Chapter 15- Genes and How They Work Flashcards

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1
Q

Which British physician noted that certain diseases seemed to be more prevalent in particular families?

A

Archibald Garrod

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2
Q

In 1941, a series of experiments by these two scientists at Stanford provided evidence that the DNA of chromosomes acted to specify particular enzymes.

A

Beadle and Tatum.

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3
Q

In their experiments in Stanford, Beadle and Tatum deliberately set out to create what in chromosomes, which allowed them to verify that they behaved in a Mendelian fashion in crosses.

A

they deliberately set out to create mutations in chromosomes

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4
Q

What was Beadle and Tatum’s experiment where they deliberately set out to create mutations in chromosomes?

A

They mutated an organism, Neurospora with Xrays to produce mutants deficient in the synthesis of arginine. The specific defect in each mutant was identified by growing on medium supplemented with intermediates in the biosynthetic pathway for arginine. The enzymes in the pathway can then be correlated with genes on chromosomes.

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5
Q

What was the conclusion that Beadle and Tatum came up with after their experiment

A

The genes specify the structure of enzymes and that each gene encodes the structure of one enzyme: one gene/ one enzyme hypothesis.

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6
Q

Today, because we now know that many enzymes contain multiple polypeptide subunits, each encoded by a separate gene, the relationship is more commonly referred to as _____________________ hypothesis.

A

One gene / one polypeptide hypothesis

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7
Q

What is the central dogma of molecular biology.

A

DNA ==> RNA ==> protein

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8
Q

What is the term used when DNA is copied and an exact copy of the DNA is made into an RNA copy?

A

Transcription

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9
Q

What is the term used when RNA is used to make protein?

A

Translation

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10
Q

Since the original formulation of the central dogma, a class of viruses called ____________ was discovered that can convert their RNA genome into a DNA.

A

retroviruses.

So the central dogma is now modified as:

DNA RNA—-> protein

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11
Q

________________ is the DNA-directed synthesis of RNA by the enzyme RNA polymerase. This process uses the principle of complementarity to use DNA as a template to make RNA>

A

Transcription.

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12
Q

Because DNA is a double strand and RNA is a single strand, only _________________________ needs to be copied.

A

only one of the two DNA strands needs to be copied

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13
Q

During transcription of the DNA into a copy RNA, the strand that is copied is called: ____________ strand.

A

template

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14
Q

During transcription of the DNA into a copy RNA, the strand of DNA not used as a template is called the ________ strand.

A

coding strand

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15
Q

The ____________ strand has the same sequence as the RNA transcript, except that U (uracil) in the RNA is T (thymine) in the DNA-coding strand.

A

coding strand. The coding strand of the DNA is also known as the “sense” strand because it has the same “sense” as the RNA.

coding: 5’-TCAGCCGTCAGCT-3’
template: 3’-AGTCGGCAGTCGA-5’

mRNA - 5’UCAGCCGUCAGCU-3’

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16
Q

Translation takes place on _________, the cellular protein-synthesis machinery.

A

ribosome

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17
Q

___________________ is the intermediate form of the information in DNA that can be transported out of the eukaryotic nucleus to the cytoplasm for ribosomal processing.

A

messenger RNA (mRNA)

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18
Q

____________________ is the class of RNA found in ribosomes.

A

Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

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19
Q

________________ is the intermediary adapter molecule between the mRNA and amino acids.

A

Transfer RNA (tRNA)

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20
Q

What type of RNA has amino acids covalently attached to one end and an anticodon that can base pair with an mRNA codon at the other end?

A

tRNA.

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21
Q

Two scientists, Crick & Brenner reasoned that the genetic code most likely consisted of a series of blocks of information called: _____________, corresponding to an amino acid in the encoded protein.

A

codons

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22
Q

How did Crick and Brenner come up with the hypothesis that there must be 64 different combinations of three codons vs 16?

