Chapter 11 Flashcards

(216 cards)

1
Q

blephar/o

A

eyelid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

-cusis

A

hearing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

irid/o

A

iris, coloured part of the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

kerat/o

A

horny, hard, cornea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

myring/o

A

tympanic membrane, eardrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

ophthalm/o

A

eye, vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

-opia

A

vision condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

opt/o

A

eye, vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

ot/o

A

ear, hearing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

phak/o

A

lens of eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

presby/o

A

old age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

retin/o

A

retina, net

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

scler/o

A

sclera, white of eye, hard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

trop/o

A

turn, change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

tympan/o

A

tympanic membrane, eardrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

adnexa

A

the accessory or adjoining parts of an organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

orbit (eye socket)

A

the bony cavity of the skull that contains and protects the eyeball and its associated muscles, blood vessels, and nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

oblique

A

angle that is slanted by not perpendicular or parallel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

rectus

A

straight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

binocular vision

A

when the muscles of both eyes work together in coordination to make normal depth perception possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

depth perception

A

the ability to see things in three dimensions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

canthus

A

the angle where the upper and lower eyelids meet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

cilia

A

small hairs that make up the eyebrows and eyelashes; also present in the nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

tarsus (tarsal plate)

A

the framework within the upper and lower eyelids that provides the necessary stiffness and shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
conjunctiva
the transparent mucous membrane that lines the underside of each eyelid and continues to form a protective covering over the exposed surface of the eyeball
26
lacrima apparatus (tear apparatus)
consists of the structures that produce, store, and remove tears
27
lacrimation
secretion of tears
28
lacrimal fluid (tears)
maintain moisture on the anterior surface of the eyeball; blinking distributes it
29
lacrimal canal
consists of a duct at the inner corner of each eye; collect tears and empty them into the lacrimal sacs
30
lacrimal sac (tear sac)
an enlargement of the upper portion of the lacrimal duct
31
lacrimal duct (nasolacrimal duct)
the passageway that drains excess tears into the nose
32
optic
pertaining to the eye or sight
33
ocular
pertaining to the eye
34
extraocular
outside the eyeball
35
intraocular
within the eyeball
36
sclera (white of the eye)
maintains the shape of the eye and protects the delicate inner layers of tissue. This tough, fibrous tissue forms the outer layer of the eye, except for the part covered by the cornea
37
choroid (choroid coat)
the opaque middle layer of the eyeball that contains many blood vessels and provides the blood supply for the entire eye
38
retina
the sensitive innermost layer that lines the posterior segment of the eye. The retina receives nerve impulses and transmits them to the brain via the optic nerve
39
aqueous humor (aqueous fluid)
fills both the anterior and posterior chambers of the anterior segment; helps the eye maintain its shape and nourishes the intraocular structures
40
intraocular pressure (IOP)
a measurement of the fluid pressure inside the eye; this pressure is regulated by the rate at which aqueous humor enters and leaves the eye
41
anterior segment of the eye
makes up the front one-third of the eyeball
42
posterior segment of the eye
makes up the remaining two-thirds of the eyeball, is lined with the retina and filled with vitreous humor
43
vitreous humor (vitreous gel)
a soft, clear, jelly-like mass that contains millions of fine fibers; these fibers, which are attached to the surface of the retina, help the eye maintain its shape
44
macula
the clearly defined light-sensitive area in the center of the retina that is responsible for sharp central vision
45
fovea centralis
a pit in the middle of the macula. Color vision is best in this area because it contains a high concentration of cones and no rods
