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Sedgwick County Capt > Chapter 11 Delivery Of Emergecy Services I > Flashcards

Chapter 11 Delivery Of Emergecy Services I Flashcards

1
Q

Fire can exceed 500°F within _______.

A

3-5 minutes

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2
Q

The potential for flashover occurs within ________.

A

5 minutes

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3
Q

Human Survivability limit is ________°F.

A

212

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4
Q

___________ is a system that optimizes the utilization of all available resources, personnel, procedures, and equipment in order to promote safety and improve operational efficiency.

A

Crew Resource Management

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5
Q

________ are critical to success at any operations.

A

Communication

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6
Q

_________ is the necessity of maintaining a level of attentiveness at any event.

A

Situational awareness

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7
Q

___________ during an emergency relies on the use of risk/benefit analysis.

A

Decision making

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8
Q

__________ are any factors that interfere with communications, situational awareness, decision-making, and teamwork.

A

Barriers

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9
Q

What are the 11 Rules of Engagement for Firefighter Survival?

A

1 size up

2 determine occupancy survival profile

3 Do not risk your life for live/property that cannot be saved

4 Limited risk to protect savable property

5 Vigilant and measured risk to protect and rescue savable life

6 Go in together, stay together, come out together

  1. Continuous awareness of your air supply, situation, location and fire conditions

8 Constantly monitor fire ground communications

9 Report unsafe practices or conditions

10 Abandon your position and retreat before deteriorating conditions can harm you

11 Declare a mayday as soon as you THINK you are in danger

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10
Q

_________ requires emergency responders to gain control of the scene as quickly as possible and maintain that control throughout the incident.

A

Incident Scene Management

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11
Q

________ is the basis for safe and efficient incident scene management

A

NIMS-ICS

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12
Q

Essential to all emergency incident scene management is the management of these (4) emergency response resources:

A

Apparatus
Personnel
Equipment
Materials

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13
Q

Company officers must use ________ on all incidents no matter how small or large they are.

A

NIMS-ICS

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14
Q

The act of directing, ordering, and/or controlling resources by virtue of explicit legal, agency, or delegated authority.

A

Command

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15
Q

Incident management personnel who report directly to the IC.

A

Command Staff

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16
Q

Incident management personnel who represent the major functional sections.

A

General Staff

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17
Q

The organizational level having responsibility for a major functional area of incident management.

A

Section

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18
Q

The organizational level having functional/geographical responsibility for major segments of incident operations.

A

Branch

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19
Q

The organizational level having responsibility for operations within a defined geographic area.

A

Division

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20
Q

The organizational level, equal to division, having responsibility for a specific functional assignment at an incident without regard for a specific geographical area.

A

Group

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21
Q

The organizational level within the sections that fulfill specific support functions.

A

Unit

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22
Q

The specific number of personnel assembled for an assignment.

A

Crew

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23
Q

Individual pieces of apparatus and the personal required to make them functional.

A

Single Resource

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24
Q

Any combination of resources assembled for a specific mission or operational assignment.

A

Task Force

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25
Q

A set number of resources of the same kind and type that have an established minimum number of personnel.

A

Strike Team

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26
Q

A ____________ is necessary when an incident involves more than one jurisdiction or agency.

A

Unified command structure

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27
Q

In the unified command structure, representatives of all affected agencies or jurisdiction share the __________ & ___________.

A

Command responsibilities

Decisions

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28
Q

NFPA 1021 requires the Fire Officer I to be able to develop an _______

A

Initial action plan

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29
Q

____________ will determine the transfer of command process.

A

Organizational policies

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30
Q

A __________ Will be required for long durations events.

A

Formal written IAP

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31
Q

The __________ is the number of direct subordinates that one supervisor can effectively manage.

A

Span of control

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32
Q

The span of control ranges from ________.

A

3-7

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33
Q

Optimum number of the supervisor span of control is ______.

A

5

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34
Q

Variables such as proximity, similarity of function, and subordinate capability affect the __________.

A

Span of control

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35
Q

The span of control can be higher in the following 3 situations.