A

Because there were 4 bases: G,C,T,A. If there were only 2 bases in each codon, then there could only be 16 different codons (4x4). Since there are 20 amino acids (each one having at least one codon representing it), there has to be 3 bases in each codon: 4x4x4 = 64.

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23
Q

Do the codons have space in between each other or no space?

A

no space. Codons are unspaced

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24
Q

True or False: in addition to at least one codon representing one amino acid (i.e. some amino acids might have more than one codon, but each codon only codes for one amino acid), there are also 3 codons that signal “stop” and one codon that signals “start.”

A

True.
3 codons signal stop: UAA, UGA, UAG
1 codon signals start: AUG (which also is the codon for methionine).

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25
Q

The genetic code is _____________________ in almost all organisms.

A

the same.

Because the code is universal, genes can be transferred from one organism to another and can be successfully expressed in their new host.

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26
Q

Although the genetic code is almost universal in almost all organisms, what two organelles differ in their genetic code?

A

mitochondria and chloroplast

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27
Q

What enzyme is needed to transcribe RNA from DNA?

A

RNA polymerase. Eukaryotes have 3 different RNA polymerases.
RNA polymerase II is the one that transcribes the mRNA from the DNA. RNA polymerase III transcribes the tRNA and RNA polymerase I transcribes the rRNA.

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28
Q

______ _________ interact with the RNA polymerase II during the transcription process of a mRNA from DNA and these form an inititiation complex at the promoter region of the DNA.

A

transcription factors.

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29
Q

After the mRNA is transcribed by the RNA polymerase and before the mRNA leaves the nucleus to go to the cytoplasm there are modifications made to the eukaryotic transcripts what are these modifications?

A
  1. Formation of a 5’ cap.
  2. a 3’ Poly A tail is added. The ekukaryotic transcript is cleaved downstream of a specific site prior to the termination site. A series of
    A residues called the 3’ poly A tail is added.
  3. pre-mRNA splicing by splicesome (introns are taken out and exons are spliced together)

The 5’cap protects that 5’ end of the mRNA from degradation and the 3’ tail plays a role in stability of the mRNA by protecting them from degradation.

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30
Q

Non-coding DNA that interrupts the sequence of the gene (intervening sequences) are called ________________ and the coding sequences are called _____________.

A

introns (noncoding); exons (coding).

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31
Q

What is the splicing organelle that is responsible for the splicing, or removal of introns is called: _____________.

A

Spliceosome

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32
Q

________________ is the larger complex that is composed of small nuclear ribonucleoprotein particles (snRNPs) and other associated proteins.

A

Spliceosome

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33
Q

The pre-mRNA splicing occurs where?

A

It occurs in the nucleus prior to the export of the mRNA to the cytoplasm.

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34
Q

The __________________ is the key organelle in translation, but it also requires the participation of ______________, _________________, and a host of other factors.

A

ribosome;

mRNA, tRNA

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35
Q

Each amino acid must be attached to a ____________ with the correct anticodon for protein synthesis to proceed.

This covalent attachment is accomplished by the action of activating enzymes called ______________________.

A

tRNA

aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases.One of these enzymes is present for each of the 20 amino acids. Very specific for each of the 20 amino acids

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36
Q

The tRNA structure is an L-shaped molecule that has two functional ends: the _______________ stem and the ___________ loop.

A

acceptor stem (ACC - see diagram); anticodon loop.

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37
Q

In tRNA, the acceptor stem is in the ___ end of the molecule. The ______ _________ is attached to this end of the molecule. The anticodon loop is the bottom loop of the cloverleaf structure and it can base pair with codons in ______.

A

3’ end;
amino acid
mRNA.

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38
Q

___________ is the energy used to attach a specific amino acid to the tRNA using the enzyme __________________.

A

ATP; aminoacyl tRNA synthetase

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39
Q

The ribosome has multiple tRNA-binding sites. Describe them: P-Site; A-Site; E-Site

A

P site is the site that binds to the tRNA attached to the growing peptide chain (peptidyl)

A site (aminoacyl) binds to the tRNA caryying the next amino acid to be added.

