Chapter 1- Flashcards
Most health benefits occur with at least __________ a week of moderate-intensity physical activity, such as brisk walking. Additional benefits occur with more physical activity.
150 minutes
Which of the following accounts for the unique position that personal trainers hold in the allied healthcare continuum?
The Correct Answer is:
They are able to show clients how to exercise effectively while following physicians’ general recommendations
Why?
While other members of the allied healthcare continuum might also give patients or clients guidelines for general exercise (e.g., “try to walk up to 30 minutes per day, most days of the week”), few of them actually teach clients how to exercise effectively. This is where personal trainers hold a unique position in the allied healthcare continuum.
Question:
What is the primary purpose of a fitness certification?
The Correct Answer is:
To protect the public from harm
Why?
The primary purpose of a certification is to protect the public from harm by assessing if the professional can perform the job in a safe and effective manner.
Question:
Which of the following is NOT part of the definition of “scope of practice”?
The Correct Answer is:
The code of ethics that must be adhered to while in the workplace
Why?
A scope of practice defines the legal range of services that professionals in a given field can provide, the settings in which those services can be provided, and the guidelines or parameters that must be followed.
Question:
Diagnosing the cause of a client’s lordosis and prescribing an exercise program to treat it is within a personal trainer’s scope of practice.
The Correct Answer is:
FALSE
Why?
False; Fitness professionals must never “diagnose” a client’s condition or “prescribe” any treatment.
Question:
To renew certification for a new two-year cycle, ACE-certified professionals must complete a minimum of _____ hours of continuing education and maintain a current certificate in ________________ and, if living in North America, automated external defibrillation.
The Correct Answer is:
20; cardiopulmonary resuscitation
Why?
ACE certifications are valid for two years from the date earned, expiring on the last day of the month. To renew certification for a new two-year cycle, ACE Certified Professionals must complete a minimum of 20 hours of continuing education and maintain a current certificate in cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). These requirements are in place to ensure ACE Certified Professionals maintain the highest professional standards for the industry.
Question:
What should a personal trainer do if a client insists on using dietary supplements despite the trainer’s assurance that his or her fitness goals can be met without them?
The Correct Answer is:
Refer the client to a registered dietitian or physician
Why?
The personal trainer can help the client understand that fitness goals can be reached without supplements and that supplements can have negative and potentially harmful side effects. If a client insists on using dietary supplements, the personal trainer should refer the client to a qualified physician or registered dietitian for guidance.
Question:
Which of the following is an appropriate response to a client who mentions being sore following a weekend tennis tournament?
The Correct Answer is:
Discussing the proper technique for icing the affected areas
Why?
If a client says he or she feels sore following a workout, it is outside the scope of practice of a health and fitness professional to recommend using any type of pain relievers, including over-the-counter anti-inflammatory medications. However, it is appropriate to discuss icing or proper technique for performing light, dynamic stretching activities for the affected areas, or offering information regarding the benefits of massage.
Which of the following is outside the ace certified personal trainer scope of practice?
A) Developing exercise programs for clients who have type 2 diabetes and medical clearance for exercise
B) Providing guidance motivation, and feedback to empower individuals to adhere to their exercise programs
C) Implementing post-rehabilitative exercise programs for clients following their physician’s recommendations
D) Compiling detailed nutritional programming and specific meal planning recommended by their physician
D) Compiling detailed nutritional programming and specific meal planning recommended by their physician
At what point does a candidate for the ace personal trainer certification agree to uphold the ace code of ethics?
While registering for the ace Exam
Which of the following is within the ace certified personal trainer scope of practice?
A) helping clients gain a better understanding of portion sizes and healthful foods so they can make better choices
B) Providing clients with recipes and shopping lists for four weeks to get them on track with healthful eating.
C) Conducting 24-hour dietary recalls to help clients learn where they have micronutrient deficiencies
D) Educating clients about resting metabolic rate (RMR) and the need to consume fewer calories than RMR to lose weight
A) helping clients gain a better understanding of portion sizes and healthful foods so they can make better choices
What do most allied health certification programs, such as the credentials for registered dietitians, occupation therapists, and nurse practitioners, have in common with certifications from the American Council on exercise?
They are all accredited by the national commission for certifying agencies
What are the 4 components of the transtheoretical model of behavior change?
Stages of change
Process of change
Self-efficacy
Decisional balance: Weighing the pros and cons of an exercise routine.
self-efficacy predictors
Past performance (best indicator of client performance) ex has their been a time in their life when they have been fit?
vicarious experiences ( do they know anyone else doing it or have done it? )
Verbal persuasion: positive feedback
physiological stage: how they feel during exercise
Emotional state: are they fearful or positive about the program
imagined experiences: the preconceived idea of what the program will be like
Question:
Julie has just completed an exercise confidence survey as part of her initial consultation. She indicated that she has low confidence in her ability to stick with an exercise program after a long, tiring day at work. Which of the following strategies would be the BEST option for enhancing Julie’s adherence to her exercise program?
The Correct Answer is:
Suggest scheduling her workout sessions before work or during her lunch hour.
Why?
This response is correct, as the requirements of Julie’s job are factors that most likely cannot be changed. Since Julie often feels exhausted after work, the best option would be to have her complete her workouts earlier in the day before the physical and mental feelings of tiredness set in.
Question:
When performing a seated row exercise, you notice the client’s shoulders rising up toward his ears during each repetition. What is MOST likely causing this movement error?
The Correct Answer is:
Tight upper trapezius overpowering weakness in the middle and lower trapezius
Why?
When the upper trapezius is tight and the middle and lower trapezius are weak, the scapulae elevate during scapular retraction movements that are seen during exercises such as the seated row. This occurs because the tight upper trapezius keep the scapulae high, pulling his shoulders up toward his ears with each repetition, while the weak scapular depressors (middle and lower trapezius) are not strong enough to overcome the tightness in the upper trapezius.
Question:
What is the MOST appropriate method for correcting a client’s form during an exercise in which the client demonstrates an undesirable forward-head posture?
The Correct Answer is:
Putting your hand where the client’s head should be and instructing her to glide her head back to touch your hand
Why?
This is the MOST appropriate response of the options available. An effective method for correcting a client’s exercise performance is to place your hand in the desired position and ask the client to move the body segment that is out of alignment to touch it. If the client has a forward-head posture, put your hand where her head would be with good alignment and instruct her to glide her head back to touch your hand. These techniques encourage the person to actively and safely assume the correct position.
Question:
Your new client, Sarah, is a strong believer in the practice of vitamin supplementation. After reviewing her three-day food diary, which includes her supplement schedule, you determine that Sarah is taking megadoses of vitamins B6, B12, and niacin. Which of the following statements would be MOST appropriate when addressing Sarah regarding her supplementation practice?
x
The Correct Answer is:
“Your food diary revealed that you are taking an amount of vitamins that could potentially lead to health problems. I encourage you to adopt the principles of the USDA Dietary Guidelines for Americans and discuss your supplementation habits with your physician.”