A

Subordinates are within sight of the supervisor and able to communicate with each other

Subordinates are performing the same or similar functions

Subordinates are skilled in performing the assigned task

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36
Q

What are the 3 Incident Size-Up considerations in order of priority?

A

Life safety

Incident stabilization

Property conservation

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37
Q

________ is the on-going process of evaluating an emergency situation.

A

Size-up

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38
Q

Size-up begins when _______.

A

The alarm sounds

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39
Q

Upon arrival, the first arriving Company Officer as the initial IC will normally perform these 5 tasks.

A

Establish command

Perform a 360° check as part of the size-up

Determine offense of/defensive mode

Assign tasks

Begin completing the organizations tactical worksheet

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40
Q

The Company Officer should be able to determine whether additional resources are needed by __________.

A

The time the current resources are operational

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41
Q

The amount of time to request and obtain additional resources.

A

Lead/reflex time

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42
Q

5 considerations needed for analyzing an emergency situation.

A

Facts

Probabilities

Own situation

Decisions

Plan of operation

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43
Q

Things that are true/what the officer knows and is actually observing.

A

Facts

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44
Q

Things that are not known for certain, but based on the known facts, and are likely to happen.

A

Probabilities

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45
Q

The first arriving officers __________ is one set of facts that is known about the overall incident situation.

A

Own situation

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46
Q

_______ is controlling the environment in which responders must work and bystanders or victims may find them selves. It is essential to ensuring the life safety responders, victims, and bystanders. It also begins with the first-arriving company officer establishing command.

A

Scene control

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47
Q

Establishing _________ is the most common and effective way to control the perimeter of an incident scene.

A

3 operational zones

Hot, warm, and cold

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48
Q

Operational zone boundaries should be established by considering (4):

A

Amount of area needed by emergency personnel to work

Degree of Hazard present

Wind and weather conditions

General typography of the area

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49
Q

The area where resolving the problem takes place. Only personnel directly involved are allowed.

A

Hot Zone

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50
Q

The area for personnel who are directly supporting the work. Personnel are in full PPE and ready to enter the hot zone. In hazmat incidents, this zone is where the decontamination station is normally assembled.

A

Warm Zone

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51
Q

This zone may include the incident command post, RIC, PIO, rehabilitation area, and staging area. This is the control line for the general public

A

Cold Zone

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52
Q

Company officers need to communicate effectively with law-enforcement about _________ needs.

A

Traffic safety

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53
Q

These people are involved in an incident and should be assessed by emergency medical personnel before being released from the scene.

A

Incident victims

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54
Q

These people need to be restricted from getting too close to an emergency scene.

A

Spectators

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55
Q

These people should be treated with sensitivity an understanding. They should gently but firmly restrain from getting too close to the emergency scene. They are held within the cold zone.

A

Friends/Relatives of Victims

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56
Q

These emergency responders see beyond the obvious physical effects of an incident on victims and witnesses and are aware and sensitive to their mental and emotional conditions.

A

On-scene occupant services

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57
Q

By understanding fire behavior, company officers can predict how it will develop and spread and can determine the correct strategy and tactics to apply in order to: (3)

A

Control

Confine

And eliminate it

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58
Q

__________ may range in size from as small as a utility closet to one that consists of the entire interior of the structure without interior walls or partitions, such as a warehouse or retail store.

A

Compartments

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59
Q

Fire spreads by the available: (3)

A

Fuel

Oxygen

Structural configuration

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60
Q

________ results from heat transferring from burning object to other objects of lower temperatures.

A

Fire spread

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61
Q

Physical flow or transfer of heat from one body to another, through direct contact.

A

Conduction

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62
Q

The transfer of heat by the movement of heated fluids or gases

A

Convection

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63
Q

The transmission or transfer of heat energy from one body to another body by waves.

A

Radiation

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64
Q

The thermal or chemical decomposition of fuel because of heat.

A

Pyrolysis

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65
Q

The greater the temperature difference between objects, the more _______ the transfer rate.

A

Rapid

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66
Q

The spread of fire is controlled by its _______

A

Environment

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67
Q

When sufficient oxygen is available, fire development is controlled by the fuel’s characteristics and configuration. This is known as ______

A

Fuel controlled

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68
Q

As a fire develops within a compartment, it reaches a point where further development is limited by the available oxygen supply. This is known as ________.

