Chapter 11 Flashcards

2
Q

Who is responsible for knowing when feedback sessions are due, for requesting a feedback if needed, and notifying the rater or chain of command when a required or requested feedback session does not take place? (11.2.)

A

ratee

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3
Q

On the topic of Individual Responsibilities, who has responsibilities both during the performance feedback process and during performance reporting? (11.3.)

A

rater

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4
Q

While the ratee is responsible for knowing when feedback sessions are due, the _______ is responsible for preparing for, scheduling, and conducting feedback sessions and providing realistic feedback to help the ratee improve performance. (11.3.1.)

A

rater

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5
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring the ratee knows who is in the rating chain? (11.3.2.)

A

rater

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6
Q

The rater must _______. (11.3.2.)

A

-consider the significance and frequency of incidents when assessing total performance-record the ratee’s performance, ensuring all data on the EPR matches the data on the EPR notice-make a valid and realistic recommendation for promotion, if appropriate

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7
Q

What must a rater do before preparing the performance report? (11.3.2.)

A

review the ratee’s Personnel Information File and UIF, if any

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8
Q

The ratee should not write or draft any portion of his or her own performance report; however, the ratee: (11.3.2.)

A

is encouraged to provide the rater input on specific accomplishments

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9
Q

Whose responsibility is it to review the PIF and UIF and returns performance reports to the rater for reconsideration, if necessary, to ensure an accurate, unbiased, and uninflated report? (11.4.)

A

Additional Rater

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10
Q

This individual reviews the PIF and UIF and, if applicable, returns performance reports to previous evaluators for reconsideration, when necessary. He or she may complete Section VII of SNCO EPRs to differentiate between individuals with similar performance records. (11.5.)

A

Reviewer/Senior Rater/Final Evaluator

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11
Q

This individual may complete Section VII of SNCO EPRs to distinguish between individuals with similar performance records, to meet minimum grade requirements, when the ratee is a CMSgt or CMSgt-selectee, or when the ratee is TIG eligible. (11.5.)

A

Reviewer/Senior Rater/Final Evaluator

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12
Q

Whose responsibility is it to manage the performance report program for the organization? (11.6.)

A

Unit Commander

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13
Q

To meet his or her Enlisted Evaluation System responsibilities, the Commander: (11.6.)

A

-manages the performance report program for the organization-ensures first-time supervisors receive specific, mandatory training-ensures performance reports accurately describe performance and make realistic recommendations for advancement

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14
Q

Whose responsibility is it to determine the rating chain for assigned personnel based on Air Force and management-level policy, and ensure first-time supervisors receive specific, mandatory training? (11.6.)

A

Unit Commander

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15
Q

Whose responsibility is it to review all EPRs before the commander and advise the commander of quality force indicators? (11.7.)

A

First Sergeant

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16
Q

What is performance feedback? (11.8.)

A

a private, formal communication tool used to tell a ratee what is expected and how well the ratee is meeting expectations

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17
Q

Performance feedback should: (11.8.)

A

-explain to ratees their duty performance requirements and responsibilities-explain whether or not the ratee is performing as expected-be clearly stated and received

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18
Q

Who is responsible for providing performance feedback? (11.9.)

A

the rater

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19
Q

The rater is responsible for providing performance feedback. Who is eligible to be a rater? (11.9.)

A

-an officer or NCO of a U.S. or foreign military service in a grade equal to or higher than the ratee-a civilian (GS-5 or higher) in a supervisory position higher than the ratee in the ratee’s rating chain-active duty members in the grade of SrA and above if they have completed Airman Leadership School

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20
Q

Performance feedback sessions are _______ for all enlisted personnel. (11.9.)

A

mandatory

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21
Q

When is an initial feedback due? (11.10.)

A

within 60 days of when a rater initially begins supervision

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22
Q

For Airman Basic through Senior Master Sergeants who receive EPRs, a “midterm” feedback session is due _______. (11.10.1.)

A

midway between the date supervision began and the projected EPR closeout date

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23
Q

For Airman Basic through SMSgts who receive EPRs, a midterm feedback session is held midway between the date supervision began and the projected EPR closeout date. A midterm feedback is not required for _______. (11.10.1.)

A

CMSgts

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24
Q

For Airmen who do not receive EPRs, a midterm feedback session is due _______. (11.10.2.)

