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Med Terms > Chapter 11 > Flashcards

Chapter 11 Flashcards

1
Q

blephar/o

A

eyelid

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2
Q

-cusis

A

hearing

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3
Q

irid/o

A

iris, coloured part of the eye

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4
Q

kerat/o

A

horny, hard, cornea

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5
Q

myring/o

A

tympanic membrane, eardrum

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6
Q

ophthalm/o

A

eye, vision

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7
Q

-opia

A

vision condition

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8
Q

opt/o

A

eye, vision

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9
Q

ot/o

A

ear, hearing

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10
Q

phak/o

A

lens of eye

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11
Q

presby/o

A

old age

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12
Q

retin/o

A

retina, net

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13
Q

scler/o

A

sclera, white of eye, hard

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14
Q

trop/o

A

turn, change

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15
Q

tympan/o

A

tympanic membrane, eardrum

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16
Q

adnexa

A

the accessory or adjoining parts of an organ

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17
Q

orbit (eye socket)

A

the bony cavity of the skull that contains and protects the eyeball and its associated muscles, blood vessels, and nerves

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18
Q

oblique

A

angle that is slanted by not perpendicular or parallel

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19
Q

rectus

A

straight

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20
Q

binocular vision

A

when the muscles of both eyes work together in coordination to make normal depth perception possible

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21
Q

depth perception

A

the ability to see things in three dimensions

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22
Q

canthus

A

the angle where the upper and lower eyelids meet

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23
Q

cilia

A

small hairs that make up the eyebrows and eyelashes; also present in the nose

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24
Q

tarsus (tarsal plate)

A

the framework within the upper and lower eyelids that provides the necessary stiffness and shape

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25
Q

conjunctiva

A

the transparent mucous membrane that lines the underside of each eyelid and continues to form a protective covering over the exposed surface of the eyeball

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26
Q

lacrima apparatus (tear apparatus)

A

consists of the structures that produce, store, and remove tears

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27
Q

lacrimation

A

secretion of tears

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28
Q

lacrimal fluid (tears)

A

maintain moisture on the anterior surface of the eyeball; blinking distributes it

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29
Q

lacrimal canal

A

consists of a duct at the inner corner of each eye; collect tears and empty them into the lacrimal sacs

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30
Q

lacrimal sac (tear sac)

A

an enlargement of the upper portion of the lacrimal duct

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31
Q

lacrimal duct (nasolacrimal duct)

A

the passageway that drains excess tears into the nose

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32
Q

optic

A

pertaining to the eye or sight

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33
Q

ocular

A

pertaining to the eye

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34
Q

extraocular

A

outside the eyeball

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35
Q

intraocular

A

within the eyeball

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36
Q

sclera (white of the eye)

A

maintains the shape of the eye and protects the delicate inner layers of tissue. This tough, fibrous tissue forms the outer layer of the eye, except for the part covered by the cornea

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37
Q

choroid (choroid coat)

A

the opaque middle layer of the eyeball that contains many blood vessels and provides the blood supply for the entire eye

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38
Q

retina

A

the sensitive innermost layer that lines the posterior segment of the eye. The retina receives nerve impulses and transmits them to the brain via the optic nerve

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39
Q

aqueous humor (aqueous fluid)

A

fills both the anterior and posterior chambers of the anterior segment; helps the eye maintain its shape and nourishes the intraocular structures

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40
Q

intraocular pressure (IOP)

A

a measurement of the fluid pressure inside the eye; this pressure is regulated by the rate at which aqueous humor enters and leaves the eye

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41
Q

anterior segment of the eye

A

makes up the front one-third of the eyeball

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42
Q

posterior segment of the eye

A

makes up the remaining two-thirds of the eyeball, is lined with the retina and filled with vitreous humor

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43
Q

vitreous humor (vitreous gel)

A

a soft, clear, jelly-like mass that contains millions of fine fibers; these fibers, which are attached to the surface of the retina, help the eye maintain its shape