A

Ventilation controlled

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69
Q

Any action taken to ________ will cause rapid increase in the amount of oxygen and lead to rapid fire development.

A

Create openings

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70
Q

The tendency of gases to form into layers according to temperature.

A

Thermal layering

heat stratification

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71
Q

Higher pressure in the hot thermal layer causes the gases to _________

A

Push down and out

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72
Q

________ & ________ will dictate how fast the layer will move and spread out from the compartment of origin.

A

Temperature

Rate of heat transfer

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73
Q

The interface of the hot and cooler gas layers at the opening is commonly referred to as the_______.

A

Neutral plane

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74
Q

10 indicators of rapid fire development

A
  1. Smoke rapidly exiting doors, windows, or other openings
  2. Doors forced open into the structure as fresh air is rapidly drawn in
  3. Smoke under pressure pulsing out of windows
  4. Heavily smoke stain or cracked window glass
  5. Rapid lowering of the neutral plane
  6. Rapid raising and lowering of the smoke layer
  7. Rapid change in smoke color to black
  8. Rapid change in temperature within the compartment
  9. Yellow or orange flames at the ceiling moving away from the main body of fire
  10. Smoke being sucked back into the structure
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75
Q

______ occurs when all exposed combustible surfaces and objects within a compartment have been heated to their ignition temperature and ignite almost simultaneously.

A

Flashover

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76
Q

2 factors that determine whether a compartment fire will progress to flashover.

A
  1. The fuel must generate enough heat energy

2. The fire must have sufficient oxygen (ventilation)

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77
Q

Changes in _______ can alter the flow path and create rapid fire development, placing firefighters in extreme danger

A

Ventilation

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78
Q

Most fires that grow beyond the incipient stage become _______.

A

Ventilation controlled

79
Q

A condition in which the unburnt fire gases that have accumulated at the top of the compartment ignite and flames propagate through the hot gas layers or across the ceiling.

A

Rollover

80
Q

Rollover is a significant indicator for impending _______.

A

Flashover

81
Q

The instantaneous explosion or rapid burning of superheated gases that occurs when oxygen is introduced into an oxygen-depleted confined space.

A

Backdraft

82
Q

Backdraft occurs in the ______ stage.

A

Decay

83
Q

Company officers must observe what the smoke is doing during prior to backdraft. (3)

A

Air current changing direction

Neutral plane lifting

Smoke rushing out

84
Q

This occurs when unburned fuel gases come in contact with an ignition source.

A

Smoke explosion

85
Q

The key difference between a smoke explosion and backdraft is that with the back raft, the mixture of smoke and air is extremely _______.

A

Fuel rich

86
Q

7 factors that affect fire development

A

Fuel type

Availability and location of additional fuel

Compartment volume and ceiling height

Ventilation

Thermal properties of the compartment

Ambient conditions

Fuel load

87
Q

Class ___ or ______ type fuels are the most common.

A

A

Cellulose

88
Q

Class B fuels consist of:

A

Flammable/combustible liquids and gases

89
Q

Class C fuels include:

A

Energized electrical wiring, equipment, and appliances

90
Q

Class D fuels:

A

Combustible metals

91
Q

Class K fuels:

A

Deep fat fryers

92
Q

Modern homes and businesses are largely filled with contents made from ________ materials.

A

Petroleum-based

93
Q

The structures _______ are often the most readily available fuel source.

A

Contents

94
Q

This thermal property contains heat within the compartment, causing localized increase in the temperature and fire growth.

A

Insulation

95
Q

This thermal property increases fire spread through the transfer of radiant heat from wall surfaces to adjacent fuel sources.

A

Heat reflectivity

96
Q

This thermal property slowly absorbs and releases large amounts of heat to maintain temperatures.

A

Retention

97
Q

Ambient conditions, such as high humidity and cold temperatures, can ______ the natural movement of smoke.

A

Slow

98
Q

Forcible entry is a form of _______

A

Ventilation

99
Q

The organization should impress upon its personnel a ________ philosophy.