A

approximately 180 days after the initial session

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25
Q

For Airmen who do not receive EPRs, a midterm session is due approximately 180 days after the initial session. This cycle should continue until: (11.10.2.)

A

there is a CRO or the Airman begins to receive EPRs

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26
Q

In general, feedback sessions are due: (11.10., 11.10.1., 11.10.3.)

A

when a rater begins supervision, midway between when supervision began and the EPR closeout date, and when an EPR is written

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27
Q

Raters conduct feedback sessions for AB through TSgt when an evaluation report is written without a subsequent change of rater. The rater conducts the feedback session within ___ days of the EPR closeout. (11.10.3.)

A

60

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28
Q

In addition to normal performance feedback requirements, feedback sessions are also held if the rater determines there is a need for one or within 30 days of a request from a ratee, provided that at least ___ days have passed since the last feedback session. (11.10.4.)

A

60

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29
Q

If a CRO is expected or the projected EPR closeout date limits the period of supervision to less than 150 days, a feedback session should take place

A

60

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30
Q

When a performance feedback session is completed, the rater _______. (11.11.)

A

gives the completed PFW to the ratee and keeps a copy for personal reference

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31
Q

At the conclusion of the feedback session, the rater gives the completed performance feedback worksheet to the ratee and keeps a copy for personal reference. The Performance Feedback Worksheet cannot be used in any personnel action unless: (11.11.)

A

the ratee first introduces it

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32
Q

Although a performance feedback session is a private formal communication between the rater and the ratee, it’s not really private because: (11.11.)

A

the rater’s rater is authorized access to the PFW for AB through TSgt; the commander is authorized access for all grades

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33
Q

When a performance feedback is conducted for a SrA, it is normally documented on an _______ and may be typed or handwritten. (11.11. and 11.12.)

A

AF Form 931

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34
Q

AF Form 931, Performance Feedback Worksheet (AB thru TSGT), Section II lists blocks for 4 types of feedback: (11.12.2.)

A

initial, midterm, ratee requested, or rater directed

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35
Q

The most important objective when using the AF Form 931 during a performance feedback session is: (11.12.4.)

A

for the ratee to clearly understand the rater’s position regarding performance and directions to take

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36
Q

When evaluating Personal/Professional Conduct On/Off Duty during a performance feedback session, it should be noted that this session is not a substitute for official counseling related to significant misconduct but _______. (11.12.4.2.2.)

A

is a good opportunity to share general impressions and reinforce expectations

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37
Q

When providing performance feedback, consider the following types of feedback to ensure the effective development of the ratee: (Fig 11.1.)

A

encouragement and advice

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38
Q

When providing performance feedback, encouragement and advice should be used as types of feedback to ensure the ratee’s effective development. Encouragement is: (Fig 11.1.)

A

-intended to motivate people by letting them know what they’ve done well and rewarding them for it-intended to encourage the person to continue or even increase the performance

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39
Q

When providing performance feedback, encouragement and advice should be used as types of feedback to ensure the ratee’s effective development. Advice is: (Fig 11.1.)

A

-intended to let people know what to improve and how to make the improvement-intended to advise people on how to perform better next time

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40
Q

Encouragement and Advice can be very powerful feedback tools. Separating or splitting these two forms of feedback can be very important because: (Fig 11.1.)

A

-if you give only encouragement following performance, you help people gain confidence-if you provide advice separately, you help them do better next time, increasing competence-giving both encouragement and advice at the same time sends a mixed message with less than effective results

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41
Q

An individual’s training is rated in four categories: (11.12.4.4.1.)

A

(1) upgrade, (2) professional military education (PME), (3) proficiency and qualification, (4) contingency, mobility, and other training

42
Q

Individual training is rated in four categories: (1) upgrade training, (2) professional military education (PME), (3) proficiency and qualification training, and (4) contingency, mobility, and other training. Upgrade training has two components: (11.12.4.4.1.)

A

OJT and Career Development Courses (CDC)

43
Q

Upgrade training has two components: OJT and career development courses (CDC). OJT is: (11.12.4.4.1.)

A

hands-on application of the knowledge gained through the CDCs and special instruction by the trainer

44
Q

For an Airman in upgrade training, feedback should focus on: (11.12.4.4.1.)