46
optic disk (blind spot)
a small region in the eye where the nerve endings of the retina enter the optic nerve. This is called the blind spot, because it does not contain any rods or cones to convert images into nerve impulses
47
optic nerve
transmits nerve impulses from the retina to the brain
48
uvea
the pigmented layer of the eye. It has a rich blood supply and consists of the choroid, ciliary body, and iris
49
ciliary body
located within the choroid; is a set of muscles and suspensory ligaments that adjust the thickness of the lens to refine the focus of light rays on the retina
50
iris
the colorful circular structure that surrounds the pupil; the muscles within the iris control the amount of light that is allowed to enter the eye through the pupil
51
cornea
the transparent outer surface of the eye covering the iris and pupil; it is the primary structure focusing light rays entering the eye
52
pupil
the black circular opening in the center of the iris that permits light to enter the eye
53
lens
the clear, flexible, curved structure that focuses images on the retina
54
accommodation
the process whereby the eyes make adjustments for seeing objects at various distances
55
convergence
the simultaneous inward movement of the eyes toward each other.
56
emmetropia
the normal relationship between the refractive power of the eye and the shape of the eye that enables light rays to focus correctly on the retina
57
refraction
the ability of the lens to bend light rays so they focus on the retina
58
visual acuity
the ability to distinguish object details and shape at a distance
59
ophthalmologist
a physician who specializes in diagnosing and treating the full spectrum of diseases and disorders of the eyes, from vision correction to eye surgery
60
optometrist
holds a doctor of optometry degree and provides primary eye care, including diagnosing eye diseases and conditions, and measuring the accuracy of vision to determine whether corrective lenses are needed
61
optician
a health care practitioner who designs, fits, and dispenses lenses for vision correction
62
ptosis
drooping of the upper eyelid that is usually due to muscle weakness or paralysis
63
chalazion
a nodule or cyst, usually on the upper eyelid, caused by obstruction of a sebaceous gland
64
hordeolum (stye)
a pus-filled lesion on the eyelid resulting from an infection in a sebaceous gland
65
blepharitis
swelling of the eyelid, often at the location of the eyelash hair follicles
66
ectropion
the eversion of the edge of an eyelid
67
entropion
the inversion of the edge of an eyelid
68
periorbital edema
swelling of the tissues surrounding the eye or eyes
69
conjunctivitis (pinkeye)
an inflammation of the conjunctiva that is usually caused by a viral infection, allergy, or irritants
70
dacryoadenitis
an inflammation of the lacrimal gland caused by a bacterial, viral, or fungal infection
71
dacryocytitis
an inflammation of the lacrimal sac usually caused by blockage of the lacrimal duct, often accompanied by a bacterial infection
72
subconjunctival hemorrhage
bleeding between the conjunctiva and the sclera; usually caused by an injury, creates a red area over the white of the eye
73
xerophthalmia (dry eye)
drying of eye surfaces, including the conjunctiva
74
uveitis
an inflammation of the uvea causing swelling and irritation
75
iritis
inflammation of the uvea primarily affecting structures in the front of the eye
76
corneal abrasion
an injury, such as a scratch or irritation, to the outer layers of the cornea
77
corneal ulcer
an open sore on the cornea caused by an infection or injury
78
keratitis
inflammation of the cornea
79
keratoconus
occurs when the cornea becomes irregular and cone-shaped, causing blurring and distortion of vision
80
scleritis
an inflammation of the sclera
81
anisocoria
a condition in which the pupils are unequal in size
82
cataract
the loss of transparency of the lens of the eye that causes a progressive loss of visual clarity
83
diabetic retinopathy
damage to the retina as a complication of uncontrolled diabetes
84
endophthalmitis
inflammation of the intraocular fluids
85
floaters
particles of cellular debris that float in the vitreous humor and cast shadows on the retina
86
photopsia
the presence of what appears to be flashes of light, or flashers
87
miosis
the contraction of the pupil
88
mydriasis
the dilation of the pupil
89
nystagmus
an involuntary, constant, rhythmic movement of the eyeball that can be congenital or caused by a neurological injury or drug use
90
papilledema (choked disk)
swelling and inflammation of the optic nerve at the point of entrance into the eye through the optic disk
91
retinal detachment (detached retina)
the separation of some or all of the light-sensitive retina from the choroid
92
