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ATwithEmily > Chapter 11 - Therapeutic Medications > Flashcards

Chapter 11 - Therapeutic Medications Flashcards

1
Q

What is the study of the movement of drugs through the body to produce the desired effects?

A

Pharmacokinetics

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2
Q

What are the five steps of moving a drug through the body?

A
  1. Administration
  2. Absorption
  3. Distribution
  4. Metabolism
  5. Excretion
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3
Q

What two factors affect bioavailibilty?

A
  1. route of drug administration
  2. absorption
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4
Q

T/F: Drugs that inhibit or block effects are called agonists.

A

False, agonists facilitate or produce a change

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5
Q

T/F: Drugs that inhibit or block effects are called antagonists.

A

True

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6
Q

What is the absorption rate?

A

The amount of time that it takes the drug to move into the tissues and produce a therapeutic effect

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7
Q

What are the three enteral routes?

A

oral, sublingual, rectal

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8
Q

What are medications combined with to facilitate entry into the body?

A

Vehicles

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9
Q

T/F: Enteric-coated preparations are drugs that are covered in acid-resistant materials to protect it from the acid and peptin in the stomach for absorbtion in the intestines.

A

True

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10
Q

T/F: Sustained-release perparations are capsules or tablets that are filled with tiny spheres designed to disolve at variable rates.

A

True

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11
Q

How long after taking it (on average) does an oral medication enter the bloodstream?

A

30 min

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12
Q

Why are sublingual medications absorbed much faster?

A

Going through the mucosa avoids metabolism in the liver

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13
Q

When would you use the recal route of administration?

A

For people who can’t hold down food/liquid or unconscious people

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14
Q

What are the four invasive parenteral routes of drug administration?

A
  1. Intravenous
  2. intra-arterial
  3. intramuscular
  4. subcutaneous injection
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15
Q

What are the three noninvasive parenteral routes of drug administration?

A
  1. inhalation
  2. topical
  3. transdermal
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16
Q

What factors affect drug absorption (5)

A
  1. type of administration
  2. surface area
  3. blood flow in area
  4. type of cell membrane it has to cross
  5. solubility of drug (fat or water)
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17
Q

Where do most drugs exit the blood?

A

capillary beds

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18
Q

T/F: All drugs will eventually leave the blood stream and be excreted.

A

False, if they are too large (like if it had bound to albumin) they will remain in the blood

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19
Q

T/F: Some drugs do not need a receptor to be effective.

A

True

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20
Q

What is the original drug broken down into after biotranformation (drug metabolism)

A

metabolites

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21
Q

T/F: All drugs go through the first-pass effect in the liver

A

False, only oral

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22
Q

T/F: Not all drugs are metabolized.

A

True

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23
Q

T/F: Drugs that are highly lipid soluable are usually excreted by the kidneys.

A

False, usually the kidneys cannot excrete them so they are broken down into more water soluable compounds by the liver for excretion

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24
Q

T/F: Drug metabolism will not alter the effect of the drug.

A

False, can sometime inactivate or activate the drug

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25
Q

What are the 6 routes a drug can exit the body?

A

Sweat, bile, saliva, urine, breast milk, or exhaled by the lung

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26
Q

What are the two main types of drug excretion?

A

renal and hepatic

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27
Q

What are the two basic drug plasma levels?

A
  1. Minimum effective concentration (MEC)
  2. Toxic concentration
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28
Q

What is the therapeutic range of a drug?

A

The range between the MEC and the toxic concentration

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29
Q

T/F: The narrower the therapeutic range of a drug, the safer it is.

A

False, the wider the range the safer (more flexibility between effective concentration and overdose)

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30
Q

T/F: As long as the plasma levels remain above the MEC, the therapeutic response of a drug will continue.

A

True

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31
Q

T/F: Maximal efficacy is the dose at which the therpeutic response occurs and continues to increase in magnitude until a plateau is reached.