A

efforts to complete the CDCs and master the hands-on application

45
Q

The responsibility for knowing what PME courses are available and ensuring ratees enroll in and complete all PME courses necessary for their overall improvement is placed on the _______. (11.12.4.4.2.)

A

rater

46
Q

The ratings on the Performance Feedback Worksheet are “Does Not Meet”, “Meets”, “Above Average”, and “Clearly Exceeds”. Which marked area will require discussion to explain its exact meaning? (11.13.2.1.)

A

any area marked requires discussion to explain its exact meaning

47
Q

The ability to manage resources effectively is critical to mission success. The most common resources SNCOs are involved with are _______. (11.13.2.4.1.)

A

-people-equipment-money

48
Q

The appropriate block for comments on future duty assignments and advancement opportunities or for defining uncommon acronyms is the: (11.13.2.7.)

A

Other Comments block

49
Q

The primary purpose of feedback is to _______. (11.14.)

A

improve performance and professionally develop personnel to their highest potential

50
Q

When scheduling a feedback session, it should be scheduled: (11.14.2.)

A

far enough in advance so the rater and the ratee have sufficient time to prepare

51
Q

Feedback sessions should be scheduled _______. (11.14.2.)

A

-far enough in advance so the rater and the ratee have time to prepare-to allow enough time to cover everything on the agenda without being rushed-in a room that allows for privacy without outside distractions or interruptions

52
Q

The rater can use numerous approaches to give feedback and any of them works well depending on the situation, but a fundamental rule of feedback calls for the rater to: (11.14.4.)

A

be him or herself

53
Q

AFPAM 36-2241 lists three approaches that may be used when giving feedback: (11.14.4.1., 11.14.4.2., 11.14.4.3.)

A

directive, nondirective, and combined

54
Q

AFPAM 36-2241 lists three approaches that may be used when giving feedback: Directive, Nondirective, and Combined. In the directive approach, the rater: (11.14.4.1.)

A

tells the Airman or NCO what to do

55
Q

AFPAM 36-2241 lists three approaches that may be used when giving feedback: Directive, Nondirective, and Combined. In the nondirective approach, the rater: (11.14.4.2.)

A

encourages the ratee to talk by asking questions and draws the Airman into the process of developing a solution

56
Q

The PDG lists three approaches that may be used when giving feedback: Directive, Nondirective, and Combined. Which approach is appropriate for individuals who usually have a positive attitude but requires the rater to have excellent listening and questioning skills? (11.14.4.2.)

A

nondirective

57
Q

The PDG lists three approaches that may be used when giving feedback: Directive, Nondirective, and Combined. In the combined approach, the rater: (11.14.4.3.)

A

draws on both the directive and non-directive counseling techniques

58
Q

The PDG lists three approaches that may be used when giving feedback: Directive, Nondirective, and Combined. Which of these offers the greatest flexibility? (11.14.4.3.)

A

combined

59
Q

Problems that can arise during the feedback process are as varied as the people involved and can happen at any time. Pitfalls include _______. (11.14.5.1.)

A

-personal bias, stereotyping, and loss of emotional control-inflexible methods, reluctance to provide feedback, and inadequate planning-focusing on the person instead of the behavior

60
Q

Avoiding pitfalls during the feedback session is not easy but two general guidelines may help: (11.14.5.2.)

A

-the rater should exhibit the proper attitude-the rater should practice good observation skills

61
Q

When opening the feedback session, the rater should _______. (11.15.1.)

A

-create a relaxed atmosphere-place the ratee at ease-be friendly and sincere

62
Q

The goal of the feedback process is to: (11.17.2.)

A

improve individual duty performance

63
Q

When the ratee is an A1C or below, raters submit an EPR when the ratee: (11.18.1.)

A

has 20 months or more of TAFMS and 120 calendar days of supervision

64
Q

When the ratee is an A1C or below, raters submit an EPR when the ratee has 20 months or more of TAFMS, has not yet had a report, and 120 calendar days of supervision have passed. The reason for the report is _______. (11.18.1.)

A

Initial

65
Q

When the ratee is a SrA or above, an EPR is due when the ratee: (11.18.2.)