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44
Q

macula

A

the clearly defined light-sensitive area in the center of the retina that is responsible for sharp central vision

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45
Q

fovea centralis

A

a pit in the middle of the macula. Color vision is best in this area because it contains a high concentration of cones and no rods

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46
Q

optic disk (blind spot)

A

a small region in the eye where the nerve endings of the retina enter the optic nerve. This is called the blind spot, because it does not contain any rods or cones to convert images into nerve impulses

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47
Q

optic nerve

A

transmits nerve impulses from the retina to the brain

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48
Q

uvea

A

the pigmented layer of the eye. It has a rich blood supply and consists of the choroid, ciliary body, and iris

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49
Q

ciliary body

A

located within the choroid; is a set of muscles and suspensory ligaments that adjust the thickness of the lens to refine the focus of light rays on the retina

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50
Q

iris

A

the colorful circular structure that surrounds the pupil; the muscles within the iris control the amount of light that is allowed to enter the eye through the pupil

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51
Q

cornea

A

the transparent outer surface of the eye covering the iris and pupil; it is the primary structure focusing light rays entering the eye

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52
Q

pupil

A

the black circular opening in the center of the iris that permits light to enter the eye

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53
Q

lens

A

the clear, flexible, curved structure that focuses images on the retina

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54
Q

accommodation

A

the process whereby the eyes make adjustments for seeing objects at various distances

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55
Q

convergence

A

the simultaneous inward movement of the eyes toward each other.

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56
Q

emmetropia

A

the normal relationship between the refractive power of the eye and the shape of the eye that enables light rays to focus correctly on the retina

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57
Q

refraction

A

the ability of the lens to bend light rays so they focus on the retina

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58
Q

visual acuity

A

the ability to distinguish object details and shape at a distance

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59
Q

ophthalmologist

A

a physician who specializes in diagnosing and treating the full spectrum of diseases and disorders of the eyes, from vision correction to eye surgery

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60
Q

optometrist

A

holds a doctor of optometry degree and provides primary eye care, including diagnosing eye diseases and conditions, and measuring the accuracy of vision to determine whether corrective lenses are needed

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61
Q

optician

A

a health care practitioner who designs, fits, and dispenses lenses for vision correction

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62
Q

ptosis

A

drooping of the upper eyelid that is usually due to muscle weakness or paralysis

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63
Q

chalazion

A

a nodule or cyst, usually on the upper eyelid, caused by obstruction of a sebaceous gland

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64
Q

hordeolum (stye)

A

a pus-filled lesion on the eyelid resulting from an infection in a sebaceous gland

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65
Q

blepharitis

A

swelling of the eyelid, often at the location of the eyelash hair follicles

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66
Q

ectropion

A

the eversion of the edge of an eyelid

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67
Q

entropion

A

the inversion of the edge of an eyelid

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68
Q

periorbital edema

A

swelling of the tissues surrounding the eye or eyes

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69
Q

conjunctivitis (pinkeye)

A

an inflammation of the conjunctiva that is usually caused by a viral infection, allergy, or irritants

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70
Q

dacryoadenitis

A

an inflammation of the lacrimal gland caused by a bacterial, viral, or fungal infection

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71
Q

dacryocytitis

A

an inflammation of the lacrimal sac usually caused by blockage of the lacrimal duct, often accompanied by a bacterial infection

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72
Q

subconjunctival hemorrhage

A

bleeding between the conjunctiva and the sclera; usually caused by an injury, creates a red area over the white of the eye

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73
Q

xerophthalmia (dry eye)

A

drying of eye surfaces, including the conjunctiva

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74
Q

uveitis

A

an inflammation of the uvea causing swelling and irritation

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75
Q

iritis

A

inflammation of the uvea primarily affecting structures in the front of the eye

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76
Q

corneal abrasion

A

an injury, such as a scratch or irritation, to the outer layers of the cornea

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77
Q

corneal ulcer

A

an open sore on the cornea caused by an infection or injury

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78
Q

keratitis

A

inflammation of the cornea

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79
Q

keratoconus

A

occurs when the cornea becomes irregular and cone-shaped, causing blurring and distortion of vision