Why?
Sarah has strong beliefs about her vitamin supplement program and steps should be taken to avoid upsetting her when providing information about vitamin supplementation. The personal trainer should encourage Sarah to get her nutrients from foods and discuss her supplementation plan in detail with her physician, since megadoses of some vitamins and minerals can lead to toxicity.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, pages 162–163
Question:
The initial assessment with a new client reveals that her waist circumference is 35 inches and her hip circumference is 34 inches. Which of the following statements about these measurements is MOST accurate?
The Correct Answer is:
She is at risk for health problems due to excess abdominal fat.
Why?
Upper-body or abdominal obesity is known to increase health risk. This client’s waist-to-hip ratio (WHR) equates to 1.029 (35 inches divided by 34 inches), which places her in the category of “at risk” for health problems.
women men normal weight < 0.80 < 0.90 over-weight 0.80–0.84 0.90–0.99 obesity > 0.85 > 1.00
Question:
During the initial interview, a new client claims, “I want to lose 15 lb. (6.8 kg) in the next month for my high school reunion.” Which of the following responses would be MOST appropriate?
The Correct Answer is:
Acknowledge her enthusiasm and help her develop more realistic goals and a series of achievable steps to work toward them.
Why?
Personal trainers should always structure appropriate exercise expectations at the beginning of the client–trainer relationship. Unrealistic expectations lead to failure to reach goals. This is a common theme with people who have a history of unsuccessful attempts at weight loss. By helping her develop more realistic goals, the trainer will be helping her set a foundation for success. Then, by using a series of achievable steps to work toward goals, the trainer can help her have a series of successes that will facilitate adherence and eventually help her achieve her larger goals.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 50-54
Question:
A client wants to quickly lose the 20 pounds (9.1 kg) he has gained during the past 10 years. Which of the following timeframes would be MOST appropriate for him to safely achieve his weight-loss goal?
The Correct Answer is:
3 to 5 months
Why?
According to most experts, a sensible diet-exercise approach to weight reduction tends to produce a rate of weight loss of approximately 1 to 2 pounds per week. This equates to a 10- to 20-week timeframe for the client to safely achieve his weight loss goal, with 3 to 5 months being the only answer that falls within this timeframe.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 174
Question:
Mary is a healthy, 43-year-old female with no prior exercise experience. Which initial cardiorespiratory exercise program would be MOST appropriate for her?
The Correct Answer is:
Begin with continuous exercise as tolerated below the talk test threshold and work up to 30 continuous minutes performed 5 days per week
Why?
This response is correct because it allows for this currently sedentary client to begin exercising at his current fitness level with a goal to work toward 30 continuous minutes. The exercise intensity of “below the talk test threshold” is also appropriate for this client, as she must develop initial aerobic-base fitness before progressing to longer sessions or intervals.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 398-399 & 422-424
Question:
Henry is a healthy, 29-year-old male with no prior exercise experience. After an initial muscle-conditioning program that focused first on stability and mobility, followed by movement training with 1–2 sets of 15 repetitions of light- to moderate-intensity exercises for all major movements, Henry is ready to progress to a program that will help him work toward his goal of increasing muscle mass.
Which intensity range is MOST appropriate for causing muscular fatigue in an appropriate number of repetitions to facilitate muscle hypertrophy?
The Correct Answer is:
70 to 80% 1 RM
Why?
This answer is correct because eight to 12 repetitions corresponds with 70 to 80% of maximum resistance (1 RM) and is a sound training recommendation for safe and productive muscular hypertrophy.
One-repetition maximum (one rep maximum or 1RM) in weight training is the maximum amount of force that can be generated in one maximal contraction.[1] One repetition maximum can be used for determining an individual’s maximum strength and is the method for determining the winner in events such as powerlifting and weightlifting competitions. One repetition maximum can also be used as an upper limit, in order to determine the desired “load” for an exercise (as a percentage of the 1RM).
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 355-356
Question:
After several months of sticking to his exercise program, a client informs you that he is pleased with his progress and would like to enhance his rate of building muscle mass by incorporating creatine supplementation into his current program.
Which of the following responses to this client’s inquiry about creatine is the MOST appropriate?
The Correct Answer is:
“While some research shows that creatine may enhance muscular performance, it would be best for you to discuss supplementation with your physician prior to taking it.”
Why?
It is the position of ACE that it is outside the defined scope of practice of a fitness professional to recommend, prescribe, or supply nutritional supplements to clients.
If a client wants to take supplements, a fitness professional should work in conjunction with a qualified registered dietitian or medical doctor to provide safe and effective nutrition education and recommendations. This response is the most appropriate because it encourages the client to discuss supplementation with a medical professional prior to taking the substance.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 9-10 & Appendix C
Question:
Larry is a client with whom you have been working for the past three months. During that time, he has cancelled or failed to show up for approximately 20% of scheduled workout sessions with you. Recently, Larry’s work commitments have increased and he informs you that he will not be exercising until his work load decreases. In which stage of the transtheoretical model of behavioral change would Larry CURRENTLY be categorized?
The Correct Answer is:
Contemplation
Why?
Larry has relapsed to being physically inactive due to his work commitments, and has regressed to this stage of change. Individuals in the contemplation stage weigh the costs and benefits of lifestyle modification and are often ambivalent about changing. Individuals can remain in this stage for months or years, alternating between approaching readiness to make an effort at change and distancing themselves from it. Larry will have to decide to initiate a new exercise program before he can move back to the preparation stage and eventually to the action and maintenance stages.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 71-72
Question:
Which of the following provides the BEST assessment of acceleration and speed?
The Correct Answer is:
40-yard dash
Why?
The 40-yard dash is designed to assess acceleration and speed. Assessments of speed and acceleration require maximal effort and swift limb movement, thus to perform well and avoid injury it is imperative that the client warms up adequately.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 255-256
Question:
What is a diabetic client MOST likely to experience if he or she takes too much insulin prior to an exercise session?
The Correct Answer is:
Hypoglycemia
Why?
Insulin causes glucose to move from the circulatory system into the working cells. Exercise has an insulin-like effect, resulting in increased glucose uptake by the cells as well. Therefore, if a client takes too much insulin prior to exercise, the client would have two factors (insulin and exercise) that would be facilitating increased glucose uptake by the cells. This will cause a drop in blood glucose, potentially leading to low blood glucose, or hypoglycemia.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 616-618
Question:
When performing initial cardiorespiratory fitness assessments with a client who is taking a beta blocker, which of the following medication-related effects SHOULD be expected?
The Correct Answer is:
Decreased exercise heart rate and decreased resting heart rate
Why?