A

has not had a report for at least a year and 120 calendar days of supervision have passed

66
Q

When the ratee is a SrA or above, an EPR is due when the ratee has not had a report for at least a year and 120 calendar days of supervision have elapsed. The reason for the report is _______. (11.18.2.)

A

Annual

67
Q

In addition to being required annually, EPRs are also required when a member is placed on or removed from the control roster and 60 calendar days of supervision have elapsed. The reason for this type of report is _______. (11.18.3.)

A

“Directed by Commander”

68
Q

In addition to other submission requirements, raters may submit an EPR to document unsatisfactory or marginal performance or a significant improvement in duty performance when 120 calendar days of supervision have elapsed. The reason for this type of report is _______. (11.18.4.)

A

“Directed by Commander”

69
Q

Just as there are times when the rater must submit an EPR, there are other times when EPRs are not required. An EPR is not required when: (11.19.)

A

-the ratee is an A1C or below and has less than 20 months of TAFMS-the ratee is in prisoner status, on appellate leave, or AWOL-the ratee has died on active duty

70
Q

An EPR is not required when a member has an approved retirement date and _______. (11.19.4.)

A

-the retirement date is within 1 year of the projected closeout date of the annual report-the retirement application was approved before the projected annual closeout date-the member will not be considered for promotion before the retirement date

71
Q

Just as there are times when the rater must submit an EPR, there are other times when EPRs are not required. An EPR is not required when: (11.19.5.)

A

personnel have an approved separation date, provided it is within 1 year of the projected closeout date and the separation was approved before the projected annual closeout date

72
Q

The rater receives and reviews the EPR notice and contacts the MPS if he has questions. If the EPR notice indicates that the ratee has a UIF, the rater must: (11.20.1.)

A

review the contents of this file before preparing the EPR

73
Q

In addition to reviewing the EPR notice, the rater must review the ratee’s PIF. The completed EPR is due to the MPS no later than _______. (11.20.2.)

A

30 days after closeout

74
Q

MPS personnel enter the EPR rating into the Military Personnel Data System and upload the digitally signed form into the Case Management System which transfers the evaluation to AFPC. The only exception to this method is _______. (11.20.5.)

A

when the EPR contains “wet” signatures

75
Q

The rater (normally the immediate supervisor) prepares the EPR unless: (11.21.)

A

-the rater dies, is missing in action, or is captured or interned-the rater becomes incapacitated or is relieved of evaluator responsibility

76
Q

The rater prepares the report unless the rater dies, is missing in action, is captured or interned, becomes incapacitated, or is relieved of evaluator responsibility. If any of these conditions exist, the _______ assumes the rating duties. (11.21.)

A

rater’s rater

77
Q

If the rater is relieved of evaluator responsibility, the rater’s rater assumes the rating duties. If the rater’s rater cannot obtain sufficient knowledge to prepare the report, HQ AFPC authorizes: (11.21.)

A

filing an AF Form 77, Letter of Evaluation, in the ratee’s record stating why a report could not be prepared

78
Q

When completing the EPR’s Number of Days Supervision block, enter the number of days the rater supervised the ratee during the reporting period. Deduct all periods of 30 or more consecutive calendar days during which either the rater or ratee: (11.22.1.8.)

A

-was on temporary duty-was in patient status-was on leave, AWOL, or in confinement

79
Q

When completing the Key Duties, Tasks, and Responsibilities block on the EPR, raters should: (11.22.2.3.)

A

avoid jargon and acronyms and enter a clear description of the ratee’s duties

80
Q

When completing the Additional Rater’s Comments section of the EPR, if the Additional Rater does not agree with the rater’s assessment, he or she: (11.22.7.)

A

marks the “non-concur” block and comments on each item with which he or she disagrees

81
Q

When the final evaluator on an EPR is not an Air Force officer or Department of the Air Force official, an Air Force advisor will be designated to advise raters on matters pertaining to Air Force performance reports. For EPRs on TSgt and below, the Air Force advisor will be serving in the grade of _______. (11.22.9.)

A

MSgt or above

82
Q

When the final evaluator on an EPR is not an Air Force officer or Department of the Air Force official, an Air Force advisor will be designated to advise raters on matters pertaining to Air Force performance reports. For EPRs on MSgt through CMSgt, the Air Force advisor will be serving in the grade of _______. (11.22.9.)