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80
Q

scleritis

A

an inflammation of the sclera

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81
Q

anisocoria

A

a condition in which the pupils are unequal in size

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82
Q

cataract

A

the loss of transparency of the lens of the eye that causes a progressive loss of visual clarity

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83
Q

diabetic retinopathy

A

damage to the retina as a complication of uncontrolled diabetes

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84
Q

endophthalmitis

A

inflammation of the intraocular fluids

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85
Q

floaters

A

particles of cellular debris that float in the vitreous humor and cast shadows on the retina

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86
Q

photopsia

A

the presence of what appears to be flashes of light, or flashers

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87
Q

miosis

A

the contraction of the pupil

88
Q

mydriasis

A

the dilation of the pupil

89
Q

nystagmus

A

an involuntary, constant, rhythmic movement of the eyeball that can be congenital or caused by a neurological injury or drug use

90
Q

papilledema (choked disk)

A

swelling and inflammation of the optic nerve at the point of entrance into the eye through the optic disk

91
Q

retinal detachment (detached retina)

A

the separation of some or all of the light-sensitive retina from the choroid

92
Q

retinitis pigmentosa

A

a progressive degeneration of the retina that affects night and peripheral vision

93
Q

retinoblastoma

A

an eye cancer caused by the abnormal growth of retinal cells

94
Q

glaucoma

A

a group of diseases characterized by increased intraocular pressure that causes damage to the optic nerve and retinal nerve fibers

95
Q

open-angle glaucoma (chronic glaucoma)

A

the most common form of this condition; the trabecular meshwork gradually becomes blocked, causing a buildup of pressure

96
Q

closed-angle glaucoma (acute glaucoma)

A

the opening between the cornea and iris narrows so that fluid cannot reach the trabecular meshwork

97
Q

macular degeneration

A

a gradually progressive condition in which the macula at the center of the retina is damaged, resulting in the loss of central vision but not in total blindness

98
Q

diplopia (double vision)

A

the perception of two images of a single object

99
Q

hemianopia

A

blindness in one half of the visual field

100
Q

color blindness

A

general term referring to the inability to perceive certain colors in a normal manner due to the absence or abnormal function of cones

101
Q

nyctalopia (nigh blindness)

A

a condition in which an individual with normal daytime vision has difficulty seeing at night

102
Q

photophobia

A

excessive sensitivity to light and can be the result of migraines, excessive wearing of contact lenses, drug use, or inflammation

103
Q

presbyopia

A

condition of common changes in the eyes that occur with aging

104
Q

strabismus

A

a disorder in which the eyes point in different directions or are not aligned correctly because the eye muscles are unable to focus together

105
Q

esotropia (cross-eyes)

A

strabismus characterized by an inward deviation of one or both eyes

106
Q

exotropia (walleye)

A

strabismus characterized by the outward deviation of one eye relative to the other

107
Q

ametropia

A

any error of refraction in which images do not focus properly on the retina

108
Q

astigmatism

A

a condition in which the eye does not focus properly because of uneven curvatures of the cornea

109
Q

hyperopia (farsightedness)

A

a vision defect in which light rays focus behind the retina

110
Q

myopia (nearsightedness)

A

a defect in which light rays focus in front of the retina

111
Q

legal blindness

A

the point at which, under law, an individual is considered to be blind

112
Q

amblyopia

A

dimness of vision or the partial loss of sight, especially in one eye, without detectable disease of the eye

113
Q

scotoma (blind spot)

A

an abnormal area of diminished vision surrounded by an area of normal vision

114
Q

Snellen chart (SC)

A

used to measure visual acuity; results for each eye recorded as fraction (20/20=normal)

115
Q

refraction test

A

done to determine an eye’s refractive error so that the best corrective lenses can be prescribed