Generally, beta-adrenergic blocking agents, or beta blockers, cause both a decreased exercise heart rate and a decreased resting heart rate.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 132-134
Question:
Postural screening performed with a new client reveals that he has a posterior pelvic tilt and a decreased anterior curvature of the lower back. Based on this information, which muscles should be of PRIMARY focus in this client’s flexibility program?
The Correct Answer is:
Rectus abdominis and hamstrings
Why?
These two muscle groups work together to create a force couple to tilt the pelvis posteriorly. When they are tight, or shortened in length, the rectus abdominis will pull up on the front of the pelvis, while the hamstrings will pull down on the back of the pelvis. This would keep the pelvis in a position of posterior tilt during standing posture. Therefore, this answer is correct.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 158-160
Question:
Cindy’s first attempt at the incline bench press exercise appears shaky and uncoordinated. After the set, Cindy comments that she had a hard time feeling her chest muscles working and that it was challenging to move her arms in a controlled manner. Which stage of learning BEST correlates with Cindy’s performance?
The Correct Answer is:
Cognitive
Why?
This response is correct, as within the cognitive stage of learning clients make many errors and have highly variable performances. They know they are doing something wrong, but they do not know how to improve their performance. At this stage, clients seem terribly uncoordinated and consistently perform exercises incorrectly.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 62
Question:
Which of the following actions is within a personal trainer’s scope of practice?
The Correct Answer is:
Reviewing a client’s food journal to identify high-fat choices and providing education about lower-fat options
Why?
Personal trainers are qualified to design, implement, and progress exercise programs for apparently healthy clientele, as well as clientele who have special needs with a physician’s referral and recommendations for exercise. This includes helping clients develop more healthful behaviors that will facilitate exercise program effectiveness. This can include helping clients gain a better understanding of the USDA Dietary Guidelines for Americans, so they can make better dietary choices. Personal trainers cannot prescribe diets, tell clients what to eat, what to purchase, or how to cook their foods. However, the USDA Dietary Guidelines provide a wealth of public information that is often misunderstood. By helping clients gain a better understanding of this information, personal trainers can help clients understand where they are making higher-fat choices and feel empowered to make better choices when purchasing and preparing foods.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 9-10 & 17
Question:
What is the PRIMARY goal of a resistance-training program consisting of three sets of 12 to 16 repetitions for all major muscle groups?
The Correct Answer is:
Muscular endurance
Why?
Typically, resistance-training programs consisting of two to three sets of 12 to 16 repetitions are implemented to promote muscular endurance.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 338
Question:
You have just completed McGill’s torso muscular endurance test battery with a client. Which of the following results from this battery of assessments should be of PRIMARY focus when designing this client’s exercise program, as it is indicative of a muscle imbalance that can lead to back pain?
The Correct Answer is:
Right-side bridge:Left-side bridge ratio = 1.09 (85 seconds:78 seconds)
Why?
This response is correct. The Right-side bridge:Left-side bridge ratio should be no greater than + 0.05 from a balanced score of 1.0. This puts acceptable values between 0.95 and 1.05 for this ratio. The client described in this example has a Right-side bridge:Left-side bridge ratio of 1.09, which is outside the acceptable range and indicates a right:left muscle imbalance that could lead to back pain.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 187-192
Question:
On her health screening form, Carrie indicates that she has been diagnosed with “tennis elbow.” Which of the following anatomical structures is MOST affected by this condition?
The Correct Answer is:
The lateral epicondyle of the humerus
Why?
“Tennis elbow” is a common name for lateral epicondylitis, or inflammation of the wrist extensor tendons at their origin on the lateral epicondyle of the humerus.
“golfers elbow” is the inflammation of the medial epicondyle.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 581-582
Question:
A small-group training participant who enjoys the camaraderie of the group environment finds herself feeling as though she cannot keep up with the conditioning level of the other participants. What is the BEST recommendation for the trainer to make for this client?
The Correct Answer is:
Offer her the opportunity to switch to another small-group training class that is a better match for her level of conditioning
Why?
This is the BEST recommendation to make so that she can continue to participate in small-group training, which she enjoys, but at a more reasonable level of conditioning.
Reference: ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 689-691
Question:
At your request, a client visits his physician regarding recurrent leg pain. The physician diagnoses him with sciatica and instructs him to complete physical therapy for his problem. Which muscle is MOST commonly involved with sciatica due to its location relative to the sciatic nerve?
The Correct Answer is:
Piriformis
Why?
Tightness or spasm in the deep lateral rotators of the hip, particularly the piriformis, can lead to hip and leg pain since the sciatic nerve often passes through or just inferior to the piriformis and can become irritated by a spasm in the piriformis.
Piriformis is in the booty!
Sciatica refers to the sciatic nerve which runs through the hips through the legs.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 45
Question:
The “talk test” would be LEAST appropriate for which of the following clients?
The Correct Answer is:
A marathon runner trying to qualify for the Boston Marathon
Why?
This response is correct because this marathon runner has a performance goal that would be best met with a periodized program that has specific training time spent below VT1, from VT1 to below VT2, and VT2 and above; or Zones 1, 2, and 3 respectively. The Submaximal Talk Test could be administered to help this runner find his or her training heart rate (HR) at VT1, and the VT2 Threshold Test could be used to help this runner find his or her HR at VT2. Once these HRs are known, the personal trainer could build out a periodized training program to help the client increase running speed and stamina to build toward the Boston Marathon goal.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 224-226 & 428-434
Question:
A new member of your health club has been cleared by her physician to begin an exercise program after recently celebrating her 65th birthday. Which of the following exercise parameters is MOST appropriate for her initial program?
The Correct Answer is:
Strength training utilizing low resistance and high repetitions
Why?
This response is an appropriate program design and initial intensity level for a new client and it addresses the loss of muscle mass and bone density as one ages. To promote strength gains and increases in bone density, a program with more resistance and fewer repetitions is required. However, because this individual is more than 50 years old, the ACSM recommends he begin his program with low resistance and high repetitions. This is the recommendation for older individuals due in part to the fact that as people age their blood pressures tend to rise. Low resistance and high repetitions is the recommendation for resistance training for hypertensive clients as well. After several months of training, a more intense program may be appropriate.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 375-376
Question:
During a bend and lift screen (anterior view), you notice a client’s knees moving inward. Based on this assessment, which muscles are MOST likely weak?
The Correct Answer is:
Gluteus medius and maximus
Why?
This answer is correct given that the gluteus medius and gluteus maximus are primary abductors of the hip and as such they can prevent hip adduction. When the knees move inward during the bend and lift screen, it is generally because the hips are adducting, which moves the distal ends of the femur (knees) inward. Strengthening the hip abductors (gluteus medius and maximus) would make them better prepared to resist hip adduction during squatting motions.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 168-169
Question:
Which of the following stages of the client–trainer relationship involves the building of mutual trust and emotional affinity that begins at the initial meeting?
