Chapter 12 PPM Flashcards

1
Q

Who is responsible for altering of any instrument discrepancy or departure from acknowledged clearance ?

A

PNF must monitor and alert the PF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does the PNF call when -

Within 1000ft of APA

Within 200ft of APA

A

Alert …..ft

Approaching ….ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Who makes changes to the MSP/HDG BUG/APA with and without the AP connected ?

A

If the AP is engaged the PF will make changes to these things and the PNF will cross check

If AP is disconnected the PNF will make the changes for the PF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

At a CTAF aerodrome what call is made first (ATC OR CTAF) and why ?

A

ATC will be called first to gain a broad SA, followed by a CTAF taxi call when full attention can be given to proximate traffic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What should VHF 2 be set to when other communications are not needed ?

A

121.500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

At what distance shall you make an inbound call on the CTAF ?

A

25 nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

During a straight in approach what call if mandatory ?

A

5nm final

3nm is also recommended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is your APA set to during your after landing and after start scans ?

A

APA will be set to:

  • In controlled airspace 100ft below assigned level
  • OCTA climbing into CTA set to LL
  • OCTA without entering CTA set cruise level
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Single engine climb what speed shall be used

A

Climb to MSA shall be conducted at V2 speed then from MSA to acceleration altitude Venroute speed shall be used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Testing navsaids and set up ?

PNF AND PF duties

A

PNF will tune, identify and test Navaids

PF will call inbound course/radials and cross checked by PNF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When should a go around be initiated on final ?

A

If the aircraft is not stabilised by the FAF or 300ft AGL

Stabilised conditions listed on pg.98

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What should rates of descent not exceed ?

A

2000fpm when below 2000ft AGL

1000fpm after the FAF or below 1000ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What altitude should you be turned onto final and stabilised by ?

A

500ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

SWS what it stands for and when does it affect operations?

A

Soft Wet Surfaces

If SWS are associated with unsealed runways it can not be used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What wind speed is the DPL limited to ?

A

40kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Visibility below 800m at an uncontrolled aerodrome are limited to what ?

A

Only one movement on the tarmac at any one time

17
Q

What nm value shall be used to not operate near storms ?

A

5nm

18
Q

Weather radar range settings?!

A

Mid levels FL150-FL200 operated radar at 10-15nm

High levels >FL200 operate radar at 20nm

19
Q

What is the criteria for severe wind shear ?

A

Wind greater than 15kts and fluctuating

Vertical speeds greater than 500fpm and fluctuating

20
Q

What is preferred when landing with possible wind shear ?

A

Flap 20 landing

No large power fluctuations until in the flare

Below 800ft use stabilised approach speed of not more than Vref+20

21
Q

What pitch attitude should be achieved when initially going around due wind shear ?

A

18 degrees nose up

22
Q

Prior to departure what documents should be displayed on the iPad ?

A

Aerodrome chart

CDP

SID if required

23
Q

In an abnormality the PIC is responsible for initiating “Taking over” and “handing over” procedures

A

No answer. Statement above

24
Q

When will the PNF call heading when out of tolerance ?

A

+/- 5 degrees AEO

Initially +/- 20 degrees OEI

25
Q

When will the PNF call “speed” in regards to tolerance ?

A

If airspeed falls below v2+5 or if an overspeed condition is likely

26
Q

During an instrument approach if on level flight and altitude is +/- 100ft what will the PNF call?

A

PNF - altitude

PF - checked

27
Q

If during an instrument approach the ILS/LLZ is half or more scale deflection what will be called ?

A

PNF - localiser tracking

PF - checked

28
Q

If during an instrument approach the Glideslope is half or more scale deflection what will be called ?

A

PNF - Glideslope tracking

PF - checked

29
Q

If during an IAP:
- VOR/FMS CDI is more than half scale

  • NDB outside +/-5 degrees
  • Outside 2nm DME Arc

What will be called by the PNF ?

A

PNF - tracking

PF - checked

30
Q

What operations is the route LSALT calculated for ?

A

RNP 2 operations only.

Anything else needs to use the grid LSALT and obtain GMFO approval

31
Q

When on vertical guidance continue to compare visual slope indications with glide slope indications until 100ft

A

Statement above

32
Q

If not instructed to contact tower on final at what nm value should you transfer ?

A

4nm

33
Q

If a TAWS/GPWS is triggered during an approach what must you do ?

A

Conduct a missed approach

34
Q

When should you activate PAL?

A

As close as practical to 15nm

35
Q

What is your touchdown aim point ?

A

300m (start of middle touchdown zone markings)