Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Bio 151 > ch18 > Flashcards

ch18 Flashcards

1
Q

What does the circulatory system consist of?

A

Heart
Blood Vessels
Blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does the cardiovascular system consist of?

A

Heart
Blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is hematology?

A

Study of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the main functions of the circulatory system?

A

Transport
Protection
Regulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How many litres of blood does an adult have?

A

4-6L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What type of tissue is blood?

A

A liquid connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is plasma?

A

matrix of blood
clear light yellow fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are formed elements?

A

Blood cells and cell fragments
RBC
WBC
platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Name the 7 formed elements

A

Erythrocytes
Platelets
Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Basophils
Lymphocytes
Monocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are erythrocytes?

A

Red blood cells

(RBC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are platelets?

A

cell fragments of megakaryocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Name the five leukocytes

A

Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Basophils
Lymphocytes
Monocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What type of blood cell are leukocytes?

A

White blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Name the Granulocytes

A

Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Name the agranulocytes

A

Lymphocytes
Monocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Name the cell type

A

Eosinophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Name the formed element

A

Erythrocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Name the formed element

A

Basophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Name the formed element

A

Lymphocyyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Name the formed element

A

Monocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Name the formed element

A

Neutrophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Name the formed element the black line leads to

A

platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is Hematocrit

A

centrifuging of blood to separate components

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the buffy coat ?

A

A small layer of leukocytes and platelets between plasma and blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the normal volume of RBC

A

37-52%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What volume of plasma is normal ?

A

47-63%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is blood plasma made up of?

A

Water

Proteins

Nutrients

electrolytes

nitrogenous wastes

Hormones

Gases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is Serum?

A

remaining fluid when blot clots and solids are removed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Serum is identical to plasma except for….

A

abscence of fibrinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the three major categories of plasma proteins?

A

Albumins

Globulins

Fibrinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the function of Albumin proteins

A

Contribute to viscosity and osmolarity

influence blood pressure

influence blood flow

influence fluid balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is the function of Globulins?

A

Antibodies

provide immune system functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the 3 types of globulins

A

Alpha

Beta

Gamma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the function of fibrinogen

A

precursor of fibrin threads that help form blood clots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Where are plasma proteins formed?

A

Albumins and fibrinogen: Liver

Globulins: plasma cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is blood viscosity ?

A

How thick or sticky your blood is

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Why is viscosity important?

A

Circulatory function relies upon blood being right thickness to flow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

If blood is too thick?

A

viscous, can clog arteries and veins

raise blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is blood osmolarity ?

A

total molarity of those dissolved particles that cannot pass through the blood vessel wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

If osmolarity is too high?

A

blood absorbs too much water raising blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

if osmolarity is too low ?

A
  • too much water stays in the tissue
  • blood pressure drops
  • edema occurs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How is optimum osmolarity acheived?

A

body’s regulation of sodium ions, proteins and RBC’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is kwashiorkor?

A
  • children with severe protein deficiency
  • thin arms and legs
  • swollen abdomen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is Hypoproteinemia?

A
  • Deficiency of plasma proteins
  • extreme starvation
  • Liver or kidney disease
  • severe burns
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is hemopoiesis?

A

Production of blood and formed elements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What to hemopoietic tissues do?

A

produce blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What does the yolk sac do?

A

produces stem cells for first blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Red Bone marrow produces which of the formed elements?

A

All 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are pluripotent stem cells?

A

hemopoietic stem cells, where all formed elements begin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is a colony forming unit?

A

specialized stemm cells that only produce one class of formed element

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what is myeloid hemopoiesis?

A

blood formation in the bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is lymphoid hemopoiesis?

A

blood formation in the bone marrow

After infancy this only means Lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the two principle functions of Erythrocytes?

A
  • Carry oxygen from lungs to cell tissues
  • Pick up CO2 from tissues and bring to lungs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Describe the anatomy of erythrocytes

A

Biconcave shape with thick rim

Lose nearly all organelles during development

lack mitochondria

Lack nucleus and DNA

Blood type determined by surface glycoproteins and glycolipids

cytoskeletal proteins give membrane durability and resilience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Each HB molecule is comprised of

A

4 protein chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Adult HB has..

A

2 alpha and 2 beta chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

fetal Hb contains….

A

2 alpha and 2 gamma chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What do globins bind?

A

CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

How many heme groups in hemoglobin?

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Why are erythrocytes and hemmoglobins lower in women?

A
  • Androgens stimulate RBC production
  • periodic menstrual losses
  • Women have more body fat
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is erythopoiesis?

A

RBC production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How many RBC are produced per second?

A

1 million

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the average lifespan of an erythrocyte?

A

120 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

How long does erythropoiesis take?

A

3-5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Erythrocyte colony foming units have receptors for…

A

erythropoietin (EPO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Where is EPO produced

A

Kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the common name for dietary iron (Fe3+)

A

Ferric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the common name for dietary iron (FE2+)

A

Ferrous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is iron metabolism?

