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G.I. > ch.32.DzesGIT > Flashcards

ch.32.DzesGIT Flashcards

1
Q

Motor function to the following structures is under the control of which cranial nerve:
sublingual and mandibular salivary glands, lacrimal glands, facial & labial muscles

A

facial nerve

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2
Q

The lingual muscles receive their motor and sensory innervation from which cranial nerve (s)?

A

motor: hypoglossal nerve ( CN XII)
sensory: lingual & glossopharyngeal nerves (CN IX)

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3
Q

When do the hemimandibles fuse in horses?

A

Mandibular symphysis at approximately 2 to 3 months of age

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4
Q

Sinusitis can result from disease of which molars?

A

3rd, 4th, 5th and 6th upper cheek teeth

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5
Q

Where do the maxillary sinuses drain?

A

into the back of the nasal cavity via a slitlike aperture– the nasomaxillary openining

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6
Q

The medial compartment of the rostral maxillary sinus is called?

A

the ventral conchal sinus

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7
Q

The muscles of mastication are innervated by:

A

the motor branch of the mandibular nerve, originates from the trigeminal nerve (CN V)

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8
Q

Innervation of the dental structures is supplied by which cranial nerve?

A

trigeminal nerve (CN V)

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9
Q

parrot mouth in medical terminology is

A

brachygnathism

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10
Q

sow mouth in medical terminology is

A

prognathism

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11
Q

define polydontia or hyperdentition

A

supernumery teeth or teath in excess of normal expected number in any of the dental arcades

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12
Q

Supernumerary teeth can be loosely categorized morphologically into 2 categories:

A
  1. supplemental teeth that resemble teeth of the normal series in crown and root structure but not always in size
  2. rudimentary or dysmorphic teeth that are banormally shaped and smalle rins ize than normal teeth
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13
Q

Clinical signs associated with supernummery teeth are d/t

A

dental overgrowth and diastemata, which often lead to secondary periodontal disease

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14
Q

define oligodontia

A

the congenital absence of a tooth germ or retention and inclusion of a tooth wihtin the jaw

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15
Q

acquired dental disease can be grouped into 6 basic categories:

A
  1. dental malocclusions and abnormal occlusal wear
  2. periodontal disease
  3. caries of the infundibulum or peripheral cementum
  4. endodontic disease
  5. tooth resorption and hypercementosis
  6. traumatic dental injuries
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16
Q

How much tooth crown can be removed prior to pulp exposure?

A

recommend 3 to 4mm max, because some pulpe horns are exposed at 2 to 4 mm

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17
Q

periodontium involves which structures?

A

gingiva
alveolar bone
periodontal ligament
cementum

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18
Q

what pH is required for enamel, dentin and cementum to demineralize?

A

enamel: pH 5.5
dentine: pH 6.2
cementum: pH 6.7

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19
Q

endodontic disease referrs to

A

disease of the dental pulp

** occurs in horses age 4 to 10 years

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20
Q

pulp horn decay can lead to what?

A

weakening and predispose to crown fracture

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21
Q

Functions of saliva

A

hydrates and lubricates the oral cavity
facilitates swallowing
prevents tooth demineralization
regulates oral flora

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22
Q

How does the parotid salivary gland communicate with the oral cavity?

A

a pappilla opposite the upper third and fourth cheek tooth

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23
Q

How does the mandibular salivary duct communicate with the oral cavity?

A

lateral aspect of teh sublingual caruncle

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24
Q

Where are the sublingual salivary ducts located?

A

approximately 30 small pores located in teh sublingual recess

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25
Q

Causes of pytalism

A

heavy metal toxicity
parasympathomimetic poisoning
cholinesterase inhibiting insecticides (organophosphates & carbamates)
neurologic disease
stomatitis
slaframine

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26
Q

What is the cause of “slobbers” in horses?

A

slaframine– cholineric agonist
on clover contaminated with fungus Rhizoctonia leguminicola

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27
Q

Sialoadenitiis results from

A

salivary duct obruciton caused by accumulation of exudate or mucus, by ingested foreign body or by a sialolith

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28
Q

What is a salivary mucocele?

A

an accumulation of salivary secretions in a single or multiloculated cavity adjacent to a ruptured salivary duct

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29
Q

what is a ranula?