E site (exit) binds the tRNA that carried the previous amino acid added. This is the exit side.

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40
Q

The process of _______________ is one of the most complex and energy expensive tasks that cells perform.

A

Translation

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41
Q

In eukaryotes, the initiating amino acid is _________________ (“start” codon is AUG).

A

methionine

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42
Q

Describe the elongation process during translation.

A
  1. Matching tRNA anticodon with mRNA codon.
  2. Peptide bond formation. Peptidyl trnasferase, located in the large subunit of the ribosome, catalyzes the formation of a peptide bond between the amino group of the amino acid in the A site and the carboxyl group of the growing chain.
  3. Translocation of the ribosome. After the peptide bond has been formed, the ribosome moves relative to the mRNA and the tRNAs. The ribosome moves down the mRNA in a 5’to 3’ direction, reading successive codons. The tRNAs move through the ribosome in the opposite direction, from the A site to the P site and finally the E site, before they are ejected as empty tRNAs, which can be charged with another amino acid and used again
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43
Q

There is a ____________ __________ that is specifically recognized at the beginning of a polypeptide which is recognizeed by a receptor protein in the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). The binding of the ER receptor to the signal sequence holds the ribosome engaged in translation of the protein on the ER membrane. THis process is called: ___________.

A

signal sequence;

docking.

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44
Q

Summarize the key points of gene expression.

A
  1. The process of gene expression converts information in the genotype into the phenotype.
  2. A copy of the gene in the form of mRNA is produced by transcription, and the mRNA is used to direct the synthesis of a protein by translation
  3. Both transcription and translation have 3 components: initiation, elongation, and termination
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45
Q

The production and processing of eukaryotic mRNAs takes place in the _____________, whereas translation takes place in the _____________.

A

nucleus; cytoplasm

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46
Q

What does heat do to DNA strands?

A

Breaks the breaks up dna (denatures it) so that one strand fragments can be made

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47
Q

DNA _____ can be made by cutting the DNA with different enzymes, separating the fragments by ______________ and analyzing the resulting patterns.

A

maps; gel electrophoresis

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48
Q

Once a gene has been cloned, it may be used as a probe to identify the same or a similar gene in DNA isolated from a cell or tissue. This procedure is called: _____________.

A

Southern blot (named after Edwin Southern who developed the procedure in 1975)

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49
Q

One way to look at and analyze DNA fragment is by analyzing ________ ______ ______ _______ or ________.

A

restriction fragment length polymorphism or RFLP.

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50
Q

RFLP or ______ ______ _______ ______, can be used to diagnosis certain diseases where there has been a DNA mutation. Name 3 of these diseases.

A

restriction fragment length polymorphism;

cystic fibrosis, sickle cell anemia, Huntington’s disease.

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51
Q

RFLP is helpful in forensics because DNA is just like a ____________.

A

fingerprint

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52
Q

What is one process of being able to creating hundreds and thousands of DNA fragments quickly? How does it work?

A

Polylmerase Chain Reaction (PCR).
Two primers are used that are complementary to the opposite strands of a DNA sequence, oriented toward each other. When DNA polymerase acts on these primers and the sequence of interest, the primers produce complementary strands, each containing the other primer. If this procedure is done cyclically, the result is a large quantity of sequence corresponding to the DNA that lies between the two primers.

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53
Q

PCR has 3 steps.
In the 1st step, the DNA is denatured using what?
In the 2nd step, primers are laid down by ____ ___________. This is heat resistant so it doesn’t denature.

The 3rd step is done with intermediate temperature: ________.

A

1st step: High temperature

2nd step: Taq Polymerase (from hot springs bacteria; heatloving, so it doesn’t get taq polymerase is not denatured). Taq polymerase can lay down the primer after the heat is turned down.

  1. synthesis of the strand of DNA
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54
Q

Newer technniques of DNA sequences uses enzymes to sequence the DNA by adding a special terminator chain that can’t add any more amino acid to it. This method uses what?