retinitis pigmentosa
a progressive degeneration of the retina that affects night and peripheral vision
93
retinoblastoma
an eye cancer caused by the abnormal growth of retinal cells
94
glaucoma
a group of diseases characterized by increased intraocular pressure that causes damage to the optic nerve and retinal nerve fibers
95
open-angle glaucoma (chronic glaucoma)
the most common form of this condition; the trabecular meshwork gradually becomes blocked, causing a buildup of pressure
96
closed-angle glaucoma (acute glaucoma)
the opening between the cornea and iris narrows so that fluid cannot reach the trabecular meshwork
97
macular degeneration
a gradually progressive condition in which the macula at the center of the retina is damaged, resulting in the loss of central vision but not in total blindness
98
diplopia (double vision)
the perception of two images of a single object
99
hemianopia
blindness in one half of the visual field
100
color blindness
general term referring to the inability to perceive certain colors in a normal manner due to the absence or abnormal function of cones
101
nyctalopia (nigh blindness)
a condition in which an individual with normal daytime vision has difficulty seeing at night
102
photophobia
excessive sensitivity to light and can be the result of migraines, excessive wearing of contact lenses, drug use, or inflammation
103
presbyopia
condition of common changes in the eyes that occur with aging
104
strabismus
a disorder in which the eyes point in different directions or are not aligned correctly because the eye muscles are unable to focus together
105
esotropia (cross-eyes)
strabismus characterized by an inward deviation of one or both eyes
106
exotropia (walleye)
strabismus characterized by the outward deviation of one eye relative to the other
107
ametropia
any error of refraction in which images do not focus properly on the retina
108
astigmatism
a condition in which the eye does not focus properly because of uneven curvatures of the cornea
109
hyperopia (farsightedness)
a vision defect in which light rays focus behind the retina
110
myopia (nearsightedness)
a defect in which light rays focus in front of the retina
111
legal blindness
the point at which, under law, an individual is considered to be blind
112
amblyopia
dimness of vision or the partial loss of sight, especially in one eye, without detectable disease of the eye
113
scotoma (blind spot)
an abnormal area of diminished vision surrounded by an area of normal vision
114
Snellen chart (SC)
used to measure visual acuity; results for each eye recorded as fraction (20/20=normal)
115
refraction test
done to determine an eye’s refractive error so that the best corrective lenses can be prescribed
116
diopter
the unit of measurement of a lens's refractive power
117
cover test
an examination of how the two eyes work together and is used to assess binocular vision
118
visual field testing (perimetry)
performed to determine losses in peripheral vision
119
ophthalmoscopy
the visual examination of the fundus (back part) of the eye with ophthalmoscope
120
mydriatic drops
placed into the eyes to produce temporary paralysis, forcing the pupils to remain dilated even in the presence of bright light
121
still-lamp ophthalmoscopy
a diagnostic procedure in which a narrow beam of light is focused onto parts of the eye to permit the ophthalmologist to examine the structures at the front of the eye, including the cornea, iris, and lens
122
fluorescein staining
the application of fluorescent dye to the surface of the eye via eye drops or a strip applicator; causes a corneal abrasion to temporarily appear bright green
123
fluorescein angiography
a photographic study of the blood vessels in the back of the eye following the intravenous injection of fluorescein dye as a contrast medium
124
tonometry
the measurement of intraocular pressure
125
orbitotomy
a surgical incision into the orbit
126
tarsorrhaphy
the partial or complete suturing together of the upper and lower eyelids to protect the eye when the lids are paralyzed and unable to close normally, or to help corneal lesions heal
127
corneal transplant (keratoplasty)
the surgical replacement of a scarred or diseased cornea with clear corneal tissue from a donor
128
enucleation
the removal of the eyeball, leaving the eye muscles intact
129
ocular prosthesis (artificial eye)
may be fitted to wear over a malformed eye or to replace an eyeball that is either congenitally missing or has been surgically removed
130
radial keratotomy (RK)
a surgical procedure to treat myopia
131
sclera buckle
a silicone band or sponge used to repair a detached retina
132
vitrectomy
the removal of the vitreous humor in the eye and its replacement with a saline solution
133
cataract surgery
the general term used to describe the surgical removal of a cataract-clouded lens and its replacement with an artificial intraocular lens