116
Q

diopter

A

the unit of measurement of a lens’s refractive power

117
Q

cover test

A

an examination of how the two eyes work together and is used to assess binocular vision

118
Q

visual field testing (perimetry)

A

performed to determine losses in peripheral vision

119
Q

ophthalmoscopy

A

the visual examination of the fundus (back part) of the eye with ophthalmoscope

120
Q

mydriatic drops

A

placed into the eyes to produce temporary paralysis, forcing the pupils to remain dilated even in the presence of bright light

121
Q

still-lamp ophthalmoscopy

A

a diagnostic procedure in which a narrow beam of light is focused onto parts of the eye to permit the ophthalmologist to examine the structures at the front of the eye, including the cornea, iris, and lens

122
Q

fluorescein staining

A

the application of fluorescent dye to the surface of the eye via eye drops or a strip applicator; causes a corneal abrasion to temporarily appear bright green

123
Q

fluorescein angiography

A

a photographic study of the blood vessels in the back of the eye following the intravenous injection of fluorescein dye as a contrast medium

124
Q

tonometry

A

the measurement of intraocular pressure

125
Q

orbitotomy

A

a surgical incision into the orbit

126
Q

tarsorrhaphy

A

the partial or complete suturing together of the upper and lower eyelids to protect the eye when the lids are paralyzed and unable to close normally, or to help corneal lesions heal

127
Q

corneal transplant (keratoplasty)

A

the surgical replacement of a scarred or diseased cornea with clear corneal tissue from a donor

128
Q

enucleation

A

the removal of the eyeball, leaving the eye muscles intact

129
Q

ocular prosthesis (artificial eye)

A

may be fitted to wear over a malformed eye or to replace an eyeball that is either congenitally missing or has been surgically removed

130
Q

radial keratotomy (RK)

A

a surgical procedure to treat myopia

131
Q

sclera buckle

A

a silicone band or sponge used to repair a detached retina

132
Q

vitrectomy

A

the removal of the vitreous humor in the eye and its replacement with a saline solution

133
Q

cataract surgery

A

the general term used to describe the surgical removal of a cataract-clouded lens and its replacement with an artificial intraocular lens

134
Q

phacoemulsification

A

the use of ultrasonic vibration to shatter and remove the lens clouded by a cataract

135
Q

intraocular lens (IOL)

A

a surgically implanted replacement for a natural lens that has been removed

136
Q

concave lenses

A

curved inward; used for myopia (nearsightedness)

137
Q

convex lenses

A

curved outward; used for hyperopia (farsightedness)

138
Q

contact lenses

A

refractive lenses that float directly on the tear film in front of the eye

139
Q

laser iridotomy

A

a procedure using a focused beam of light to create a hole in the iris of the eye

140
Q

laser trabeculoplasty

A

treatment of open-angle glaucoma by creating openings in the trabecular meshwork to allow fluid to drain properly

141
Q

photorefractive keratotomy (PRK)

A

a laser eye surgery similar to LASIK, in which the outer layer of the cornea is removed and discarded before a laser is used to change the shape of a deep corneal layer

142
Q

LASIK

A

used to treat vision conditions, such as myopia, that are caused by the shape of the cornea; a flap is opened in the surface of the cornea, and then a laser is used to change the shape of a deep corneal layer

143
Q

laser photocoagulation

A

the use of a laser to treat diabetic retinopathy and age-related macular degeneration by sealing leaking or damaged blood vessels

144
Q

pneumatic retinopexy

A

a surgery in which a gas bubble is injected into the vitreous cavity to put pressure on the detached area in a retinal detachment while it heals

145
Q

auditory

A

pertaining to the sense of hearing

146
Q

acoustic

A

pertaining to sound or hearing

147
Q

pinna (auricle, outer ear)

A

the external portion of the ear; captures sound waves and transmits them into the external auditory canal