A

Risk-management

100
Q

Activities that presents a significant risk to the safety of members shall be limited to situations where there is a potential to save _______.

A

Endangered lives

101
Q

No risk to the safety of members shall be acceptable where there is no possibility to save ______ or _______.

A

Lives

Property

102
Q

What does RECEO-VS stand for?

A 
Rescue
Exposures
Confinement
Extinguishment
Overhaul
Ventilation
Salvage
103
Q

NFPA 1500

A

2 in/2 out

104
Q

______ takes precedence over any and all other considerations.

A

Life safety

105
Q

You perform this function to mitigate a fire.

A

Extinguishment

106
Q

You perform this function to make an incident scene secure from rekindle or other hazards associated with the incident.

A

Overhaul

107
Q

_________ is the operation needed to replace a contaminated or heated atmosphere with uncontaminated air.

A

Ventilation

108
Q

Proper ventilation can help firefighters in 4 ways.

A

Reduce the possibility of backdraft or flashover conditions

Improve rescue operations by reducing hot gases and poisonous smoke

Improve visibility for responders

Reduce property damage

109
Q

The ventilation process_______-it can be used when needed. It must also be coordinated with the initial fire attack.

A

Floats

110
Q

The buildings _______ can be used to remove a contaminated or heated atmosphere.

A

HVAC system

111
Q

This is the method and operating procedure used to save property and reduce further damage from water, smoke, heat, and exposure during or immediately after a fire. It can be applied at any time.

A

Salvage

112
Q

This application begins before an incident is reported and continues throughout the incident.

A

Size-up

113
Q

The first arriving company officer must transmit a _____ or ______ by radio.

A

Condition

Arrival report

114
Q

___________ are the overall desired outcomes. They are the overall plans for controlling an incident

A

Strategic goals

115
Q

_________ are the activities used to reach the strategic goals. They are specific statements of measurable outcomes.

A

Tactical objectives

116
Q

As goals and objectives are met, and situations change, so do the _________.

A

Priorities

117
Q

The establishment of a ________ should be a top priority if a chief officer, member, or unit without tactical capabilities initiates command.

A

Command post

118
Q

This command option may not have visible indicators of a significant event. While first arriving companies perform this command option, other responding companies remain staged.

A

Investigation option

119
Q

This command option need immediate action to stabilize the incident. Using a portable radio will permit the company officer to be involved without neglecting command responsibilities. It does not last more than a few minutes.

A

Fast-attack option

120
Q

This command option involves large, complex, or rapidly evolving incidents. A tactical worksheet should be initiated.

A

Command post option

121
Q

If the company officer elects a command post option, what 3 things can you do with the remaining crew members?

A

Place the company into action with the remaining members; one crewmember serves as the acting company officer

Assign the crew members to work under the supervision of another company officer

Assign crewmembers to perform staff functions to assist command

122
Q

Incident commander must assess the current _______ and determine whether the potential benefits are worth having firefighters take unnecessary risk.

A

Conditions

123
Q

Failure to do a ___________ is the ultimate example of not being responsible for the safety of their personnel.

A

Risk/benefit evaluation

124
Q

It’s operational mode states that an aggressive interior attack is worth the risk and that sufficient resources are available to meet the incident demands.

A

Offensive mode

125
Q

This operational mode states the risk versus gain to firefighters is too significant to make an interior fire attack.

A

Defensive mode

126
Q

The incident commander needs to maintain ________ of personnel during a defensive mode.

A

Accountability

127
Q

A post incident analysis can be used for what 3?reasons?

A

Reinforced proper response activities

Correct improper activities

Improve future performance

128
Q

______ should not be moved or handled unless it is absolutely necessary in order to preserve it and then it must be documented appropriately.

A

Evidence

129
Q

The ________ must be a continuation of the initial emergency response.

A

Investigation

130
Q

The ______ actions performed are the greatest threats to the recovery of evidence.

A

Overhaul

131
Q

________ focuses on the activities of the responders without placing blame or finding fault. It is considered a training activity. It is intended to determine whether an emergency incident was conducted in the safest and most efficient manner.