A

dideoxynucleotide
(example: ddGTP, ddCTP, ddATP, ddTTP, etc.) By adding this to the end of a chain, you know that it can’t get longer so you can look for these markers in the DNA so you know exactly what fragment of DNA you are looking at.

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55
Q

Point mutations affect a single site in the DNA. There are 4 types. What are they?

A
  1. Base substitution - one base is substituted for another. If the new mutated codon encodes the same amino acid, the mutation is “silent.” When the substitution changes an amino acid in a protein, then it’s called a “missense mutation.”
  2. Nonsense Mutations - When a base is changed such that the transcribed codon is converted to a STOP codon
  3. Frameshift mutation - Addition or deletion of a single base, which shifts the reading frame in the mRNA downstream of the mutation. Means majority of the protein will be altered
  4. Triple repeat expansion mutations - A triplet codon is repeated either before or after the original codon. Example: Huntington’s disease
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56
Q

What is the point mutation on a single site in the DNA called when one base is substituted for another but that the same amino acid is coded?

A

Base substitution - “silent”

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57
Q

What is the point mutation on a single site in the DNA called when one base is substituted for another but that a different amino acid is coded?

A

Base substitution - “missense mutation”

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58
Q

What is the point mutation on a single site in the DNA called when a base is changed such that the transcribed codon is converted to a stop codon?

A

Nonsense mutation

59
Q

What is the point mutation on a single site in the DNA called when an adddition or deletion of a single base is made so as to cause a shift in the reading frame downstream of the mutation?

A

frameshift mutation

60
Q

Chromosomal mutations change the structure of chromosomes. Many human cancers are associated with chromosomal abnormalities. What are the 4 types of chromosomal mutations?

A
  1. Deletion - Loss of a portion of a chromosome
  2. Duplication - Duplication of a region of a chromosome. This may or may not lead to a phenotypic consequence
  3. Inversions - When a segment of a chromosome is broken in two places, reversed, and put back together. An inversion may or may not have an effect on phenotype if the sites where the inversion occurs do not break within a gene.
  4. Translocation - one chromosome is broken off and joined to another chromosome
61
Q

Mutations are the staring point of evolution. True or false

A

True

If no changes occured in genomes over time, then there could be no evolution. too much change, however, is harmful to the individual with a greatly altered genome. So need a delicate balance, otherwise everyone will be an X-Man.

62
Q
  1. The experiments with nutritional mutants in Neurospora by Beadle and Tatum provided evidence that
    a. bread mold can be grown in a lab on minimal media.
    b. X-rays can damage DNA.
    c. cells need enzymes.
    d. genes specify enzymes.
A

d. genes specify enzymes

63
Q
  1. What is the central dogma of molecular biology?
    a. DNA is the genetic material.
    b. Information passes from DNA directly to protein.
    c. Information passes from DNA to RNA to protein.
    d. One gene encodes only one polypeptide.
A

c. Information passes from DNA to RNA to protein.

64
Q
  1. In the genetic code, one codon
    a. consists of three bases.
    b. specifies a single amino acid.
    c. specifies more than one amino acid.
    d. Both a and b are correct.
A

d. Both a and b are correct

65
Q
  1. Eukaryotic transcription differs from prokaryotic in that
    a. eukaryotes have only one RNA polymerase.
    b. eukaryotes have three RNA polymerases.
    c. prokaryotes have three RNA polymerases.
    d. Both a and c are correct.
A

b. eukaryotes have three RNA polymerases

66
Q
  1. An anticodon would be found on which of the following types of RNA?
    a. snRNA (small nuclear RNA)
    b. mRNA (messenger RNA)
    c. tRNA (transfer RNA)
    d. rRNA (ribosomal RNA)
A

c. tRNA (transfer RNA)

67
Q
  1. RNA polymerase binds to a to initiate .
    a. mRNA; translation
    b. promoter; transcription
    c. primer; transcription
    d. transcription factor; translation
A

b. promoter; transcription

68
Q
  1. During translation, the codon in mRNA is actually “read” by
    a. the A site in the ribosome.
    b. the P site in the ribosome.
    c. the anticodon in a tRNA.
    d. the anticodon in an amino acid.
A

c. the anticodon in a tRNA.

