Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Vascular Surgery > Chap 49 DVT > Flashcards

Chap 49 DVT Flashcards

1
Q

What are RF for DVT

A 
hospitalizations
recen surgery
trauma
cancer
indwelling catheter
extermity paresis
varicose veins
CHF
increasing age
long-haul travel
thrombophilia
pregnancy
OCP
IBD
antiphospholipid antibodies
iliac vein compression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What % of sympto DVT have PE?

A

50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is post thrombotic syndrome? What is the mechanism? what are RF?

A

50% of DVT
pain, edema, heaviness, hyperpigmentation, ulceration
this is a consequence of valvular reflux, persistent venous obstruction,
generally thrombus does not adhere to valves secondary to likely endothelial properties. Protective mechanism fails then contribute to post-throbotic syndrome
higher rates of PTS in anticoag alone vs thrombolysis in CaVent study
RF rate of recanalization, anatomic distribution of reflux and obstruction, extent of reflux, recurrence, BMI, influence occurrence of PTS
Chronic venous insuff in DVT/PE 1, 5, 10, 20 year 7%, 15%, 20%, 27%
Incidence of venous ulcers 4%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are features of DVT on DUS?

A 
Absence of spontaneous flow
Absence of flow augmentation
Visible thrombus
Absence of compressability
Absence respiratory phasicity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How to distinguish DVT acute from chronic?

A

acute vs chronic

total occlusion vs partial
clot retracted vs adherent
clot compressibility soft vs firm
smooth vs irregular
homo vs hetero
fain echolucent vs echogenic
no collaterals vs present
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Pitfalls in DVT identification?

A

Misidentification of veins
Missing duplicate venous system,
Systemic illness of hypovolumia Obese or edematous images suboptimal
Areas not amnebale to compression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are means of DVT prophylaxis peri-op?

A

Hydration and analgesia, early ambulation
Passive exerises in immobile
Leg elevation

Mechanical methods
Graduated stockings,

intermittent pneumatic compression
pressure 35-55 mmHg

pharma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are CI to use of DVT prophylaxis?

A

bleeding disorders
hemophilia, thrombocytopenia <70

active/recent bleeding
eso varices
peptic ulcer
INB, GI bleed within 3months

precuation
liver, renal fialure
multiple truama
spinal/optho surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How does heparin work?

A

binds to enzyme inhibitor ATIII causing activation

inactivates thrombin and Xa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are difference in unfractionated and LMW Heparin (fragmin)?

A

heparin vs LWMH
>daltons vs HIT 5% vs <HIT
reversed with protamine vs not easily reversed
IV and S/C vs S/C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How does warfarin work?

What is duration of action?

A

antagonizes vit K1 recycling, depleting active vit K1.
inhibiting synthesis of vit k dependent clotting factors
X, IX, II, VII (1927)

2-5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is fondaparinox?

A

factor Xa inhibitor by causing conformational change in AT

no thrombocytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are examples of direct thrombin inhibitors?

What are they used for?

A

hirudin, argatrobanm, dabigatran

treatment of HIT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is rivaroxaban?

A

direct oral factor Xa inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is prophy dose of Uheparin, fragmin?

A

5000units bid or tid

2500-5000units OD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are DVT pophy regimen?

A 
ver low risk--agressive and early mobilization
low risk--mechanical prophy (IPC)
mod risk--heparin +/_stokcing/IPC
high risk--high does heparin
stocking/IPC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are low and high risk procedures for DVT?

A

lap chole, appendectomy, prostatectomy, inguinal hernia repair, mastectomy

bariatric, cancer, neuro, TKR, THR, fractured hip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is treatment for DVT?

A

elevation of leg and ambulation
anticoagulation

warfarin for 3 months or beyond if high risk
prevent recurrence/extension
bleeding risk 1-3%
stockings likely reduced PTS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the deep veins of the leg? arm?

A

iliac, femoral, popliteal, tibial

brachial, axillary, subclavian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the rational for surgical thrombus removal?

A

Rational for thrombus removal
Venous patency restored, valve function maintained, QOL improved, risk of recurrence reduced
Decreased comparment pressure with clot removal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the evidence for iliofem thrombectomy?

A

RCT for ilifem thrombectomy showed better vein patency, lower venous pressure, less edema and less Post thrombotic symptoms (all signif)

Observational study for iliofem, ctheter directed thormbolysis showed improved QOL

RCT for CDT
Improved venous patency and reduction in valvular incompetence

CaVenT trial
Iliofem patency 6 months and PTS 2 years
Alteplase 0.01mg/kg/hr max 96 hours
Less PTS and better iliofem patency
Bleeding complications 3.3%
NNT to prevent one PTS is 7 (but not all patients in trial had iliofem dvt so maybe higher)
22
Q

How does thrombus form?

A

Glu-plasminogen binds to fibrin which converts to ley-plasminogen. This produces more binding sites for plasminogen activators and more efficient production of plasmin. Thrombolysis occurs with the activation of fibrin bound plasminogen to plasmin

23
Q

What is the dose of alteplase for infusion? intraop bolus?