A

True

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32
Q

T/F: If an additional dose of medication is given, the maximal efficacy of the dose will double.

A

False, it will have no effect if a plateau is reached

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33
Q

T/F: A drug with a higher potency requires a smaller dosage to produce the same effects.

A

True

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34
Q

What factors influence drug interactions? (7)

A
  • genetics
  • age
    -current illness or disease
  • quantity of drug ingested
  • duration of drug therapy
  • time between taking 2 drugs
  • which drug is taken first
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35
Q

Which three types of drugs are responsible for 80% of adverse drug reactions?

A

NSAIDS, beta-lactam antibiotics, and sulfonamides

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36
Q

T/F: Drug dispensing is the term given to providing one dose of a medication to a person.

A

False, that’s administration of medication. Drug dispensing is more than one dose.

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37
Q

T/F: Physicians currently use “Physicians Desk Reference” to access the most current diagnostic and treatment information.

A

False, they use Epocrates

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38
Q

What common medications are used to treat sports related injuries? (8)

A
  • analgesics & antipyretics
  • NSAIDS
  • corticosteriods
  • anesthetics
  • antiseptics
  • tobical antibiotics
  • antifungal agents
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39
Q

What is an antipyretic?

A

A drug used to prevent or reduce fever

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40
Q

What does acetaminophen do?

A

inhibits synthesis of prostaglandins in the CNS (but not in peripheral tissues) > analgesic and reduces fever

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41
Q

T/F: Acetaminophen also has inti-inflammtory and antiplatelet proporties.

A

False

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42
Q

What does aspirin do?

A

analgesic, anti-inflammatory, antipyretic

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43
Q

T/F: Acetaminophen can be used as a substitute for aspirin to decrease GI stress and ulcer develpoment.

A

True

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44
Q

T/F: You cannot overdose on acetominophen because it is processed quickly by the liver.

A

False, too much can lead to liver damage and death

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45
Q

What is Reye syndrome?

A

swelling of liver and brain - recurrent vomiting that occurs a week after the onset and can result in a full recovery or a coma (possibility of death)

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46
Q

T/F: If aspirin is used in a child younger than 18, it can result in Reye syndrome

A

True

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47
Q

What is the main mechanism of an NSAID?

A

inhibits prostaglandins and other related compounds by inhibiting COX

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48
Q

What does a prostaglandin do?

A

regulate cell function - at an injury promotes blood flow, tissue permeability, and facilitaites histamine and bradykinin

49
Q

T/F: Inhibition of COX-1 result in anti-inflamatory effects?

A

false, thats COX-2

50
Q

T/F: Inhibition of COX-1 can result in adverse GI effects?

A

True

51
Q

Which COX is responsible for the inflammation?

A

COX-2

52
Q

T/F: NSAIDs do not normally create dependance

A

True

53
Q

T/F: NSAIDs have anti-pyretic properties and antiplatelet effects.

A

True

54
Q

T/F: Alcohol should never be taken with NSAIDs because it increases the risk of GI irritation and stomach ulcers.

A

True

55
Q

T/F: NSAIDs are effective for relief of severe pain which is why they are so widely used.

A

false, not effective

56
Q

T/F: Prescription strength NSAIDs can only be precribed by a lincenced practitioner.

A

True

57
Q

What are corticosteroids?

A

steriod hormones that are naturally produced in the adrenal cortex but can be produced synthetically.

58
Q

T/F: Corticosteroids are powerful drugs that affect almost the entire body.

A

True

59
Q

How do corticosteroids block inflammation?

A

by inhibiting chemical mediators

60
Q

T/F: Corticosteriods have a more specific scope of reducing inflammation compared to NSAIDs.

A

False, corticosteriods have more ways to reduce inflammation than NSAIDs

61
Q

T/F: Chronic use of corticosteriods can weaken the immune system and make a person mor susceptible to infection

A

True

62
Q

What are some possible adverse reactions to corticosteroids?

