Chap 2 Part 1 Flashcards
Unlike epithelium, connective tissue consists mostly of what?
intercellular components and a limited number of cells
What are the 4 main functions of CT?
structral support, medium for exchange, defense/protection, and storage of adipose
What are the 4 main characteristics of CT?
derived from mesenchyme, support cells separated by matrix, support cells produce matrix, and cells adhere to matrix
What are the main components of the ground substance of extracellular matrix?
glycosaminoglycans, proteoglycans, adhesive glycoproteins, and other.
Which are larger, sulfated or non-sulfated GAGs
non-sulfated GAGs are larger molecules
Which type of GAGs are covalently bonded to proteins?
Sulfated GAGs
Which type of GAGs is important for allowing diffusion in some tissues as it holds a lot of water?
Non-sulfated GAGs
What are the main two positive aspects of inflammation?
increased fluidity will aid cell movement and increases numbers of defensive cells
What is the main negative aspect of inflammation?
excessive swelling can damage blood vessels, nerves, and cells
What is the term for a protein core with many sulfated GAGs attached?
proteoglycans
What kind of fibers are associated with CT?
reticular, elastic and collagen
What is the most common CT protein?
collagen
Wich type of collagen accounts for about 90% of the total body collagen?
Type I collagen
Which type of collagen is known for great tensile strength but does not stretch?
collagen I
T/F: As aging increases, fiber production slows and the fibers produced are stronger.
False; production slows but fibers produced are weaker (Ehlers-Danlos syndrome)
Which vitamin deficit is associated with weaker collagen I, bruising and bleeding gums?
Vitamin C (scurvy)
Which type of fiber can stretch 150% of its resting length?
elastic
Which type of fiber is important in blood vessels and lungs, commonly produced by fibroblasts and smooth muscle cells, and generally has fewer pathologies associated with it?
Elastic
As age increases, what happens to the number of elastic fibers?
decreases
What condition is a hereditary condition of CT, bones, muscles, ligaments and skeletal structures and is characterized by undeveloped elastic fibers?
Marfan’s Syndrome
T/F: Marfan’s Syndrome can lead to aortic aneurysm.
True
Which type of fiber lasts for about 3 days, is not affected by age, and is the first fiber produced during wound healing?
reticular
What are the 7 different cells in CT?
fibroblasts, fibrocytes, myofibroblast, adipocytes, plasma cells, macrophages, and mast cells
Where are fibroblasts usually derived from?
mesenchyme cells
When do fibroblasts primarily divide?
wound healing
What are the 3 main structural functions of fibroblasts?
produce/maintain matrix, produce growth factors, and scar formation
What are the main defensive functions of fibroblasts?
produce cytokines and enzymes and they can phagocytize when it is really needed.
T/F: Fibrocytes appear flatter than fibroblasts?
true
T/F: Fibrocytes can produce collagen I fibers and elastic fibers.
False; cannot produce either
T/F: Fibrocytes can produce hyloronic acid (GAGs), ground substance, and reticular fibers
True
When do myofibroblasts primarily function?
during wound healing and tooth eruption
Which type of cells associated with CT possess features of both fibroblasts and smooth muscle cells?
myofibroblasts
Which cells associated with CT do not divide or change into other cell types?
adipocytes
Where are adipocytes derived and what is their function?
mesenchyme cells and energy regulation
Which type of cells associated with CT are derived from B lymphocytes?
plasma cells
T/F: plasma cells are typically found in blood.
False
Which type of cells associated with CT are short lived (2-3 weeks), do not divide, are large cells with a spherical “clock faced” nucleus, and produce anitbodies?
plasma cells
Which cells associated with CT are derived from monocytes, can divide, are very important defensive cells, and have a kidney bean shaped nucleus?
macrophages (histiocytes)
What are the 4 main functions of macrophages?
phagocytosis, act as APCs, creating foreign body giant cells, and release cytokines
What 2 examples were given in class where foreign body giant cells are formed in response to?
sizeable objects like splinters and some pathogens like Tuberculosis
Which type of cells are large cells containing cytoplasmic granules, occasionally divide, live for days to a few months, and are derived from a bone marrow precursor?
Mast cells
Where were mast cells once thought to be derived from?
basophils
What 4 events do mast cells mediate?
inflammation, immediate hypersensitivity response (simple allergy), anaphylaxis, and asthma
What are the 4 main mediators released by mast cells in granules?
histamine, heparin, Eosinophil Chemotactic Factor (ECF), and Neutrophil Chemotactic Factor (NCF)
Which primary mediator increases permeability of capillaries and venules along with vasodilating arterioles to increase blood flow and contraction of visceral smooth muscle?
histamine
Which primary mediator binds to and inactivates histamine (slowly)?
Heparin
Which primary mediator attracts eosinophils?
ECF
What are the 4 ways Eosinophils limit the effects of histamine and allergic responses?
inhibit leukotrienes, inhibit mast cell degranulation, phagocytize IgE, and secretion of histaminase
T/F: Eosinophils can destroy parasitic worm larvae
True
Which primary mediator attracts neutrophils?
NCF
What is the main secondary mediator produced by mast cells?
leukotrienes
T/F: histamine is 1000s of times more powerful than leukotrienes.
False; vice versa
T/F: leukotrienes will extend and amplify the effects of histamine.
True
What 4 stimuli will activate mast cells?
direct mast cell trauma, phagocytosis, IgE-allergin complex, and complement process/molecules
T/F: B and T memory cells are produced during the secondary exposure to an antigen (secondary immune response).
False; first exposure or primary immune response is when B and T memory cells are produced
T/F: secondary immune response is quicker, more intense, and longer lasting.
true