A

a type of mucocele that is secondary to obstruction of the sublingual salivary duct

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30
Q

Tumors of the salivary glands:

A

melanomas- more common in gray horses
other tumors:
benign mixed tumors
adenocarcinomas
acinar cell tumors

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31
Q

Equine oral tumors are rare, but are divided into what 3 types?

A

odontogenic
osteogenic
secondary

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32
Q

What are odontogenic tumors?

A

derived from remnants of dental epithelium

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33
Q

Secondary tumours of the head include:

A

extensions of oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma
lymphosarcoma
papilloma
melinoma

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34
Q

good dental health is important to equine digestive system. Proper emchanical digestion of feed allows for what?

A

better carbohydrate absorption in the small intestine & improved fiber fermentation in cecum and large colon

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35
Q

Define simple intestinal obstruction

A

physical obstruction of the lumen without obstruction of mesenteric vascular flow (ie., nonstrangulating obstruction)

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36
Q

At what age do ascarid impactions (parascaris equorum) typically occur?

A

weanling foals (median age: 5 months) that are dewormed with a heavy parasite burden

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37
Q

what are products that cause sudden ascarid paralysis or death

A

piperazine
organophosphates
pyrantel pamoate

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38
Q

clinical signs of colic due to ascarid impaction after deworming, usually occurs how many days after deworming?

A

within 1 to 5 days

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39
Q

What is the mortality rate reported in ascarid impactions?

A

high (range 60 and up to 92% in one study)

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40
Q

ileal impactions occur most commonly in horses fed what hays?

A

coastal Bermuda hay
**SE US
* failure to deworm against tapeworms

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41
Q

what is ileal hypertrophy?

A

disorder in which the muscular layers (both circular and longitudinal) of ileum enlarge for unknown reasons

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42
Q

Treatment of ileal hypertrophy?

A

usually entails an ileocecal or jejunocecal anastomosis to bypass the hypertrophies ileum

**risk w/o removal is rupture of the thickened ileum

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43
Q

Where is the meckel diverticulum?

A

arises from the vitelloumbilical duct which fails to atrophy completely and becomes a blind pouch projecting from the antimesenteric border of the ileum
+/- an associated mesodiverticular band extended from diverticulum to umbilical remnant & serves as a point for SI to become strangulated

44
Q

Where can mesodiverticular bands originate?

A

meckel diverticulum to umbilical remnant
OR
originate from embryonic ventral mesentary & attach to anti-mesenteric surface of bowel

45
Q

Clinical signs of a meckel diverticulum or mesodiverticular bands?

A

chronic colic to acute severe colic

46
Q

Idiopathic focal eosinophilic enteritis: which age group is at increased risk?

A

horses younger than 5 years of age

47
Q

Histo of idiopathic focal eosinophilic enteritis:

A

severe transmural eosinophilic enteritis

48
Q

A report from NW England revealed what kind of pattern in idiopathic focal eosinophilic enteritis?

A

seasonal pattern: risk highest between July and November

49
Q

Strangulating obstruction definition

A

simultaneous occlusion of intestinal lumen and its blood supply

50
Q

Where is the epiploic foramen located?

A

opening to the omental bursa located within the right cranial quadrant of the abdomen

boundaries:
dorsal: liver & caudal vena cava
ventrally: pancreas, hepatoduodenal ligament & portal vein

51
Q

What is the seasonal pattern associated with epipoloic foramen entrapment lesions?

A

more cases seen in fall and winter months

52
Q

Besides the seasonal pattern to epiploic foramen entrapments, what other predisposing factor exists?

A

Cribbing

53
Q

In surgical treatment of epiploic foramen, what fatal complication can occur?

A

fatal hemorrhage due to laceration of vena cava or portal vein

54
Q

Surgical small intestinal resection due to lipoma reported success rates:

A

60 to 78% of horses discharged from the hospital after surgical treatment

55
Q

What is a small intestinal volvulus?

A

twisting of a segment of SI more than 180 degrees along the axis of the mesentery

56
Q

Inguinal hernias are common in what breeds?