A
  • itching
  • burning
  • dry skin
  • fluid retention
    Rare: change in appetite, abnormal hair growth, dizziness, restlessness, GI distress, menstrual irregularities, optic pain.
63
Q

What are corticosteriods indicated for?

A

skin disorders
nasal inflammation
rheumatic disorders
skin infections

64
Q

Corticosteriods should not be used by whom?

A

individuals with
HIV /AIDS, heart disease, hypertension, diabetes, gastritis, peptic ulcers, lupus, or other infections.

65
Q

T/F: Corticosteriods are banned by the NCAA and USOC with the exception of topical applications.

A

False, not banned for NCAA

66
Q

T/F: The USOC will allow inhaled, local, or intra-articular injections with written permission.

A

True

67
Q

What does pruritus mean?

A

Itchiness

68
Q

How do anesthetics work?

A

Inhibit the sensory nerve receptors in the skin.

69
Q

For what conditions are infiltrative anesthetics commonly used?

A

turf toes or hip pointers

70
Q

What are topical anesthetics called when they are used for relieving pain in a musculoskeletal injury?

A

counterirritants

71
Q

Give two examples of counterirritants

A

Icy Hot, Solarcaine

72
Q

T/F: Methyl salicylate is safe for people who are allergic to aspirin.

A

False, body may absorb the salicylate.

73
Q

How do muscle relaxors works?

A

Inhibit affferent messages that travel form the muscles to the brian

74
Q

T/F: Because muscle relaxors work on the CNS, they can cause overally CNS depression (drowsiness, dizziness, sedation).

A

True

75
Q

T/F: Muscle relaxors are not banned by the NCAA or USOC

A

True

76
Q

What are the two basic types of bacteria that antibiotics fight against?

A

Streptococcus and Staphylococcus

77
Q

What is the difference betweeen antiseptics and disinfectants?

A

Antiseptics are used on living tissue (isopropyl alcohol, iodine) and disinfectants are used on non-living tissue.

78
Q

In humans, what are the two types of fungal cells?

A

molds or yeasts

79
Q

Tinea coporis, tinea pedis, and tinea cruris are caused by molds or yeasts?

A

molds

80
Q

What are the performance benefits of caffeine

A

CNS stimulant that increases alertness and feelings of well-being. Stimulates the secretion of adrenaline

81
Q

candidiasis and moniliasis are caused by molds or yeasts?

A

yeasts

82
Q

T/F: Caffeine is considered by the NCAA and the IOC to be a restricted/controlled drug.

A

True

83
Q

What are the performance benefits of tobacco?

A

low-level CNS stimulant, nicotine is a stimulant that is highly addictive

84
Q

T/F: In low doses, nicotine stimulates the autonomic ganglia and large doses depress

A

True

85
Q

What are the adverse conditions associated with oral tobacco

A

halitosis, permanantly discoloured teeth, oral abrasions, peridontal disease, tooth loss and leukoplakia.

86
Q

T/F: Leukoplakia is an oral disease categorized as leasions on the teeth, gums, and cheeks. It can lead to oral cancer.

A

True

87
Q

T/F: Alcohol is the most abused drug in US and the number 1 choice of drug for intercollegiate athletes

A

True

88
Q

T/F: Caffeine causes vasoconstriction in all areas of the body.

A

False, no vasoconstriction in renal afferent artery

89
Q

What is the half-life of caffeine?

A

3.5 hours

90
Q

What is the limit for caffeine defind by the NCAA and the IOC?

A

NCAA: >15 ug/mL
IOC: >12 ug/mL

91
Q

What effects do alcohol have on the body?

A

Passes the blood-brain barrier and depresses the CNS

92
Q

How much of alcohol is processed in the liver?

A) 100%
B) 90%
C) 80%
D) 70%

A

B) 90%, the rest is excreted in sweat, urine, and exhalation

93
Q

Which two systems does marjuana affect and what are the effects?