134
phacoemulsification
the use of ultrasonic vibration to shatter and remove the lens clouded by a cataract
135
intraocular lens (IOL)
a surgically implanted replacement for a natural lens that has been removed
136
concave lenses
curved inward; used for myopia (nearsightedness)
137
convex lenses
curved outward; used for hyperopia (farsightedness)
138
contact lenses
refractive lenses that float directly on the tear film in front of the eye
139
laser iridotomy
a procedure using a focused beam of light to create a hole in the iris of the eye
140
laser trabeculoplasty
treatment of open-angle glaucoma by creating openings in the trabecular meshwork to allow fluid to drain properly
141
photorefractive keratotomy (PRK)
a laser eye surgery similar to LASIK, in which the outer layer of the cornea is removed and discarded before a laser is used to change the shape of a deep corneal layer
142
LASIK
used to treat vision conditions, such as myopia, that are caused by the shape of the cornea; a flap is opened in the surface of the cornea, and then a laser is used to change the shape of a deep corneal layer
143
laser photocoagulation
the use of a laser to treat diabetic retinopathy and age-related macular degeneration by sealing leaking or damaged blood vessels
144
pneumatic retinopexy
a surgery in which a gas bubble is injected into the vitreous cavity to put pressure on the detached area in a retinal detachment while it heals
145
auditory
pertaining to the sense of hearing
146
acoustic
pertaining to sound or hearing
147
pinna (auricle, outer ear)
the external portion of the ear; captures sound waves and transmits them into the external auditory canal
148
external auditory canal
transmits sound waves to the tympanic membrane (eardrum) of the middle ear
149
cerumen (earwax)
sticky yellow-brown substance, has protective functions because it traps small insects, dust, debris, and some bacteria to prevent them from entering the middle ear; secreted by the ceruminous glands that line the auditory canal
150
middle ear
located between the outer and inner ear; transmits sound across the space between these two parts
151
tympanic membrane (eardrum)
located between the outer and middle ear; when sound waves reach the eardrum, this membrane transmits the sound by vibrating
152
mastoid process
temporal bone containing hollow air space that surrounds the middle ear
153
auditory ossibles
3 small bones located within the middle ear; transmit the sound waves from the eardrum to the inner ear by vibration malleus (hammer), incus (anvil), stapes (stirrup)
154
eustachian tubes (auditory tubes)
narrow tubes that lead from the middle ear to the nasal cavity and the throat; equalize the air pressure within the middle ear with that of the outside atmosphere
155
inner ear
contains the sensory receptors for hearing and balance
156
oval window
located under the base of the stapes; the membrane that separates the middle ear from the inner ear, vibrations enter the inner ear through this structure
157
cochlea
the snail-shaped structure of the inner ear and is where sound vibrations are converted into nerve impulses
158
organ of Corti
receives the vibrations from the cochlear duct and relays them to the auditory nerve fibers
159
acoustic nerves (auditory nerves)
transmit information to the brain
160
cochlear nerves
transmit sound for hearing
161
vestibular nerves
sense balance and head position
162
air conduction (AC)
process by which sound waves enter the ear through the pinna and then travel down the external auditory canal until they strike the tympanic membrane
163
bone conduction (BC)
occurs as the eardrum vibrates and causes the auditory ossicles of the middle ear to vibrate
164
sensorineural conduction
occurs when these sound vibrations reach the inner ear
165
audiologist
specializes in the measurement of hearing function and in the rehabilitation of persons with hearing impairments
166
speech-language pathologist (SLP)
can be involved in numerous medical areas including audiology. These practitioners help patients who have problems related to swallowing, speech, and communication disorders
167
impacted cerumen
accumulation of earwax that forms a solid mass by adhering to the walls of the external auditory canal
168
otalgia (earache)
pain in the ear
169
otitis
any inflammation of the ear
170
otitis externa (swimmer's ear)
inflammation of the external auditory canal
171
otomycosis
a fungal infection of the external auditory canal
172
otopyorrhea
the flow of pus from the ear
173
otorrhea
any discharge from the ear
174
otorrhagia
bleeding from the ear
175
barotrauma
a pressure-related ear condition; can be caused by pressure changes when flying, driving in the mountains, scuba diving, or when the eustachian tube is blocked