148
Q

external auditory canal

A

transmits sound waves to the tympanic membrane (eardrum) of the middle ear

149
Q

cerumen (earwax)

A

sticky yellow-brown substance, has protective functions because it traps small insects, dust, debris, and some bacteria to prevent them from entering the middle ear; secreted by the ceruminous glands that line the auditory canal

150
Q

middle ear

A

located between the outer and inner ear; transmits sound across the space between these two parts

151
Q

tympanic membrane (eardrum)

A

located between the outer and middle ear; when sound waves reach the eardrum, this membrane transmits the sound by vibrating

152
Q

mastoid process

A

temporal bone containing hollow air space that surrounds the middle ear

153
Q

auditory ossibles

A

3 small bones located within the middle ear; transmit the sound waves from the eardrum to the inner ear by vibration
malleus (hammer), incus (anvil), stapes (stirrup)

154
Q

eustachian tubes (auditory tubes)

A

narrow tubes that lead from the middle ear to the nasal cavity and the throat; equalize the air pressure within the middle ear with that of the outside atmosphere

155
Q

inner ear

A

contains the sensory receptors for hearing and balance

156
Q

oval window

A

located under the base of the stapes; the membrane that separates the middle ear from the inner ear, vibrations enter the inner ear through this structure

157
Q

cochlea

A

the snail-shaped structure of the inner ear and is where sound vibrations are converted into nerve impulses

158
Q

organ of Corti

A

receives the vibrations from the cochlear duct and relays them to the auditory nerve fibers

159
Q

acoustic nerves (auditory nerves)

A

transmit information to the brain

160
Q

cochlear nerves

A

transmit sound for hearing

161
Q

vestibular nerves

A

sense balance and head position

162
Q

air conduction (AC)

A

process by which sound waves enter the ear through the pinna and then travel down the external auditory canal until they strike the tympanic membrane

163
Q

bone conduction (BC)

A

occurs as the eardrum vibrates and causes the auditory ossicles of the middle ear to vibrate

164
Q

sensorineural conduction

A

occurs when these sound vibrations reach the inner ear

165
Q

audiologist

A

specializes in the measurement of hearing function and in the rehabilitation of persons with hearing impairments

166
Q

speech-language pathologist (SLP)

A

can be involved in numerous medical areas including audiology. These practitioners help patients who have problems related to swallowing, speech, and communication disorders

167
Q

impacted cerumen

A

accumulation of earwax that forms a solid mass by adhering to the walls of the external auditory canal

168
Q

otalgia (earache)

A

pain in the ear

169
Q

otitis

A

any inflammation of the ear

170
Q

otitis externa (swimmer’s ear)

A

inflammation of the external auditory canal

171
Q

otomycosis

A

a fungal infection of the external auditory canal

172
Q

otopyorrhea

A

the flow of pus from the ear

173
Q

otorrhea

A

any discharge from the ear

174
Q

otorrhagia

A

bleeding from the ear

175
Q

barotrauma

A

a pressure-related ear condition; can be caused by pressure changes when flying, driving in the mountains, scuba diving, or when the eustachian tube is blocked

176
Q

cholesteatoma (pearly tumor)

A

a destructive epidermal cyst in the middle ear and/or the mastoid process made up of epithelial cells and cholesterol

177
Q

mastoiditis

A

an inflammation of any part of the mastoid bone

178
Q

infectious myringitis

A

a contagious inflammation that causes painful blisters on the eardrum

179
Q

otitis media

A

inflammation of the middle ear

180
Q

acute otitis media

A

usually associated with an upper respiratory infection and is most commonly seen in young children; can lead to a ruptured eardrum due to the buildup of pus or fluid in the middle ear

181
Q

serous otitis media

A

a fluid buildup in the middle ear without symptoms of an infection

182
Q

otosclerosis

A

ankylosis (fusion) of the bones of the middle ear resulting in a conductive hearing loss