A

Post incident analysis/critique

132
Q

When creating a post incident analysis, safety issues are the responsibility of the_______

A

ISO

133
Q

______ is a meeting that generally involves all participating units/agencies.

A

Critique

134
Q

The use of ___________ can be paramount to saving the lives of firefighters.

A

Occupant Survivability Profiling

135
Q

Form of energy associated with the motion of atoms or molecules and capable of being transmitted through solid and fluid media by conduction, through fluid media by convection, and through empty space by radiation.

A

Heat

136
Q

Moment when a mixture of fuel and oxygen encounters an external heat source with sufficient heat (ignition) energy to start the combustion reaction.

A

Piloted ignition

137
Q

Minimum temperature to which a fuel (other than a liquid) in the air must be heated in order to start self-sustained combustion; no external ignition source is required.

A

Autoignition temperature

138
Q

Common, prevailing, and uncontrolled atmosphere weather conditions. The term may refer to the conditions inside or outside of the structure.

A

Ambient conditions

139
Q

To function effectively in support of emergency services delivery, company officers must be highly trained and knowledgeable in?

A

Fire behavior and how it relates to incident decision making
Incident scene management
Incident scene operations
Postincident activities

140
Q

Stage of a fire at which all surfaces and objects within a space have been heated to their ignition temperature and flame breaks out almost at once over the surface of all objects in the space

A

Flashover

141
Q

What questions are asked during occupant survivability profiling?

A

Are occupants suspected of being or known to be trapped

Is it reasonable to assume that the occupants are still alive

142
Q

What is the temp of a structure fire around the 3 to 4 minute range?

A

above 500F

143
Q

Potiential for flashover can occur within?

A

5 minutes

144
Q

Flashover is typically what degrees?

A

1110F

145
Q

This establishes the overall strategic decisions and assigned tactical objectives for an incident

A

IAP

146
Q

The number of direct subordinates that one supervisor can effectively manage

A

Span of control

147
Q

What are the things Layman described for analyzing any emergency situation

A 
Facts
Probabilities
Own situation
Decision
Plan of operation
148
Q

Amount of time to request and obtain additional resources

A

The lead reflex time

149
Q

Things that are not known for certain, but based on the known facts are likely to happen

A

Probabilities

150
Q

Questions that must be answered regarding the probabiliites of a fire emergency situation

A

In which direction is the fire likely to spread
Are exposures likely to become involved
Are explosions likely and is a secondary explosion likely or collapse
Is an evacuation of people likely to be needed
Are additional resources likely to be needed, if so what types and how many

151
Q

One set of facts that is known about the overall incident situation

A

First arriving officers own situation

152
Q

Three segments of the initial decision

A

Whether resources at the scene and those en route are adequate for the situation
How to deploy the resources already at the scene in the most effective manner
What to do with the resources that arrive

153
Q

Zone boundaries should be established by considering the:

A

Amount of area needed by emergency personnel to work
Degree of hazard presented by elements involved in the incident
Wind and weather conditions
General topography of the area

154
Q

The 3 control zones can be described as?

A

Hot, warm, cold

155
Q

A room or space within a building or structure that is enclosed on all sides, at the top and bottom.

A

Compartment

156
Q

Form of energy associated with the motion of atoms or molecules and capable of being transmitted through solid and fluid media by conduction, through fluid media by convection, and through empty space by radiation

A

Heat

157
Q

Physical flow or transfer of heat energy, from one body to another through direct contact or an intervening medium, from point where the heat is produced to another location, or from a region of high temperature to a region of low temperature.

A

Conduction

158
Q

Transfer of heat by the movement of heated fluids or gases, usually in an upward direction

A

Convection

159
Q

Transmission or transfer of heat energy from one body to another body at lower temperature through intervening space by electromagnetic waves, such as infrared thermal waves, radio waves, or xrays

A

Radiation

160
Q

Tendency of gases to form into layers according to temperature

A

Thermal layering of gases also called heat stratification

161
Q

The interface of the hot and cooler gas layers at the opening is commonly referred to as?