A

CNS
- Impaired motor coordination
- Decreased short-term memory
- Difficulty concentrating
- Decline work performance

Cardiovascular system
- Tachycardia
- Changes in BP

94
Q

T/F: Alcohol is banned in all NCAA sports.

A

False, only riflery

95
Q

T/F: Marijuana results in reduction of maximal exercise performance and a premature acheivement of VO2max

A

True

96
Q

How long can marijuana be detected in drug testing?

A

up to 2-4 weeks

97
Q

What are the 5 types of diaretics and when are they used?

A

1) carbonic anhydrase inhibitors- glucoma (decreases production of aqeuous humor -> decreases intraocular pressure)
2) loop diaretics - emergencies -> edema associated with cirrhosis, heart failure, renal disease.
3) Osmotic diuretics - low urine production in renal failure, reduce cerebral edema & intraocular pressure before surgery
4) Potassium sparing - chronic heart failure and hypertension
5) Thiazides - long term treatment of hypertension, edema from chronic heart failure, hepatic cirrhosis, corticosteriod and estrogen therapy, renal dysfunction

98
Q

What are anabolic-androgenic steriods commonly used for?

A

stimulate growth and accelerate weight gain

99
Q

T/F: In people who don’t exercise anabolic steriods have no effect.

A

False, increases hunger and feelings of well-being, just no effect on muscle size or strength

100
Q

What are some short-term side effects of steriods?

A

Rage, increase appetite, increased sex-drive, lowered tolerance to pain, acne, male pattern baldness, menstrual irregularites, deepening of voice, decreased breast development, facial and body hair growth, gynecomastia.

101
Q

What are some long-term side effects of steriod use?

A

CVD, liver disease, testicular atrophy, impotence, decrease in sperm, enlarged clitoris, uterine atrophy, early closure of physis in children (stunted height).

102
Q

What is hGH used for?

A

Muscle growth and strength, and muculoskeletal healing properties.

103
Q

T/F: hGH is also used medically to improve childrens growth and prevent body wasting in conditions like AIDS.

A

True

104
Q

T/F: Overdose of hGH can lead to acromegaly, but the therapeutic window is large for hGH so it is rare.

A

False, the therapeutic window for hGH is very small.

105
Q

T/F: hGH is difficult to detect in drug testing.

A

True

106
Q

What do amphetamines do?

A

powerful CNS stimulant

107
Q

What does Ephedra do?

A

CNS stimulant that increases serum levels of norepinephrine- increases BP, HR, cardiac output, and peripheral vascular resistance.

108
Q

T/F: Ephedra can be deadly in hot envrioments because it increases heat production and body temperature

A

true

109
Q

T/F: Synthetic variants of ephedra are used to make ecstacy and methamphetamines.

A

True

110
Q

What are the two types of blood doping?

A

Homologous transfusions & autologous transfusions

111
Q

What is the advantage of doping with erythropoietin?

A

Increased RBC count means more oxygen uptake

112
Q

T/F: Both darbepoetin and erythropoietin can be detected in drug testing now.

A

True

113
Q

What is the main advantage of creatine?

A

Faster regeneration of ATP, elays muscle fatigue and soreness,

114
Q

T/F: Creatine is banned by the NCAA but not the IOC

A

False, banned by neither

115
Q

What are the three intentions of drug testing?

A

1) drug testing discovers the individuals that may be experiencing problems.
2) Testing is performed to screen participants for evidence of drug use/abuse
3) Drug testing protects individuals from injury or from causing injury to others.

116
Q

What are some methods of drug testing?

A

urine, blood, human hair, radioimmunoassay

117
Q

What are the two main disadvantages of urine testing?

A

sample easily tampered with, potential of humiliating experience for individual

118
Q

What are three ways people have tried to circumvent urine testing?

A

1) masking agents
2) determination of drug half-life
3) substitution of urine

119
Q

T/F The NCAA does two random visits per year to drug test D1 football and track and field athletes.

A

True

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