The Correct Answer is:
Rapport
Why?
The rapport stage is the foundation for the entire relationship between the personal trainer and client. Rapport means a relationship of mutual trust, harmony, or emotional affinity. Establishing it entails building a certain level of comfort or shared understanding into a relationship. The rapport stage begins with the first client–trainer interactions.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 43
Question:
Postural screening conducted with a new client reveals that he has an exaggerated posterior curve in his thoracic spine and protracted shoulders, with the backs of his hands facing forward.
What are this client’s postural deviations?
The Correct Answer is:
Kyphosis posture with internal rotation of the arms
Why?
Kyphosis posture is characterized by increased flexion of the thoracic spine with protracted shoulders and often a forward-tilted head. Additionally, the backs of this client’s hands are facing forward, indicating that he has internally—or medially—rotated humerus.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 151-152 &158-160
Question:
Postural screening conducted with a new client reveals that he has an exaggerated posterior curve in his thoracic spine and forward, rounded shoulders, with the backs of his hands facing forward. Which of the following sets of muscles and muscle groups should be the PRIMARY focus of a flexibility program designed to address this client’s postural deviations?
The Correct Answer is:
Shoulder adductors and serratus anterior
Why?
This answer is correct, as kyphosis posture is associated with tight shoulder adductors (pectoralis major) and tight scapular abductors (serratus anterior) which pull the scapular into protraction.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 162
Question:
After working with a local celebrity for nine months, he expresses to you how pleased he is with the results of his exercise program and the weight he has lost. Because of his celebrity status in your community, you would like to use his testimonial in your advertising. Prior to using his testimonial, what should you do first?
The Correct Answer is:
Discuss with him your ideas and, if he approves, request that he sign an agreement stating that he grants you permission
Why?
In compliance with the ACE Code of Ethics, all ACE-certified Personal Trainers must maintain the confidentiality of all client information. This implies a confidential relationship between the fitness professional and the client in which there is an agreement by each party not to divulge personal or business information acquired through the relationship. If a client agrees to let a fitness professional use his or her name and likeness in promotional materials, there must be a written agreement that states both parties are aware of, and agree with, the promotion.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 685
Question:
A new client tells you that he has been jogging 3–4 days per week for the past six weeks following a program from a popular health magazine. He has worked his way up to jogging 30 continuous minutes at an intensity of 70% of his predicted maximal HR, which he calculated by subtracting his age from 220. As you design a new program for him, what method for monitoring cardiorespiratory exercise intensity should be used to provide the MOST individualized training program?
The Correct Answer is:
Programming above/below HR at VT1 determined via the submaximal talk test for VT1
Why?
This response is correct because it involves programming at an actual metabolic marker that is unique to this client. By using the submaximal talk test to determine his heart rate at the first ventilatory threshold (VT1), the trainer is finding out the HR where this individual moves from moderate- to vigorous-intensity exercise. Nothing is predicted, as HR at VT1 is measured through a reliable field test. Once a personal trainer measures a client’s HR at VT1, the trainer can utilize this information to design effect aerobic-efficiency-phase training for clients using zones 1 and 2 according to the ACE IFTTM Model.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 221-224 & 420-421
Question:
You are working with a client who tells you that she has her greatest success with commitments when there is a reward for her to earn upon program completion. As such, you work together to create a behavioral contract with built-in rewards to enhance her program adherence. Which of the following sentences represents the MOST effective goal statement for the client’s contract?
The Correct Answer is:
“I will lose 1 to 2 pounds per week for the next two months so I can buy a new outfit.”
Why?
Behavioral contracting systematically arranges rewards for completing certain tasks so that the probability of the desired response is increased. The two primary parts of a behavioral contract involve specifying the behavior to be achieved and stating specific reinforcements that will reward the desired behavior. The terms should be explicitly stated so that the expectations are clearly understood. This response is the best option for the goal statement of a behavioral contract because it is specific, realistic, and defines a reward.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 58-60
Question:
A new client wants to lose weight and body fat, and agrees to have his body composition assessed during the initial session. He currently weighs 220 lb (100 kg) with 25% body fat (BF%). He wants to decrease his body-fat level to 15%. If he maintains his current lean body weight (LBW), what will his new weight be when he reaches his goal of 15% body fat?
The Correct Answer is:
194 lb
Why?
This response is correct. To calculate goal weight for this client, perform the following calculations:
DBW = LBW ÷ (1 – DBF%)
Step 1: 100% – Fat % = Lean body %
100% - 25% = 75%
Step 2: Body weight x Lean body % = LBW
220 lb x 0.75 = 165 lb
Step 3: 100% – Desired fat % = Desired lean %
100% - 15% = 85%
Step 4: LBW ÷ Desired lean % = DBW
165 lb ÷ 0.85 = 194 lb
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 206
Question:
A client you are working with weighs 200 lb (91 kg) and has a primary focus on increasing muscular strength and hypertrophy through resistance training 5–6 days per week. He is unsure of how much protein he should be consuming to maximize results and asks you for help. According to the protein guidelines for strength-trained athletes from the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics, Dietitians of Canada, and American College of Sports Medicine, what range for daily protein intake would be MOST appropriate for this client?
The Correct Answer is:
146 to 155 grams
Why?
A daily intake of 146 to 155 grams equates to 1.6 to 1.7 grams per kilogram of body weight (91 kg x 1.6 g/kg = 145.6 g; 91 kg x 1.7 g/kg = 154.7 g). This meets the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics, Dietitians of Canada, and American College of Sports Medicine protein guidelines of up to 1.2 to 1.7 g/kg body weight for strength-and endurance trained athletes.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 179
Question:
What type of contraction is performed by the latissimus dorsi during the downward (lowering) phase of the pull-up exercise?
The Correct Answer is:
Eccentric
Why?
This response is correct as the latissimus dorsi contract eccentrically to control the body as it is lowered during the downward phase of a pull-up. This eccentric contraction controls the rate of motion, slowing the downward movement against the pull of gravity.
Eccentric == Lowering/Lengthening
Concentric == Force/Shortening
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, pages 109 & 113–114
Question:
Which of the following flexibility assessment results would indicate TIGHTNESS in the infraspinatus and teres minor?
The Correct Answer is:
Limited ROM during internal shoulder rotation
Why?
This response is correct, as limitations in internal shoulder rotation are generally due to tightness in the external rotators, which must lengthen to allow movement in the opposite direction. The infraspinatus and teres minor are primary external shoulder rotators; if they are tight, they will limit internal shoulder rotation.