A

Standardbred and Tennessee walking horses
**congenitally large inguinal canals

57
Q

Differentiate between a direct and indirect inguinal hernia:

A

Direct: bowel ruptures through parietal vaginal tunic & occupies a subcu location

Indirect: remains with the peritoneal cavity

58
Q

in congential hernias, when is surgery recommended

A

direct hernias

– for repair of vaginal tunic

59
Q

What is a Richter hernia?

A

When a hernia involves only part fo the intestinal wall

– can develop a enterocutaneous fistula

60
Q

Congenital diaphragmatic hernias occur from

A

incomplete fusion of any embryonic components of the diaphragm: pleuroperitoneal membranes, transverse septum, esophageal mesentery

61
Q

define intussusception

A

a segment of bowel (intussusceptum) that invaginates into an adjacent aboral segment of bowel (intususscipiens)

62
Q

Reasons for intusussceptions of bowel:

A

small passes, foreign bodies or parasites (tapeworms Anoplocephala perfoliata)

63
Q

What is the most common location of an intusussception?

A

ileocecal intusussception

64
Q

Cause of nonstrangulating infarcation to teh SI

A

secondary to cranial msenteric arteritis caused by igration of S. vulgaris

65
Q

Most common segments involves in a nonstrangulating infarction of cranial mesenteric artery

A

any segment of intestine it supplies

**particularly distal small intestine and large colon

66
Q

The diagnosis of cecal impaction is based upon?

A

rectal palpation: firm, impacted cecum or a grossly distended fluid-filled cecum

67
Q

What is the prognosis for a cecal impaction, treated medically and treated surgically?

A

medical management: 61%
surgical management: 82%
– mild variation between a jejunnocolostomy and typhlotomy

68
Q

What role do equine feeding programs play a role in the development of large colon impactions?

A

Twice daily feeding concentrates are associated with secretion of large volumes of fluid into the small intestine– transient hypovolemia (15% loss of plasma volume)

–> leads to activation of renin-angiotensin- aldosterone system
-aldosterone stimulates absorption of fluid from colon & may dehydrate contents

large concentrate meals may decrease small intestine transit time

69
Q

Prognosis for large colon impaction, medical management vs surgical intervention?

A

medical management: 95% long term survival in one study

surgical intervention: 58% long term survival in same study

70
Q

What are enteroliths?

A

mineralized masses typically composed of ammonium magnesium phosphate (struvite)

71
Q

What is usually involved in the formation of enteroliths?

A

almost always form around a nucleus–> ie: silicon dioxide, stone, nail or peice of rope

72
Q

Where in the United States has the highest incidence of enterolith formation?

A

California
– diet composed of alfalfa were at risk for development of enterolithiasis
- horses on pasture was protective against the disease

73
Q

Where are enteroliths most commonly located (which segments of colon)?

A

right dorsal portion of the colon
transverse colon
small colon

74
Q

Difference between solitary vs multiple enteroliths?

A

Solitary enteroliths: round
multiple enteroliths: flat sides

75
Q

How often does colon rupture occur when removing an enterolith?

A

in 15% of 900 cases

76
Q

Prognosis for sand impactions

A

good: more than 94% of horses survived to discharge, regardless of medical vs surgical management

77
Q

A colon volvulus of what degree does not result in strangulation of blood supply?

A

less than 270 degrees

78
Q

What is the dose of phenylephrine to be administered prior to exercise or rolling to decrease the size of the spleen, in the treatment of nephrosplenic entrapment?

A

3 to 6 microg/kg/min over 15 minutes

79
Q

What is the reported rate of recurrence in LDD/nephrosplenic entrapments?

A

may affect up to 23% of horses

80
Q

atresia coli inheritance in horses?

A

unknown and can occur in any segment of colon

81
Q

In experimental conditions, the colon is irreversibly damaged within what time period?

A

within 3 to 4 hours of 360 degree volvulus of the entire colon

82
Q

Postoperative complications reported in large colon volvulus’s

A

-hypovolemic and endotoxemic shock
-extensive loss of circulating protein
-disseminated intravascular coagulation
-laminitis

83
Q

What is the reported prognosis for survival for large colonic volvulus, to hospital discharge?

A

58 to 88%

84
Q

What is the reported prognosis for long term survival for large colon volvulus?

A

34 to 66% after 2 years

85
Q

What is the most common intussusception of the large intestine?

A

cecocolic intussusception

86
Q

At what age tends to have cecocolic intussusceptions?

