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Organ Histo > Chap 2 Part 1 > Flashcards

Chap 2 Part 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Unlike epithelium, connective tissue consists mostly of what?

A

intercellular components and a limited number of cells

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2
Q

What are the 4 main functions of CT?

A

structral support, medium for exchange, defense/protection, and storage of adipose

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3
Q

What are the 4 main characteristics of CT?

A

derived from mesenchyme, support cells separated by matrix, support cells produce matrix, and cells adhere to matrix

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4
Q

What are the main components of the ground substance of extracellular matrix?

A

glycosaminoglycans, proteoglycans, adhesive glycoproteins, and other.

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5
Q

Which are larger, sulfated or non-sulfated GAGs

A

non-sulfated GAGs are larger molecules

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6
Q

Which type of GAGs are covalently bonded to proteins?

A

Sulfated GAGs

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7
Q

Which type of GAGs is important for allowing diffusion in some tissues as it holds a lot of water?

A

Non-sulfated GAGs

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8
Q

What are the main two positive aspects of inflammation?

A

increased fluidity will aid cell movement and increases numbers of defensive cells

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9
Q

What is the main negative aspect of inflammation?

A

excessive swelling can damage blood vessels, nerves, and cells

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10
Q

What is the term for a protein core with many sulfated GAGs attached?

A

proteoglycans

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11
Q

What kind of fibers are associated with CT?

A

reticular, elastic and collagen

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12
Q

What is the most common CT protein?

A

collagen

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13
Q

Wich type of collagen accounts for about 90% of the total body collagen?

A

Type I collagen

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14
Q

Which type of collagen is known for great tensile strength but does not stretch?

A

collagen I

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15
Q

T/F: As aging increases, fiber production slows and the fibers produced are stronger.

A

False; production slows but fibers produced are weaker (Ehlers-Danlos syndrome)

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16
Q

Which vitamin deficit is associated with weaker collagen I, bruising and bleeding gums?

A

Vitamin C (scurvy)

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17
Q

Which type of fiber can stretch 150% of its resting length?

A

elastic

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18
Q

Which type of fiber is important in blood vessels and lungs, commonly produced by fibroblasts and smooth muscle cells, and generally has fewer pathologies associated with it?

A

Elastic

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19
Q

As age increases, what happens to the number of elastic fibers?

A

decreases

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20
Q

What condition is a hereditary condition of CT, bones, muscles, ligaments and skeletal structures and is characterized by undeveloped elastic fibers?

A

Marfan’s Syndrome

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21
Q

T/F: Marfan’s Syndrome can lead to aortic aneurysm.

A

True

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22
Q

Which type of fiber lasts for about 3 days, is not affected by age, and is the first fiber produced during wound healing?

A

reticular

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23
Q

What are the 7 different cells in CT?

A

fibroblasts, fibrocytes, myofibroblast, adipocytes, plasma cells, macrophages, and mast cells

24
Q

Where are fibroblasts usually derived from?

A

mesenchyme cells

25
Q

When do fibroblasts primarily divide?

A

wound healing

26
Q

What are the 3 main structural functions of fibroblasts?

A

produce/maintain matrix, produce growth factors, and scar formation

27
Q

What are the main defensive functions of fibroblasts?

A

produce cytokines and enzymes and they can phagocytize when it is really needed.

28
Q

T/F: Fibrocytes appear flatter than fibroblasts?

A

true

29
Q

T/F: Fibrocytes can produce collagen I fibers and elastic fibers.

A

False; cannot produce either

30
Q

T/F: Fibrocytes can produce hyloronic acid (GAGs), ground substance, and reticular fibers

A

True

31
Q

When do myofibroblasts primarily function?

A

during wound healing and tooth eruption

32
Q

Which type of cells associated with CT possess features of both fibroblasts and smooth muscle cells?

A

myofibroblasts

33
Q

Which cells associated with CT do not divide or change into other cell types?

A

adipocytes

34
Q

Where are adipocytes derived and what is their function?

A

mesenchyme cells and energy regulation

35
Q

Which type of cells associated with CT are derived from B lymphocytes?

A

plasma cells

36
Q

T/F: plasma cells are typically found in blood.

A

False

37
Q

Which type of cells associated with CT are short lived (2-3 weeks), do not divide, are large cells with a spherical “clock faced” nucleus, and produce anitbodies?

A

plasma cells

38
Q

Which cells associated with CT are derived from monocytes, can divide, are very important defensive cells, and have a kidney bean shaped nucleus?

A

macrophages (histiocytes)

39
Q

What are the 4 main functions of macrophages?

A

phagocytosis, act as APCs, creating foreign body giant cells, and release cytokines

40
Q

What 2 examples were given in class where foreign body giant cells are formed in response to?

A

sizeable objects like splinters and some pathogens like Tuberculosis

41
Q

Which type of cells are large cells containing cytoplasmic granules, occasionally divide, live for days to a few months, and are derived from a bone marrow precursor?

A

Mast cells

42
Q

Where were mast cells once thought to be derived from?

A

basophils

43
Q

What 4 events do mast cells mediate?

A

inflammation, immediate hypersensitivity response (simple allergy), anaphylaxis, and asthma

44
Q

What are the 4 main mediators released by mast cells in granules?

A

histamine, heparin, Eosinophil Chemotactic Factor (ECF), and Neutrophil Chemotactic Factor (NCF)

45
Q

Which primary mediator increases permeability of capillaries and venules along with vasodilating arterioles to increase blood flow and contraction of visceral smooth muscle?

A

histamine

46
Q

Which primary mediator binds to and inactivates histamine (slowly)?

A

Heparin

47
Q

Which primary mediator attracts eosinophils?

A

ECF

48
Q

What are the 4 ways Eosinophils limit the effects of histamine and allergic responses?

A

inhibit leukotrienes, inhibit mast cell degranulation, phagocytize IgE, and secretion of histaminase

49
Q

T/F: Eosinophils can destroy parasitic worm larvae

A

True

50
Q

Which primary mediator attracts neutrophils?

A

NCF

51
Q

What is the main secondary mediator produced by mast cells?

A

leukotrienes

52
Q

T/F: histamine is 1000s of times more powerful than leukotrienes.

A

False; vice versa

53
Q

T/F: leukotrienes will extend and amplify the effects of histamine.

A

True

54
Q

What 4 stimuli will activate mast cells?

A

direct mast cell trauma, phagocytosis, IgE-allergin complex, and complement process/molecules

55
Q

T/F: B and T memory cells are produced during the secondary exposure to an antigen (secondary immune response).

A

False; first exposure or primary immune response is when B and T memory cells are produced

56
Q

T/F: secondary immune response is quicker, more intense, and longer lasting.

A

true

Organ Histo (7 decks)

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