69
Q
  1. You have mutants that all affect the same biochemical pathway. If feeding an intermediate in the pathway supports growth, this tells you that the enzyme encoded by the affected gene
    a. acts after the intermediate used.
    b. acts before the intermediate used.
    c. must act to produce the intermediate.
    d. must not act to produce the intermediate.
A

b. acts before the intermediate used.

70
Q
  1. The splicing process
    a. occurs in prokaryotes.
    b. joins introns together.
    c. can produce multiple mRNAs from the same transcript.
    d. only joins exons for each gene in one way.
A

c. can produce multiple mRNAs from the same transcript.

71
Q
  1. The enzyme that forms peptide bonds is called peptidyl transferase because it transfers
    a. a new amino acid from a tRNA to the growing peptide.
    b. the growing peptide from a tRNA to the next amino acid.
    c. the peptide from one amino acid to another.
    d. the peptide from the ribosome to a charged tRNA.
A

b. the growing peptide from a tRNA to the next amino acid.

72
Q
  1. In comparing gene expression in prokaryotes and eukaryotes
    a. eukaryotic genes can produce more than one protein.
    b. prokaryotic genes can produce more than one protein.
    c. both produce mRNAs that are colinear with the protein.
    d. Both a and c are correct.
A

d. Both a and c are correct.

73
Q
  1. The codon CCA could be mutated to produce
    a. a silent mutation.
    b. a codon for Lys.
    c. a Stop codon.
    d. Both a and b are correct.
A

a. a silent mutation.

74
Q
  1. An inversion will
    a. necessarily cause a mutant phenotype.
    b. only cause a mutant phenotype if the inversion breakpoints fall within a gene.
    c. halt transcription in the inverted region because the chromosome is now backward.
    d. interfere with translation of genes in the inverted region
A

b. only cause a mutant phenotype if the inversion breakpoints fall within a gene.

75
Q
  1. What is the relationship between mutations and evolution?
    a. Mutations make genes better.
    b. Mutations can create new alleles.
    c. Mutations happened early in evolution, but not now.
    d. There is no relationship between evolution and genetic mutations
A

b. Mutations can create new alleles.

76
Q

Segments of a chromosome that are lost are called?

A

Deletions

77
Q

Segments of a chromosome that are broken in 2 places, reversed, and then put back together are called?

A

Inversions

78
Q

Segments of a chromosome that are repeated are called ?

A

Duplications

79
Q

Segments of a chromosome that break off and attach to another chromosome are called?

A

Translocations

80
Q

If a duplication occurs directly next to the original segment, it is termed a ______ duplication

A

Tandem

81
Q

If two chromosomes are broken and they exchange non-homologous segments, this is called a ________ translocation

A

Reciprocal

82
Q

Reverse Transcription

A

RNA is used as a template to make a complementary strand of DNA

83
Q

DNA Replication

A

DNA is used as a template to make a complementary strand of DNA

84
Q

Transcription

A

DNA is used as a template to make a complementary strand of RNA

85
Q

Translation

A

RNA is used as a template to make a polypeptide

86
Q

RNA polymerase binds to a region of the DNA called the?

A

Promoter

87
Q

RNA polymerase

A

begins to unwind and separate the 2 strands of the DNA double helix

88
Q

Actual synthesis of the RNA transcript begins at the?

A

Start site

89
Q

Successive RNA nucleotides are added to the 3’ end of the growing RNA chain during a process called?

A

Elongation

90
Q

When RNA polymerase reaches a ________, the RNA transcript and RNA polymerase separate from the DNA, and the DNA within the transcription bubble rewinds.