Teres Minor Latin: “rounded”
Infraspinatus Latin: Infra = “below/underneath”, spinatus = “thorn”
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 184
Question:
A new client expresses her concerns about the fitness testing that is advertised in the personal training brochure from the facility where you train. She claims that the thought of being weighed and having her body composition assessed makes her uncomfortable. Which of the following statements is the BEST course of action at this time?
The Correct Answer is:
Explain that these assessments are only options, and are not required. Then have her complete a health-history form and only conduct assessments that facilitate program design, such as posture and basic movement.
Why?
This response is correct, as some clients may be very uncomfortable with the testing and evaluation process, and in these cases, it can be counterproductive to the success of an exercise program. Fitness professionals should always require the assessment of health-risk factors. In addition, most programs can benefit from some basic assessments of static posture and movement, such as those utilized in the stability-mobility and movement phases of the ACE IFT® Model.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 122-129 & 135
Question:
Ryan is a busy, young executive who works 60 hours per week. He has hired you to develop a realistic exercise program that will fit his hectic schedule and to help him adopt sensible eating habits to help facilitate weight loss. He has recorded a three-day food record at your request and the most notable trend is his choice of lunch entree. Ryan eats lunch at a local pizzeria at least four days per week and always orders the same thing—a mini pizza topped with several types of meat and vegetables, and a large iced tea. After an Internet search, you discover the following nutrition information about Ryan’s favorite mini pizza:
Calories: 940
Calories from fat: 378
Total fat: 42 g
Saturated fat: 18 g
Trans fat: 2 g
Cholesterol: 175 mg
Sodium: 2,145 mg
Carbohydrate: 108 g
Fiber: 8 g
Sugars: 17 g
Protein: 33 g
Which of the following statements is MOST accurate regarding the saturated and trans fat content of this pizza?
The Correct Answer is:
It has a high content of both saturated fat and trans fat.
Why?
The 2010 USDA Dietary Guidelines for Americans state that total fat intake should range between 20 and 35% of daily calories, with most fats coming from polyunsaturated and monounsaturated sources. In addition, no more than 10% of calories should come from saturated fats, and products containing trans fatty acids should be limited or avoided altogether. This food item contains 40% of its total calories from fat (378 kcal from fat / 940 total cal = 0.402 x 100% = 40.2%), with 17% of those calories coming from saturated fat (18 g saturated fat x 9 cal/g = 162 cal from saturated fat / 940 total cal = 0.172 x 100% = 17.2%). While this client could eat healthfully enough the rest of the day to keep his total saturated fat intake to 10% of total caloric intake or below, this pizza is high in saturated fat and contains a substantial amount of total calories, setting him up for a diet that will most likely be high in saturated fat intake. This pizza also contains 2 gram of trans fat, which should be limited, or preferably, avoided altogether. Therefore, this pizza has a high content of both saturated fat and trans fat.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 168 & 184
Question:
Ryan is a busy, young executive who works 60 hours per week. He has hired you to develop a realistic exercise program that will fit his hectic schedule and to help him adopt sensible eating habits to help facilitate weight loss. He has recorded a three-day food record at your request and the most notable trend is his choice of lunch entree. Ryan eats lunch at a local pizzeria at least four days per week and always orders the same thing—a mini pizza topped with several types of meat and vegetables, and a large iced tea. After an Internet search, you discover the following nutrition information about Ryan’s favorite mini pizza:
Calories: 940
Calories from fat: 378
Total fat: 42 g
Saturated fat: 18 g
Trans fat: 2 g
Cholesterol: 175 mg
Sodium: 2,145 mg
Carbohydrate: 108 g
Fiber: 8 g
Sugars: 17 g
Protein: 33 g
Which of the following nutrients contributes the GREATEST amount of calories to the total calories found in this food item?
The Correct Answer is:
Carbohydrates
Why?
To solve this problem, you must know the caloric values for 1 gram of each type of nutrient: 1 g protein = 4 kcal; 1 g carbohydrate = 4 kcal; 1 g fat = 9 kcal. Next, determine the number of calories each nutrient contributes to the total caloric content of the food by multiplying the number of grams of each nutrient by its associated caloric value:
Fat: 42 g x 9 kcal/g = 378 kcal
Protein: 33 g x 4 kcal/g = 132 kcal
Carbohydrates: 108 g x 4 kcal/g = 432 kcal
These calculations show that carbohydrates contribute the most calories of all the nutrients in this food item.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, pages 172-173
Question:
A new client requests to train only at local beaches, parks, and trails. What is the FIRST precaution to take when training clients outdoors in public places?
The Correct Answer is:
The trainer should check with the city or property manager to make sure that the areas of interest for training have been identified as “legal.”
Why?
This response is correct, as it is the responsibility of the fitness professional to be familiar with local laws, as in some jurisdictions it is illegal to train clients on public beaches, parks, and/or trails.
Reference: ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 658
Question:
Randy is a client you have been working with for several months. During that time, he has reached a level of conditioning that allows him to perform 40 continuous minutes of cardiorespiratory exercise at an intensity of 75% MHR. During his annual check-up earlier this week, Randy’s physician prescribed beta-blocker medication to help control mild hypertension, and gave him a written release to continue exercise as tolerated. Based on this information, how should Randy monitor his exercise intensity now that he is taking this new medication?
The Correct Answer is:
Ratings of perceived exertion (RPE)
Why?
This response is correct as RPE is the recommended method for monitoring exercise intensity in individuals taking beta blockers, Due to the fact that it is based on perceived exertion, it is not negatively impacted by medications such as beta blockers. RPE has been validated against a variety of physiological intensity measures, including heart rate, % VO2R, and metabolic markers, and has been found to be a valid tool for monitoring intensity.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 132-134
Question:
Which of the following is OUTSIDE the scope of practice of an ACE-certified Personal Trainer?
The Correct Answer is:
Recommending an alternative therapy in place of a conventional therapy
Why?
This response is correct as it is outside the scope of practice of a personal trainer to diagnose a medical condition or recommend a method of treatment to a client. If a personal trainer identifies conditions that warrant medical evaluation and potential treatment, the personal trainer should explain what he or she has found and recommend that the client seek evaluation from an appropriate allied healthcare professional.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 8–10
Question:
You are checking equipment in preparation for your next client to arrive for her training session and notice that an exercise bike is not functioning properly and may pose a danger to your client and other gym members. What is the BEST plan of action to take concerning this piece of equipment?
The Correct Answer is:
Remove the exercise bike from the gym floor
Why?
This response is correct and is the best course of action to take because it eliminates any possible dangers.
Reference: ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 658-659
Question:
Which of the following documents may be presented in a lawsuit to release a fitness professional from liability related to a client’s injury?
The Correct Answer is:
Waiver
Why?