A

10mg cathflo in 250ml NS
infuse 1mg/hr x 8hours then 0,5mg/hr until repeat angio
max dose 20mg/24hr
max duration 96hours

6-10mg bolus at 1mg/ml

24
Q

What are benefits of intra-thrombus delivery of alteplase?

A

Less systemic circulation
Protects plasminogen activators from circulating plasminogen activator inhibitor
Protects the active enzyme plasmin from neutralization by circulating antiplasmin

25
Q

What is success rate of CDT? complication rate?

A

80-90%

bleeding 5-10 ICH rare

26
Q

What are some pharmacomechanical devices for DVT?

A

Amplatz
Angiojet
Treotola
Oasis

27
Q

What are principles of surgical thrombectomy 6?

A 
identify cause
define extent
prevent PE
complete thrombectomy
ensure unobstructed inflow and outflow
prevent recurrence
28
Q

Describe surgical procedure for venous thrombectomy?

A

For infrainguinal thrombus, elevated and compress the leg with rubber bandage, dorsiflex foot and calf and thigh squeezed
If persists then cutdown on post tib vein and advance fogarty from this direction
Can also use saline to flush from post tib end

Iliofem then performed with 8-10 balloon
Can use ballon occlusion from contralateral limb to prevent distal embolization

create AVF

IVC filter if thrombus in IVC

29
Q

What are principles of AVF in venous thrombectomy?

A

Then create a small AVF at amputated end of the proximal saphenous. Limited to 3.5-4 mmm, increased venous velocity but not venous pressure
No increase in pressure should be recorded with open avf, if it does then the AVF is constricted

30
Q

What are the AHA guidelines for managmeent of DVT?

A

Low risk of bleeding patient may be selected for CDT or pharmacomechanical CDT as first line treatmenet to prevent PTS
Surgical venous thrombectomy considered if iliofem thrombus (IIb)

31
Q

How do you define MAssive PE?

A

Massive PE defined by systemic hypotension (40mmhg, syncope or cardiac arrest.

32
Q

What are ideal features for IVC filter design? 8

A 
Non thrombogenic material
Self centering
Secure fixation
No impendence to flow
Single trapping level and conical design (highest filtering to flow volume ratio
Retrievable
Visibility on imaging
Cheap
33
Q

What are evidence-based indications for IVC filter?

A

VTE CI to anticoag
VTE with complications of anticoag
recurr PE on anticoag
VTE inability to achieve therapeutic anticoag

34
Q

What are expanded indications for IVC filter?

A 
poor compliance
free-floating ilio-caval
RCC with renal vein extension
VTE with limited CP reserve
VTE in cancer, burn, pregnant patient
cord injury
trauma patients
known hypercoag
35
Q

What are CI for IVC filter?

A 
chronically occluded cava
vena cava anomalies
inability to access cava
vena cava compression
no location for placement
36
Q

What are complications of filter placement?

A 
PE
access site thrombosis
filter migration
cava penetration
cava obstruction
filter fracture
guide wire entrapement
37
Q

What are anomalies of the IVC complicating filter placement?

A

IVC transposition, duplication, agenesis

38
Q

What is IVC transposition?

A

Left sided IVC drains into the left renal vein which crosses to the right and continues in normal direction. Suprarenal filter placement

39
Q

What is IVC agenesis?

A

Absence of infraarenal segment

Azygos drainage. Place filter here

40
Q

What is IVC duplication?

A

Right sided IVC drains the right iliac vein and right renal vein
The left sided ivc is susally smaller, drains left iliac vein, and joins left renal vein where it crosses over into the right sided vena cava
Place filter in each cava

41
Q

When and how to place suprerenal filter?

A

thrombus in IVC, malpositionned in infrarenal, duplicate IVC, ovarian vein thrombosis, pregnancy
plae above highest renal so hooks not in RV

42
Q

What is superficial thrombophlebitits?

A

Superficial thrombophlebitis or superficial vein thrombosis with phlebitis is a condition where superficial veins thrombose or clot can cause inflammation and induration (hardening, thickening) of the overlying skin.

43
Q

Where is STP most common?

A

SV and tributaries

GSV >SSV

44
Q

What are RF for STP?

A

endothelial injury, varicosities (most common), neoplasm, SLE, vasculitis

45
Q

What organism cause suppurative TP?

A

s.aureua, pseudomonas, klebsiella, enterococcus, candida

46
Q

What is incidence of STP after EVLT?

A

11%

47
Q

How to diagnose STP?

A

Pain, erythema, tenderness or induration

DUS

48
Q

What is tx for STP?

A

NSAIDS

topical liposomal heparin

49
Q

What is the benefit of thrombolysis for DVT?

A

more complete clot resolution
preserved valve function

higher bleeding then heparin alone

49
Q

How does cancer cause thrombosis at cellular level?

A

Tumor cells can express TF
TF binds to VII and initiates X and XI leading to thrombin generation

Cancer pro coagulant directly activates X

Vascular Surgery (53 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions