Chapter 12 PPM Flashcards
Who is responsible for altering of any instrument discrepancy or departure from acknowledged clearance ?
PNF must monitor and alert the PF
What does the PNF call when -
Within 1000ft of APA
Within 200ft of APA
Alert …..ft
Approaching ….ft
Who makes changes to the MSP/HDG BUG/APA with and without the AP connected ?
If the AP is engaged the PF will make changes to these things and the PNF will cross check
If AP is disconnected the PNF will make the changes for the PF
At a CTAF aerodrome what call is made first (ATC OR CTAF) and why ?
ATC will be called first to gain a broad SA, followed by a CTAF taxi call when full attention can be given to proximate traffic
What should VHF 2 be set to when other communications are not needed ?
121.500
At what distance shall you make an inbound call on the CTAF ?
25 nm
During a straight in approach what call if mandatory ?
5nm final
3nm is also recommended
What is your APA set to during your after landing and after start scans ?
APA will be set to:
- In controlled airspace 100ft below assigned level
- OCTA climbing into CTA set to LL
- OCTA without entering CTA set cruise level
Single engine climb what speed shall be used
Climb to MSA shall be conducted at V2 speed then from MSA to acceleration altitude Venroute speed shall be used.
Testing navsaids and set up ?
PNF AND PF duties
PNF will tune, identify and test Navaids
PF will call inbound course/radials and cross checked by PNF
When should a go around be initiated on final ?
If the aircraft is not stabilised by the FAF or 300ft AGL
Stabilised conditions listed on pg.98
What should rates of descent not exceed ?
2000fpm when below 2000ft AGL
1000fpm after the FAF or below 1000ft AGL
What altitude should you be turned onto final and stabilised by ?
500ft AGL
SWS what it stands for and when does it affect operations?
Soft Wet Surfaces
If SWS are associated with unsealed runways it can not be used
What wind speed is the DPL limited to ?
40kts