphatic system can either cause or cure cancer.

T or F

A

True. The lymphatic system can go awry and cause cancer, however, when functioning normally, it can prevent cancer

99
Q

Removal of the spleen will impair the immune capabilities of the individual
T or F

A

True. The spleen is like a very large lymph node, and a storage center of leukocytes. It’s removal can be very detrimental

100
Q

Pus is a collection of white blood cells, cellular debris and bacteria
T of F

A

True. Pus Is necrotic tissue.