A

young horses: 2 to 3 years of age
– may be assoc. with intestinal parasites (tapeworms & heavy larval cyathostome burden)

87
Q

Prognosis for recovery from cecocolic intussusception?

A

poor- d/t severe compromise ot cecum, risk of cecal rupture or severe contamination during sx

88
Q

Which populations have increased risk for small colon conditions?

A

*Arabian horses and ponies (miniature)
*horses > 15 years of age–> strangulating lipoma, injury from foaling, submucosal hematoma
*mares– hormonal fluctuations, injury during foaling, small colon entrapped by an ovary

89
Q

atresia coli vs myenteric aganglionosis/overo lethal white syndrome

A

-overo lethal white syndrome/ myenteric aganglionosis of distal intestinal tract result of a mutation the endothelin receptor type B gene

-

90
Q

Loss of the neurons in the myenteric plexus of the small colon can be seen in what 2 diseases?

A

overo lethal white syndrome

equine dysautonomia (grass sickness)

91
Q

Diagnosis of atresia coli

A
  • retrograde contrast study (lg volume may be required if lesion proximal to transverse colon, up to 20 ml/kg)

-colonoscopy– not recommended d/t fragility of small colon

92
Q

What is the composition of mecnonium?

A

substances that are present in the intestinal tract at birth, such as glandular secretions, sloughed cells and swallowed amniotic fluid

93
Q

Which sex has a higher incidence of meconium impactions in foals?

A

Higher incidence of meconium retention in colts than in fillies

94
Q

Why is acetylcysteine effective in meconium impactions?

A

it is a mucolytic– acts by breaking disulfide bonds to make meconium less viscous

95
Q

Proposed cause of mesocolic tears?

A

trauma and straining during parturition

96
Q

intraluminal objects commonly cause obstruction in what areas of the esophagus?

A
  • cranial part of the cervical portion of the esophagus
    -thoracic inlet
    -base of the heart
97
Q

What are possible causes of cervical cellulitis?

A

-perivascular injection of irritating substances
-abscesses
- reaction to hypoerma lineatum larvae

98
Q

Systemic diseases that may lead to esophageal dysfunction:

A

-rabies
-botulism
tetanus
-poisonous plants: sneezeweed, larkspur, milkweed, red clover infected with fungus R. leguminicola (slaframine)
-pharyngeal trauma

99
Q

What are common clinical pathology features of long-standing choke?

A

dehydration
metabolic acidosis– d/t continued loss of sodium bicarbonate & sodium phosphate in saliva

**as sodium depletion develops, composition of saliva shifts to include more potassium under the influence of alodsterone

100
Q

Megaesophagus rarely occurs in ruminants, been has been reported to be associated with or caused by:

A
  1. pharyngeal trauma or resultant inflammatory involvement of vagus
  2. hiatal hernia or diaphragmatic hernia
  3. sarcocystis arieticanis megaesophagus in a ram
  4. eosinophilic submucosal infiltration reported in 18m old heifer
101
Q

Causes of colic signs in ruminants,
Examples of extraintestinal causes of visceral pain

A

urolithiasis
acute pyelonephritis
ruptured bladder
cystitis/urinary tract diseases
uterine torsion or rupture
acute liver diseases
cholelithiasis
fat necrosis
inguinal hernia

102
Q

Causes of colic signs, Example of extraintestinal parietal pain

A

peritonitis

103
Q

Causes of colic signs, examples of extraabdominal causes of parietal pain

A

pleuropneumonia
rib fracture
diaphragmatic hernia
laminitis
myopathy
spinal cord diseases (osteomyelitis, fracture, luxation)

104
Q

Abdominal causes of colic signs, that are gastrointestinal source of visceral pain

A

torsion of mesentary root
cecal dilation/volvulus
intesitnal volvulus
intussusception
abomasal volvulus
intesitnal foreign body or osruction
intesitnal incarceration, adhesions
atresia coli (neonates)
hemorrhagic bowel syndrome
aboamsal bloat (neonates)
paralytic ileus
enteritis, enterotoxemia

105
Q

Abdominal causes of colic signs, that are gastrointestinal source of parietal pain

A

acute traumatic reticulitis
reticulopericarditis
abomasal ulcer

G.I. (7 decks)

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