This response is correct, as a waiver is used to release the personal trainer from liability for injuries resulting from an exercise program as it denotes the client’s voluntary abandonment of the right to file suit. While this is the correct response, it is important for personal trainers to understand that waivers can be overruled in a court of law. The best method for avoiding a lawsuit is to always act in a professional, safe, and effective manner within the scope of practice.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 122-123
Question:
Preston is a weightlifter who exercises multiple times per week at the facility where you work. You notice that in his regular standing position, he exhibits a posture in which his shoulders are rounded forward and the backs of his hands face forward when he is standing in a relaxed manner. What is the MOST likely cause of this postural deviation?
The Correct Answer is:
An exercise program that focuses mainly on building the pectorals and latissimus dorsi without proper stretching of those muscles
Why?
This response is correct, as a standing posture with shoulders that are rounded forward and hands that face backward instead of toward each other is indicative of shortened pectorals and latissimus dorsi, as well as overstretched and potentially weakened scapular retractors and shoulder external rotators that passively allow the shoulders to fall forward into internal rotation.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 151 & 162
Question:
After three months of training, your client has achieved rapid weight loss and is now borderline underweight. She exhibits an intense fear of gaining weight and appears increasingly concerned with her appearance. Which of the following disorders is MOST likely to be associated with this type of behavior?
The Correct Answer is:
Anorexia nervosa
Why?
This response is correct as anorexia nervosa is associated with excessive concern with weight and appearance and overly rapid or severe weight loss with an intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 190
Question:
Six months have passed since you started training Claire. She has consistently attended all her scheduled workout sessions and shown significant improvement in cardiorespiratory fitness, muscular strength and endurance, and flexibility. However, her body composition remains similar to her initial assessment values. Upon questioning Claire about her nutrition habits, she responds, “I have been trying to use the USDA Dietary Guidelines for Americans you gave me, but I find myself binging on my favorite snacks every night. If you could just write out a diet telling me exactly what to eat and when, I know I could stick to it.” Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate response to address Claire’s nutritional concerns?
The Correct Answer is:
Refer Claire to a registered dietitian.
Why?
This response is correct because by referring Claire to a registered dietitian, you would be connecting her with an allied health professional who can help her with specific meal plans and address her binging. If you are not a registered dietitian or healthcare professional, you should avoid making specific diet recommendations and refer clients to a registered dietitian or physician when they require or desire specific meal planning.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 174
Question:
When teaching a client a new exercise, you should first describe the correct technique, then demonstrate the proper movement, and, lastly, allow the client to perform the exercise. What type of teaching approach is this?
The Correct Answer is:
Tell-show-do method
Why?
This response is correct, as the “tell—show—do” method is an effective and systematic approach to teaching a skill is by explanation, demonstration, and execution. By utilizing this teaching method, the trainer provides auditory, visual, and kinesthetic learning experiences, which combine to stimulate all learning pathways.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 56-57
Question:
Your client with type 2 diabetes just received a six-month progress report from his physician. According to his physician, he has experienced many positive health changes due to his exercise program and diet modifications. Which of the following is the MOST likely positive adaptation due to his lifestyle changes?
The Correct Answer is:
Decreased insulin resistance
Why?
This response is correct, as by losing weight through diet and exercise individuals with type 2 diabetes may be able to decrease their cellular resistance to insulin, thereby potentially reducing the amount of oral insulin medication needed.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 527-528
Question:
Which of the following recommendations for fluid intake is CORRECT for a client who primarily exercises outside during hot weather?
The Correct Answer is:
7–10 fluid ounces of water every 10–20 minutes
Why?
This response is correct, as the guideline for fluid replenishment while exercising in a hot environment is to drink at least 7–10 ounces every 10–20 minutes during exercise. Additionally, clients working in hot environments should drink 17–20 ounces of water two hours prior to exercise and 16–24 ounces after exercise for every pound lost.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, pages 226
Question:
Your client has lost 10 pounds of body fat in 60 days. What was the daily average caloric deficit required for this client to lose weight at this rate?
The Correct Answer is:
583 kcal per day
Why?
This answer is correct, as a caloric deficit of 583 kcal per day would result in a total caloric deficit of 35,000 kcal (583 kcal x 60 days = 35,000 kcal), which equates to a weight loss of 10 pounds (35,000 kcal / 3,500 kcal/lb = 10 lb), given that one pound of body fat holds 3,500 kcal of energy.
10 lb x 3,500 kcal per lb = a total caloric deficit of 35,000 kcal
35,000 kcal / 60 days = a daily caloric deficit of 583 kcal
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 174.
Question:
Your client has consistently performed 10 to 20 exercises per session, two to three times per week for six months. He is ready to be challenged with a more advanced resistance-training program. You decide to introduce a program wherein he performs 10 repetitions to muscular fatigue and then immediately performs three to five more repetitions of the same exercise at a slighter lighter weight to complete the set without assistance. What is this advanced training technique called?
The Correct Answer is:
Breakdown training
Why?
This response is correct, as breakdown training is an advanced training method used to enhance muscle hypertrophy extending each exercise set with a few post-fatigue repetitions that the client completes without manual assistance from the trainer. This approach requires the exerciser to train to muscle fatigue then immediately reduce the resistance by 10 to 20% and perform as many additional repetitions as possible (typically three to five repetitions) to attain a deeper level of muscle fatigue.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 357-358
Question:
When designing an INITIAL exercise program for a client who has postural instability and hip mobility issues, which exercise should be included because it improves core stability and hip mobility and stability?
The Correct Answer is:
Glute bridge
Why?
This response is correct as the glute bridge is an exercise in which the client first engages his or her core to stabilize the lumbar spine, and then activates the gluteal muscles to extend the hips and lift the torso until it is in line with the thighs, holding for one or two seconds at the end range of motion before lowering and repeating the movement. This exercise improves core stability through the engagement of core musculature to stabilize the spine, and it improves hip mobility and stability during the “bridging” movement caused by the gluteal muscles contracting to extend the hips and lift the torso.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 286
Question:
Which of the following statements represents the MOST effective feedback for helping a client correctly complete his first set of the bench press exercise using a barbell?
The Correct Answer is:
“Great job of keeping your posture, now try widening your hand position slightly and you’ll have better control of the bar.”
Why?
Research indicates that corrective feedback should do three things:
- provide reinforcement for what was done well
- correct errors
- motivate clients to continue practicing and improving
This answer is correct because it has these aspects.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 57
Question:
You are working with a new client who has been diagnosed as having borderline hypertension and has a physician’s release for exercise. In addition to designing an appropriate exercise program for her, you ask her to complete a three-day food record. Which of the following journal entries would be MOST important to address given her elevated blood pressure?
The Correct Answer is:
Lunch: roast beef and cheddar cheese sandwich, chips, and 16 oz regular soda
Why?