A

Neutral plane

162
Q

Moment when a mixture of fuel and oxygen encounters an external heat source with sufficient heat energy to start the combustion reaction

A

Piloted ignition

163
Q

Minimum temperature to which a fuel other than a liquid in the air must be heated in order to start self sustained combustion, no external ignition source is required

A

Autoignition temperature

164
Q

Conditions in the room change from hot gases igniting and burning in the hot gas layer to the potential for flames filling the room floor to ceiling if sufficient oxygen is present to support the flaming combustion

A

Flashover

165
Q

Thermal or chemical decomposition of fuel (matter) because of heat generally resulting in the lowered ignition temperature of the material

A

Pyrolysis

166
Q

The pre ignition combustion phase of burning during which heat energy is absorbed by the fuel in turn giving off flammable tars, pitches, and gases

A

Pyrolisis

167
Q

Pyrolysis process is also known as

A

Sublimation

168
Q

What happens within the compartment during flashover

A

Fuel in the compartment produces combustible gases through pyrolysis
temperatures rapidly increase from floor to ceiling
additional fuel becomes involved
extremely low visibility in the compartment

169
Q

What are the four elements of flashover

A

Transition in fire development
Rapidity
Compartment
Ignition of all exposed surfaces

170
Q

Condition in which the unburned fire gases that have accumulated at the top of a compartment ignite and flames propagate through the hot gas layer or across the ceiling

A

Rollover

171
Q

Instantaneous explosion or rapid burning of superheated gases that occurs when oxygen is introduced into an oxygen depleted confined space

A

Backdraft

172
Q

The stalled combustion resumes with explosive force; may occur because of inadequate or improper ventilation procedures

A

Backdraft

173
Q

In what stage does backdraft occur

A

Decay stage

174
Q

How do you distinguish rollover from flashover

A

Rollover only involves the fire gases at the upper level of the compartment and not the other fuel packages within a compartment

175
Q

Common prevailing and uncontrolled atomospheric weather conditions

A

Ambient conditions

176
Q

This term may refer to the conditions inside or outside of the structure

A

Ambient conditions

177
Q

What are the factors that can affect backdraft

A 
Volume of smoke
Degree of confinement
Pressure
Speed with which fuel and air are mixed
Location where ignition occurs
178
Q

This may occur before or after the decay stage. It occurs when unburned fuel gases come in contact with an ignition source

A

Smoke explosion

179
Q

Why are smoke explosions so violent

A

Involve pre mixed fuel and oxygen

180
Q

What is the key difference between smoke explosion and backdraft

A

Backdraft mixture of smoke and air is extremely fuel rich, greater than 10 percent total hydrocarbons

181
Q

Thermal properties of a compartment include

A

Insulation
Heat reflectivity
Retention

182
Q

What can cause smoke to appear white and give the incorrect impression of the interior conditioins

A

Cold temperatures

183
Q

When do normal stages of fire development change

A

When fires become ventilation limited

184
Q

What does the acronym RECEO-VS stand for

A 
Rescue
Exposures
Confinement
Extinguishment
Overhaul
Ventilation
Salvage
185
Q

These areas must meet certain minimum structural requirements including means of communication and fire protection features that effectively isolate them from the rest of the building

A

Areas of rescue assistance

186
Q

the term used to describe the need to prevent extension of incident effects to uninvolved areas

A

Confinment

187
Q

The process includes methods and operating procedures used to save property and reduce further damage from water, smoke, heat, and exposure during or immediately after a fire

A

Salvage

188
Q

What are the three specific time periods of size up

A

Preincident
Arrival
During the incident

189
Q

The overall plans for controlling an incident

A

Strategic goals

190
Q

Broad general statements of the final outcomes to be achieved

A

Strategic goals

example life safety, incident stabilization, property conservation

191
Q

Specific statements of measurable outcomes

A

Tactical objectives

192
Q

Common tactical objectives

A

Initiate search and rescue
Provide water curtain to protect exposures
Contain a hazardous materials spill
Use salvage covers to route water from the building second floor

193
Q

What are two primary areas of analysis for the PIA

A

Application and effectiveness of the operational strategy and tactics and personnel safety

194
Q

A meeting that generally involves all participating units and agencies, based on the pia with the goal to acknowledge any weaknesses and applaud strengths that were evident

A

Critique

Sedgwick County Capt (40 decks)

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