176
cholesteatoma (pearly tumor)
a destructive epidermal cyst in the middle ear and/or the mastoid process made up of epithelial cells and cholesterol
177
mastoiditis
an inflammation of any part of the mastoid bone
178
infectious myringitis
a contagious inflammation that causes painful blisters on the eardrum
179
otitis media
inflammation of the middle ear
180
acute otitis media
usually associated with an upper respiratory infection and is most commonly seen in young children; can lead to a ruptured eardrum due to the buildup of pus or fluid in the middle ear
181
serous otitis media
a fluid buildup in the middle ear without symptoms of an infection
182
otosclerosis
ankylosis (fusion) of the bones of the middle ear resulting in a conductive hearing loss
183
labyrinthitis
an inflammation of the labyrinth that can result in vertigo and deafness
184
vertigo
a sense of whirling, dizziness, and the loss of balance, often combined with nausea and vomiting
185
benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)
common cause of vertigo that occurs when there is a shift in the location of small crystals in the semicircular canals
186
meniere disease
relatively rare chronic disorder in which the amount of fluid in the inner ear increases intermittently, producing attacks of vertigo, a fluctuating hearing loss (usually in one ear), and tinnitus
187
tinnitus
a condition of ringing, buzzing, or roaring sound in one or both ears
188
acoustic neuroma
a benign brain tumor that develops adjacent to the cranial nerve running from the brain to the inner ear
189
deafness
the complete or partial loss of the ability to hear
190
presbycusis
a gradual sensorineural hearing loss that occurs as the body ages
191
conductive hearing loss
occurs when sound waves are prevented from passing from the air to the fluid-filled inner ear
192
sensorineural hearing loss (nerve deafness)
hearing loss that develops when the auditory nerve or hair cells in the inner ear are damaged
193
noise-induced hearing loss (NIHL)
type of nerve deafness caused by repeated exposure to extremely loud noises such as a gunshot or to moderately loud noises that continue for long periods of time
194
audiological evaluation (speech audiometry)
the measurement of the ability to hear and understand speech sounds based on their pitch and loudness
195
audiometry
the use of an audiometer to measure hearing acuity
196
audiometer
an electronic device that produces acoustic stimuli of a set frequency and intensity
197
otoscope
an instrument used to examine the external ear canal
198
tympanometry
the use of air pressure in the ear canal to test for disorders of the middle ear
199
tympanogram
the resulting record of a tympanometry
200
acoustic reflectometry (AR)
measures how much sound is reflected back from the eardrum, a way to test how much fluid is in the middle ear to diagnose otitis media
201
webber and rinne tests
use a tuning fork to distinguish between conductive and sensorineural hearing losses
202
otoplasty
the surgical repair, restoration, or alteration of the pinna of the ear
203
ear tubes
tiny ventilating tubes placed through the eardrum of a child prone to repeated ear infections to provide ongoing drainage for fluids and to relieve pressure
204
mastoidectomy
surgical removal of part of the mastoid process
205
myringotomy
a small surgical incision in the eardrum to relieve pressure from excess pus or fluid or to create an opening for the placement of ear tubes
206
stapedectomy
surgical removal of the stapes bone and the insertion of a prosthetic device that conducts sound vibrations to the inner ear
207
tympanoplasty
the surgical correction of a hole in the eardrum, either to cure chronic inflammation or to restore function
208
labyrinthectomy
surgical removal of all or a portion of the labyrith of the ear
209
vestibular rehabilitation therapy
a form of physical therapy designed to treat a wide variety of balance disorders, including dizziness, the majority of which are caused by problems in the inner ear and vestibular nerve
210
assistive listening device (ALD)
transmits, processes, or amplifies sound and can be used with or without a hearing aid
211
cochlear implant
an electronic device that bypasses the damaged portion of the ear and directly stimulates the auditory nerve
212
hearing aids
electronic devices that are worn to correct a hearing loss
213
analog hearing aid
an external electronic device that uses a microphone to detect and amplify sounds
214
digital hearing aid
uses a computer chip to convert the incoming sound into a code that can be filtered before being amplified
215
bone-anchored hearing aid (BAHA)
surgically implanted behind the ear, and uses bone conduction from an external sound processor to transmit sounds to the cochlea
216
age-related macular degeneration (AMD)
???