This response is correct, as the DASH eating plan was developed to help people with hypertension reduce their blood pressure, which is based on a diet that is low in fat, saturated fat, cholesterol, red meat, sodium, and sweets. This meal has a sandwich that has red meat and is high in fat, chips that are most likely high in fat and sodium, and a regular soda that would be high in sugar. This is the food journal entry that would be most important to address given this client’s diagnosis of borderline hypertension. It would also be the journal entry to address with most clients looking to lose weight and improve health.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, pages 186–187
Question:
According to research conducted with elite endurance athletes, what percentage of training time should individuals training for peak performance in endurance events spend in zone 1 (HR < VT1), zone 2 (HR > VT1 to HR < VT2), and zone 3 (HR > VT2)?
The Correct Answer is:
Zone 1 = 70–80%, zone 2 = less than 10%, zone 3 = 10–20%
Why?
This response has the correct percentage of time in each training zone based on research that has looked at training load distribution among elite, Olympic, and world champion athletes in a variety of endurance sports.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 410-411
Question:
Once a client is proficient at performing jumps in place and single linear jumps, which of the following plyometric drills would provide the MOST appropriate intensity progression?
Your Choice was:
Multidirectional jumps
The Correct Answer is:
Multiple linear jumps
Why?
This response is correct, as intensity of plyometric drills increases according to the following progression: jumping in place — single linear jumps — multiple linear jumps — multidirectional jumps — hops and bounds —depth jumps.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 362
Question:
A regular client says that he feels “good” and is “ready to exercise” during the warm-up portion of a training session. While performing a dumbbell shoulder press exercise with the same weight that he used during a training session three days prior, he groans in pain and drops the dumbbell, injuring his foot. Upon asking him what is wrong he shares that he hurt his shoulder yesterday and has been in pain ever since. Following the incident the client decides to file a claim against the trainer. This scenario is BEST defined as what type of negligence?
The Correct Answer is:
Contributory negligence
Why?
This answer is correct, because the client knew of his injury from the previous day, yet chose to withhold this information from the personal trainer, resulting in him causing pain in his shoulder and dropping the dumbbell. At the start of the session, the client should have alerted the trainer about his injured shoulder so that the trainer could adapt the training session for the day.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 651-652
Question:
You are trying to implement forward lunges into a client’s program, but he is having difficulty performing the exercise correctly. Which exercise would be MOST appropriate to include in his exercise program to help him eventually progress to a forward lunge?
Your Choice was:
Reverse lunge
The Correct Answer is:
Half-kneeling lunge rise
Why?
This response is correct, as the objective of a half-kneeling lunge rise is to teach the mechanics of the rising portion of a lunge exercise.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 310-313
Question:
Which of the following changes to a client’s stance position would INCREASE the challenge during a balance exercise?
The Correct Answer is:
Bringing the feet from a hip-width stance to a narrow stance
Why?
This response is correct. Moving the feet from a hip-width stance to a narrow stance would decrease the base of support, thereby increasing the balance challenge.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 298-301
What is the anterior view?
What is the Sagittal view?
Anterior == front
Sagittal == side
What is the Latin meaning for the following? Plantar Lumbar thorax tibia
Sole of the foot
loins
chest
a kind of flute and for the shinbone
Where is the tensor fasciae latae and what is it?
outer hip muscle
latin “stretcher of the wide band”
Where are the peroneals, soleus, and gastrocnemius located?
These are calf muscles!
gastrocnemius muscle Latin “stomach of leg”
soleus Latin “flat”
Peroneals “fibula or the outer side of the leg”
What are the three stages of learning and what should you do with them?
Cognitive stage of learning: Early stages, clients will need lots of encouragement and feedback as they are not used to the movements
Associative stage: Clients begin to master the techniques and need more specific feedback to fine-tune their movements
Autonomous stage: The client has mastered, you are doing mostly monitoring, and now your is a good time to move into more advanced routines.
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of regular physical activity?
improved cardiovascular function lowered systolic and diastolic blood pressure decreased body weight and fat mass improved lipid profile Increased diastolic blood pressure improved glucose control decreased anxiety and depression enhanced feelings of well-being decreased incidence of several cancers (e.g., colon, breast, prostate) decreased incidence of osteoporosis.
The Correct Answer is:
Increased diastolic blood pressure
Why?
Some of the benefits of regular exercise include improved cardiovascular function, lowered systolic and diastolic blood pressure, decreased body weight and fat mass, improved lipid profile, improved glucose control, decreased anxiety and depression, enhanced feelings of well-being, decreased incidence of several cancers (e.g., colon, breast, prostate), and decreased incidence of osteoporosis.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 67-68
At what stage of an exercise bout are phosphagen stores being replenished, remaining lactate being removed from the blood, and the metabolic rate decreasing?
The Correct Answer is:
After the cessation of exercise
Why?
The energy produced after the cessation of exercise (excess postexercise oxygen consumption - EPOC) is used to replenish the depleted phosphagens, to eliminate accumulated lactate if it has not already been cleared from the blood, and to restore other homeostatic conditions (e.g., thermoregulation, tissue resynthesis). As the body returns to normal temperature, the metabolic rate will return to normal.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 79
Which of the following is an adaptation specifically seen with regular weightbearing exercise?
The Correct Answer is:
Increase in bone density
Why?
The concept of the SAID principle is that the body will adapt to the specific challenges imposed upon it, as long as the program progressively overloads the system being trained. Studies have shown that weightbearing exercise promotes improved bone density, which is a key factor in the prevention of osteoporosis, particularly in women.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 81-82
The sinoatrial node (SA node), which is sometimes called the pacemaker of the heart, is located in which chamber of the heart?
The Correct Answer is:
Right atrium
Why?
The SA node is located on the posterior wall of the right atrium, while the atrioventricular node (AV node) is located on the floor of that same chamber.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 214
Which of the following is NOT a method the body uses to preserve blood volume during steady-state exercise?
progressive increase in heart rate
Increasing stroke volume
small decrease in stroke volume
compensation in blood pressure
The Correct Answer is:
Increasing stroke volume
Why?
The following changes take place to preserve blood volume:
A progressive increase in heart rate at steady-state exercise to maintain cardiac output and offset the small decrease in stroke volume associated with the fluid lossA compensation in blood pressure via further vasoconstriction in the non-exercising regions to maintain peripheral resistance and blood pressureA release of hormones-antidiuretic hormone, or vasopressin, and aldosterone-to help reduce water and sodium losses from the bodyACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 216
Minute ventilation decreases after an exerciser crosses the second ventilatory threshold (VT2).
The Correct Answer is:
FALSE
Why?
During submaximal exercise, ventilation increases linearly with oxygen consumption and carbon dioxide production. This occurs primarily through an increase in tidal volume (i.e., the volume of air inhaled and exhaled per breath). At higher or near-maximal intensities (above VT2), the frequency of breathing becomes more pronounced and minute ventilation rises disproportionately to the increases in oxygen consumption. Tidal volume decreases as breathing rate increases.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 217-218
What is the primary advantage of the increase in blood volume that results from chronic cardiorespiratory exercise?