A

Terminator sequence

91
Q

In eukaryotes, how can a single gene code for several different proteins?

A

A single pre-mRNA can be spliced to form different mature mRNA by including different sets of exons

92
Q

Silent Mutation

A

Changes a codon for one amino acid into a different codon for the same amino acid

93
Q

Substitution

A

One or a few base pairs are replaced by different base pairs

94
Q

Deletion

A

One or a few base pairs are lost

95
Q

Missense Mutation

A

Changes a codon for one amino acid into a codon for a a different amino acid

96
Q

Nonsense Mutation

A

Changes a codon for one acid into a stop codon

97
Q

Frameshift Mutation

A

An addition or deletion that alters the codons downstream from the mutation

98
Q

Triplet Repeat Expansion

A

This type of mutation causes Huntington’s disease and has only been observed in humans and mice

99
Q

Addition

A

One or a few base pairs are gained

100
Q

Processing of mRNA transcripts occurs in prokaryotes only.

A

False

Processing of mRNA transcripts occurs in eukaryotes only.

101
Q

Before the mRNA is processed, it is called the primary transcript

A

True

The primary transcript is made by RNA polymerase II

102
Q

The final processed form of mRNA is called the mature mRNA

A

True

The mature mRNA leaves the nucleus through pores in the nuclear envelope

103
Q

Transcript processing takes place in the cytoplasm

A

False

Transcript processing takes place in the nucleus

104
Q

During Transcript processing, a methylated GTP is added to the 3’ end of the transcript

A

False

During transcript processing, a methylated GTP is added to the 5’ end of the transcript

105
Q

During transcript processing, a series of adenine residues are added to the 5’ end of the transcript

A

False

During transcript processing, a series of adenine residues are added to the 3’ end of the transcript

106
Q

During transcript processing, noncoding regions, called exons are removed and the coding regions, called introns, are spliced together

A

False

During transcript processing, noncoding regions, called introns are removed and the coding regions, called exons are spliced together

107
Q

The poly-A tail appears to play a role in stability of mRNA by protecting them from degradation

A

True

Regulating the degradation of mRNAs is one way cells can regulate gene expression

108
Q

A single primary transcript can be spliced into different mature mRNAs by the inclusion of different exons, a process called alternative splicing

A

True

Because of alternative splicing, a single eukaryotic gene may code for several different proteins

109
Q

A small ribosomal subunit binds to a molecule of______ nears its 5’ end

A

mRNA

In prokaryotes, the small ribosomal subunit is positioned correctly on the mRNA due to a conserved sequence at the 5’ end of the mRNA called the ribosome-binding sequence (RBS). In eukaryotes, the 5’ cap plays the same role.

110
Q

A charged ______ molecule with a UAC anticodon binds to the first AUG codon in the mRNA strand

A

tRNA

In eukaryotes, the initiator tRNA is charged with the amino acid methionine. In prokaryotes, it is charged with a chemically modified methionine, N-formylmethionine.

111
Q

A large ribosomal subunit associates with the _____ ribosomal subunit

A

small

The complete ribosome consists of a large subunit joined to a small subunit.

112
Q

A charged tRNA with the ______ that is complementary to the codon in the A site enters and binds to the A site

A

anticodon

With RNA -RNA binding, A always pairs with U and G always pairs with C.

113
Q

A peptide bond forms between the amino acid attached to the tRNA in the A site and the growing polypeptide chain attached to the tRNA in the ______ site

A

P

he peptide bond forms between the carboxyl group of the growing polypeptide chain attached to the P site tRNA and the amino group of the amino acid attached to the A site tRNA.

114
Q

The ribosome moves along the mRNA so that the tRNA that was in the _______ site is now in the P site and the tRNA that was in the P site is now in the E site. The movement of the ribosome is called ______

A

A

Translocation

Movement of the ribosome relative to the mRNA and tRNAs is called translocation. After translocation of the ribosome, the A site ie empty and ready to bind a new, charged tRNA.