A

Major or above

83
Q

When the final evaluator on an EPR is not an Air Force officer or DAF official, an Air Force advisor will be designated to advise raters on matters pertaining to Air Force performance reports. An Air Force advisor will: (11.22.9.)

A

-have, or be able to obtain, knowledge of the ratee-be higher in grade than the ratee-when feasible, be equal to or higher in grade than the final evaluator

84
Q

If Section VII of the AF Form 911, Reviewers Comments, is used, the reviewer will mark the “concur” or “non-concur” block, and make appropriate comments. Senior raters may endorse EPRs: (11.22.10.)

A

-to distinguish between individuals with similar performance records-to meet the minimum grade requirement to close out the report-when the ratee meets the TIG requirements for promotion or is a CMSgt or a CMSgt-selectee

85
Q

In the Commander’s Review block, if the commander agrees with the report, he or she marks the “concur” block and digitally signs in the space provided and does not provide comments unless: (11.22.11.)

A

the commander disagrees with a previous evaluator, refers the report, or is named as the evaluator in the referral memorandum

86
Q

In the EPR’s Commander’s Review block, if the Commander disagrees with the report, he or she provides reasons for disagreement on _______. (11.22.11.)

A

AF Form 77

87
Q

When completing the EPR, Commanders who are part of the rating chain will fill out and sign both the appropriate evaluator’s section and the Commander’s Review section, meaning they will sign the report _______. (11.22.11.)

A

twice

88
Q

Commanders who are part of the rating chain will fill out and sign both the appropriate evaluator’s section and the Commander’s Review section of the EPR, meaning they will sign the report twice. The two signatures serve separate purposes: (11.22.11.)

A

as an evaluator of duty performance and as a commander performing quality review

89
Q

When completing the EPR, enlisted personnel who are authorized to perform the Commander’s review must include the words _______ in the signature block. (11.22.11.)

A

Commander, Commandant, or Detachment/Flight Chief

90
Q

AF Form 911, Section IX, Time-in-Grade (TIG) Eligible, pertains to _______. (11.22.13.)

A

TIG eligibility for senior rater endorsement

91
Q

Certain topics are inappropriate for consideration in the performance evaluation process and may not be commented on. These include _______. (11.23.1.)

A

duty history or performance outside the current reporting period

92
Q

ertain topics are inappropriate for consideration in the performance evaluation process and may not be commented on. These include _______. (11.23.2.)

A

previous reports or ratings except in conjunction with performance feedback sessions

93
Q

Certain topics are inappropriate for consideration in the performance evaluation process and may not be commented on. These include _______. (11.23.3.)

A

performance feedback

94
Q

The authority to extend the closeout date of an EPR is retained by HQ AFPC. HQ AFPC grants extensions to cover only the time necessary to complete actions, not to exceed _______. (11.23.4)

A

59 days

95
Q

Certain topics are not allowed in an EPR. Although stating that an Airman was nominated for honors and awards such as “Outstanding Maintainer” or “12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year” is allowable, stating that they were recommended for _______ is not. (11.23.10.)

A

-a Meritorious Service Medal-an Air Force Achievement Medal-an Air Force Commendation Medal

96
Q

If the ratee does not meet Air Force fitness standards, the wording in the EPR should not focus on the overall numerical fitness scores but rather on: (11.23.17)

A

the reasons and (or) behavior that resulted in the poor physical assessment

97
Q

A referral EPR is a performance report that _______. (11.24.1.)

A

-contains a “Does Not Meet Standards” rating in any block in Section III (Performance Assessment)-contains an overall rating of “1” or “2” in Section V (Overall Performance Assessment)-contains comments that describe behavior not meeting minimum acceptable standards of personal conduct

98
Q

An evaluator whose ratings or comments cause a report to become a referral report must give the ratee a chance to comment on the report. Referral procedures are established to: (11.24.2.)

A

allow the ratee to respond to items that make a report a referral before it becomes a matter of record

99
Q

LOEs cover periods of ratee performance that: (11.25.)

A

are too short to require a performance report or when the ratee is under someone other than the designated rater

100
Q

The Letter of Evaluation is optional except in the case of _______. (11.25.)

A

active duty A1C and below (with less than 20 months of TAFMS) when the reporting official changes due to PCS or PCA