183
Q

labyrinthitis

A

an inflammation of the labyrinth that can result in vertigo and deafness

184
Q

vertigo

A

a sense of whirling, dizziness, and the loss of balance, often combined with nausea and vomiting

185
Q

benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)

A

common cause of vertigo that occurs when there is a shift in the location of small crystals in the semicircular canals

186
Q

meniere disease

A

relatively rare chronic disorder in which the amount of fluid in the inner ear increases intermittently, producing attacks of vertigo, a fluctuating hearing loss (usually in one ear), and tinnitus

187
Q

tinnitus

A

a condition of ringing, buzzing, or roaring sound in one or both ears

188
Q

acoustic neuroma

A

a benign brain tumor that develops adjacent to the cranial nerve running from the brain to the inner ear

189
Q

deafness

A

the complete or partial loss of the ability to hear

190
Q

presbycusis

A

a gradual sensorineural hearing loss that occurs as the body ages

191
Q

conductive hearing loss

A

occurs when sound waves are prevented from passing from the air to the fluid-filled inner ear

192
Q

sensorineural hearing loss (nerve deafness)

A

hearing loss that develops when the auditory nerve or hair cells in the inner ear are damaged

193
Q

noise-induced hearing loss (NIHL)

A

type of nerve deafness caused by repeated exposure to extremely loud noises such as a gunshot or to moderately loud noises that continue for long periods of time

194
Q

audiological evaluation (speech audiometry)

A

the measurement of the ability to hear and understand speech sounds based on their pitch and loudness

195
Q

audiometry

A

the use of an audiometer to measure hearing acuity

196
Q

audiometer

A

an electronic device that produces acoustic stimuli of a set frequency and intensity

197
Q

otoscope

A

an instrument used to examine the external ear canal

198
Q

tympanometry

A

the use of air pressure in the ear canal to test for disorders of the middle ear

199
Q

tympanogram

A

the resulting record of a tympanometry

200
Q

acoustic reflectometry (AR)

A

measures how much sound is reflected back from the eardrum, a way to test how much fluid is in the middle ear to diagnose otitis media

201
Q

webber and rinne tests

A

use a tuning fork to distinguish between conductive and sensorineural hearing losses

202
Q

otoplasty

A

the surgical repair, restoration, or alteration of the pinna of the ear

203
Q

ear tubes

A

tiny ventilating tubes placed through the eardrum of a child prone to repeated ear infections to provide ongoing drainage for fluids and to relieve pressure

204
Q

mastoidectomy

A

surgical removal of part of the mastoid process

205
Q

myringotomy

A

a small surgical incision in the eardrum to relieve pressure from excess pus or fluid or to create an opening for the placement of ear tubes

206
Q

stapedectomy

A

surgical removal of the stapes bone and the insertion of a prosthetic device that conducts sound vibrations to the inner ear

207
Q

tympanoplasty

A

the surgical correction of a hole in the eardrum, either to cure chronic inflammation or to restore function

208
Q

labyrinthectomy

A

surgical removal of all or a portion of the labyrith of the ear

209
Q

vestibular rehabilitation therapy

A

a form of physical therapy designed to treat a wide variety of balance disorders, including dizziness, the majority of which are caused by problems in the inner ear and vestibular nerve

210
Q

assistive listening device (ALD)

A

transmits, processes, or amplifies sound and can be used with or without a hearing aid

211
Q

cochlear implant

A

an electronic device that bypasses the damaged portion of the ear and directly stimulates the auditory nerve

212
Q

hearing aids

A

electronic devices that are worn to correct a hearing loss

213
Q

analog hearing aid

A

an external electronic device that uses a microphone to detect and amplify sounds

214
Q

digital hearing aid

A

uses a computer chip to convert the incoming sound into a code that can be filtered before being amplified

215
Q

bone-anchored hearing aid (BAHA)

A

surgically implanted behind the ear, and uses bone conduction from an external sound processor to transmit sounds to the cochlea

216
Q

age-related macular degeneration (AMD)

A

???

Med Terms (6 decks)

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