115
Q

The tRNA in the ______ site is ejected

A

E

The ejected tRNA can be recharged with another amino acid and used again.

116
Q

When the ribosome encounters a stop codon, a ______ binds to the A site

A

Release factor

The genetic code contains 3 stop codons. Stop codons do not bind tRNA; instead, they are recognized by proteins called release factors.

117
Q

The release factor breaks the covalent bond that links the newly synthesized ______ to the tRNA in the P site

A

Polypeptide Chain

Breaking this covalent bond releases the newly synthesized polypeptide chain from the ribosome.

118
Q

The mRNA, tRNA and ______ ribosomal subunits dissociate from each other

A

2

After dissociation, the ribosomal subunits and RNA molecules can be reused.

119
Q

The start codon has a dual function because it also codes for an amino acid

A

True

The start codon codes for methionine in eukaryotes and for a chemically modified form of methionine in prokaryotes.

120
Q

Most codons code for more than one amino acid

A

False

Each codon that codes for an amino acid codes for only one amino acid.

121
Q

Most amino acids are specified by more than one codon

A

True

Because a single amino acid may be specified by more than one codon, the code is said to be degenerate.

122
Q

Only 20 different codons are used to code for amino acids

A

False

Actually, 61 of the 64 possible codons are used to code for amino acids.

123
Q

In some cases, it is possible to change the sequence of bases in codon and it will still code for the same amino acid

A

True

Because a single amino acid may be specified by more than one codon, sometimes changing the sequence of bases in a codon will not change the amino acid it codes for.

124
Q

All codons code for amino acids

A

False

There are 3 stop codons and they do not code for any amino acids. Instead, they are recognized by special protein release factors.

125
Q

The genetic code is read in groups of 4 bases

A

False

The genetic code is read in groups of 3 bases.

126
Q

The genetic code includes specific start and stop codons

A

True

There is 1 start codon and 3 stop codons.

127
Q

The genetic code is the same in almost all living organisms

A

True

Minor differences in the genetic code have been found in the genomes of mitochondria, chloroplasts, and ciliates.

128
Q

Deleting a single base from an mRNA molecule usually alters one codon only

A

False

Deleting a single base from an mRNA molecule usually alters all of the codons downstream from the deletion.

129
Q

The codons do not overlap each other

A

True

For example, 9 bases will be read as 3 separate codons.

130
Q

There is only one start codon

A

True

The universal start codon is AUG.

131
Q

Stop codons have a dual function because each one also codes for an amino acid

A

False

Each stop codon does not code for an amino acid. Instead, it is recognized by a special protein release factor.

132
Q

There are 66 possible codons

A

False

There are 64 possible codons (4x4x4).

133
Q

Special “spacer” proteins are used to mark the end of one codon and the start of the next codon

A

False

There is no signal or punctuation to mark the end of one codon or the start of the next.

134
Q

1) A tRNA molecule charged with its amino acid joins to the first AUG codon in the mRNA strand

A

Initiation

135
Q

2) The small ribosomal subunit binds to mRNA

A

Initiation

136
Q

3) The large ribosomal subunit binds to the small ribosomal subunit

A

Initiation

137
Q

1) A charged tRNA with a complementary anticodon to the codon in the A site enters and binds

A

Elongation

138
Q

2) A peptide bond forms between the amino group of the amino acid attached to the A site tRNA and the carboxyl group of the growing polypeptide chain

A

Elongation

139
Q

3) The ribosome moves along the mRNA so that the tRNA that was in the A site is now in the P site and the tRNA that was in the P site is now in the E site

A

Elongation

140
Q

4) The tRNA in the E site is ejected

A

Elongation

141
Q

1) A release factor enters the A site of the ribosome

A

Termination

142
Q

2) A release factor breaks the covalent bond that links the polypeptide chain to the P site tRNA

A

Termination

143
Q

3) The mRNA, tRNA, and 2 ribosomal subunits dissociate from each other

A

Termination