The Correct Answer is:
Enhanced oxygen delivery to working muscles
Why?
A physical-performance advantage of reduced blood viscosity, which is a direct result of the increased blood volume, is that it enhances oxygen delivery to the active skeletal muscles, because the blood flows more easily through the vessels, including the capillaries. The other three choices are associated with increases in heart size and volume.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 227
After completing three weeks of physical therapy, your client needs to continue improving the range of motion of his shoulder joint. Which fitness component would MOST likely need to be improved to help this client?
The Correct Answer is:
Flexibility
Why?
Flexibility is the ability to move joints through their normal full range of motion. An adequate degree of flexibility is important to prevent musculoskeletal injuries, maintain correct body posture, and allow people to complete everyday bending and reaching tasks.
ACE Essentials of Exercise Science, p. 68-69
Your client has just signed up for her first half-marathon. Which fitness component would MOST likely need to be improved to help this client?
The Correct Answer is:
Cardiovascular endurance
Why?
The higher a person’s cardiorespiratory endurance, the more physical work he or she can perform before becoming fatigued. Efficient functioning of the cardiorespiratory system is essential for physical activities such as walking, running, swimming, and cycling.
ACE Essentials of Exercise Science, p. 68-69
Your client is having hip replacement surgery in two months and she wants to be able to transfer herself in and out of her wheelchair. Which fitness component would MOST likely need to be improved to help this client?
The Correct Answer is:
Muscular strength
Why?
Muscular strength is essential for normal everyday functioning, as individuals are required to lift and carry objects in their daily lives. Improved upper-body muscular strength would also help this client transfer herself in and out of a wheelchair during her recovery process.
ACE Essentials of Exercise Science, p. 68-69
Joseph is a 55-year-old CEO of a large company. He has a difficult time managing the stress of his job and is looking for a way to reduce this stress. Which fitness component would MOST likely need to be improved to help this client?
The Correct Answer is:
Mind/body vitality
Why?
Mind-body vitality is considered by many to be the fifth essential component of physical fitness. This component includes the ability to manage stress and maintain a level of mental and emotional well-being, and may be enhanced by techniques such as meditation, practicing gratitude, deep breathing, and yoga.
ACE Essentials of Exercise Science, p. 68-69
Arlene has gained 65 pounds in the past two years as a result of poor nutritional choices. Her doctor has just informed her that she is prediabetic. Which fitness component would MOST likely need to be improved to help this client?
The Correct Answer is:
Body composition
Why?
Excess body-fat storage is referred to as overweight or obesity and has been associated with a wide variety of health disorders, including type 2 diabetes.
ACE Essentials of Exercise Science, p. 68-69
During exercise, there is an increase in both systolic and diastolic blood pressure.
The Correct Answer is:
FALSE
Why?
During exercise, systolic blood pressure increases as a result of the accompanying increase in cardiac output to deliver blood into the exercising muscles. Diastolic blood pressure, however, stays about the same because vasodilation within the exercising muscles allows more blood to drain from the arteries through the arterioles and into the muscle capillaries.
ACE Essentials of Exercise Science, p. 215
If there is a decrease in parasympathetic activity, the heart rate will decrease.
The Correct Answer is:
FALSE
Why?
At rest, the body is primarily under the control of the parasympathetic nervous system, which keeps heart rate, blood pressure, and metabolism low. With the onset of exercise, the parasympathetic system is inhibited and sympathetic stimulation increases and has many effects on the body, including an increase in heart rate.
ACE Essentials of Exercise Science, p. 78
Receptors in the brain are the first to initiate changes in breathing.
The Correct Answer is:
TRUE
Why?
The respiratory control center is located within the medulla oblongata region of the brain. Immediately before exercise begins, breathing rate increases. This is most likely due to stimulation from the motor cortex resulting from anticipation of the ensuing exercise bout.
ACE Essentials of Exercise Science, p. 217
VT1 is also known as the lactate threshold and coincides with the first time that lactate begins to accumulate in the blood.
The Correct Answer is:
TRUE
Why?
The first ventilatory threshold (VT1), which also is referred to as the lactate threshold and the anaerobic threshold, occurs at approximately the first time that lactate begins to accumulate in the blood.
ACE Essentials of Exercise Science, p. 79, 218
Exercise can decrease a diabetic’s need for medications because it improves insulin sensitivity.
The Correct Answer is:
TRUE
Why?
Diabetes is a condition that results from abnormal regulation of blood glucose. Muscle tissue can take up higher levels of glucose at a faster rate, partly due to an increase in muscle’s sensitivity to insulin after an acute bout of exercise training. As a result, less insulin is needed to bring about the same effect on glucose uptake into muscle tissue.
ACE Essentials of Exercise Science, p. 186, 219
If blood accumulates in the ventricles of the heart, the cardiac fibers will stretch, which will lead to an increased amount of blood being ejected during the contraction.
The Correct Answer is:
TRUE
Why?
An increase in ventricular volume at the end of the cardiac cycle stretches the cardiac muscle fibers, which improves the force of contraction. Consequently, a rise in cardiac contractility results in an increased amount of blood pumped per beat.
ACE Essentials of Exercise Science, p. 215
What hormone dilates the respiratory passages and reduces digestive activity and bladder emptying during physical activity?
The Correct Answer is:
Epinephrine
Why?
In addition to its effects on the cardiovascular and metabolic systems, epinephrine dilates the respiratory passages to aid in moving air into and out of the lungs, and reduces digestive activity and bladder emptying during exercise.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 218
Which slow-acting hormone stimulates the mobilization of free fatty acids from adipose tissue, mobilizes glucose synthesis in the liver, and decreases the rate of glucose utilization in the cells?
The Correct Answer is:
Cortisol
Why?
Cortisol is a glucocorticoid released from the adrenal cortex that stimulates free fatty acid (FFA) mobilization from adipose tissue, mobilizes glucose synthesis in the liver (i.e., gluconeogenesis), and decreases the rate of glucose utilization by the cells. Its effect is slow, however, allowing other fast-acting hormones such as epinephrine and glucagon to primarily deal with glucose and FFA mobilization.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 219
Which mechanism of thermoregulation is the major contributor during exercise?
The Correct Answer is:
Evaporation
Why?
Though evaporation accounts for only 20% of thermoregulation while at rest, it accounts for approximately 80% of thermoregulation during exercise.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 225
What does SMART stand for?
SMART is a goal setting technique used, it stands for.
Specific Measurable Attainable Relevant time-bound
Latin
“latissimus” and “dorsum”
“latissimus” (Latin: broadest)’ and “dorsum” (Latin: back).