A

Absorption of iron in to body to be turned in to hemoglobin and myoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Stomach acid converts Fe3+ to…..

A

Fe2+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

……binds to Fe2+ and transports it to the small intestine

A

Gastroferritin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Iron is absorbed into the blood plasma from the small intestine and binds to…….for transport to bone marrow liver and other tissues

A

transferrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

In the liver, some transferrin releases…….for storage

A

Fe2+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Fe2+ binds to apoferritin to be stored as

A

ferritin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Reamining transferrin is distributed to other organs to make…….

A

Hemoglobin and myoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Why do we need B12 and folic acid have for iron metabolism?

A

Rapid cell division and DNA synthesis that occurs in erythropoiesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Why do we need vitamin C and copper for iron metabolism?

A

Cofactors for enzymes synthesizing hemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What are the stimuli for increasing erythropoiesis

A
  • Low levels O2 (hypoxemia)
  • High altitude
  • increase in exercise
  • Loss of lung tissue in emphysema
    *
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Which type of feedback control is involved in erythrocyte homeostasis?

A

Negative feedback control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is hemolysis?

A

rupturing of RBCs in liver and spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

what is the role of macrophages in the spleen?

A
  • digest membrane bits
  • separate heme from globin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What are the two types of polycythemia?

A

Primary polycythemia (polycythemia vera)

Secondary polycythemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is primary polycythemia?

A

Cancer of the erythropoietic cell line in red bone marrow

RBC count as high as 11 million RBC

Hematocrit 80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is secondary polycythemia?

A

RBC up to 8 million

caused by dehydration, emphysema high altitude or physical conditioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Dangers of polycythemia

A

Increased blood volume

Increased blood pressure

Increased viscosity

Can lead to embolism, stroke or heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Three causes of anemia

A

Inadequate erythropoiesis or hemoglobin synthesis

Hemorrhagic anemia from bleeding

Hemolytic anemia from RBC destruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is pernicious anemia?

A

autoimmune attack of stomach tissue leading to inadequate B12 absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is Hypoplastic anemia?

A

Slowing of erythropoiesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is Aplastic anemia

A

complete cessation of erythropoiesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Three potential consequences of Anemia

A

Tissue hypoxia and necrosis

blood osmolarity is reduced

blood viscosity is low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

what is sickle cell disease?

A

Hereditary defetct in erythrocytes resulting in them becoming sickle shaped

96
Q

What are the effects of sickle cell?

A

Hbs does not bind oxygen well

RBC’s become sticky and rigid

RBCs clump together and blook small blood vessels

97
Q

Blood types are based on interactions between…..

A

Antigens expressed on cell membrane and antibodies in plasma

98
Q

What are antigens?

A

Complex molecules on the surface of RBCs that activate an immune response

Used to distinguish self from foreign bodies

99
Q

what are agglutinogens?

A

antigens on the surface of the RBC tht are the basis for blood typing

100
Q

what are antibodies?

A

Proteins (gamma globulins) secreted by plasma cells

101
Q

What is the function of antibodies?

A

They bind to foreign antigens and mark them for destruction

102
Q

What is an antigen antibody complex?

A

The result of an antibody binding to a foreign antigen

103
Q

What are agglutinins

A

Antibodies in the plasma that bring about transfusion mismatch

105
Q

What is agglutination?

A

Antibody molecule binding to antigens

Causes clumping of RBCs

106
Q

What is another name for antibodies?

A

B cells

Plasma cells

107
Q

RBC antigens A and B are called?

A

Agglutinogens

108
Q

Anti- A and Anti -B are both types of

A

Agglutinins

109
Q

Most common blood type is

110
Q

Rarest blood type is

111
Q

Blood type A has which Agglutinogens (antigens) and which Antibodies (Agglutinins)

A

A antigens

B antibodies

112
Q

Blood type B has which Agglutinogens (antigens) and which Antibodies (Agglutinins)

A

B antigens

Anti-A antibodies

113
Q

Blood type AB has which Agglutinogens (antigens) and which Antibodies (Agglutinins)

A

both A and B antigens

no antibodies

114
Q

Blood type O has which Agglutinogens (antigens) and which Antibodies (Agglutinins)

A

neither antigen

Both Anti A and Anti B antibodies

115
Q

Which is the universal donor and why

A

type O

Because it has no antigens to be detected by antibodies in plasma of recipient

116
Q

Which is the universal recipient blood type and why?

A

AB

because it has no antibodies in the plasma to react to antigens

117
Q

What is a transfusion reaction

A

forming of agglutinins resulting in agglutination of the blood because antibodies in the recipient blood have reacted to antigens in the donor blood

118
Q

What are the possible results of a transfusion reaction?

A

blockage of small blood vessels

renal failure

death

119
Q

what are the Rhesus groups?

120
Q

Which is the most reactive Rhesus group?

121
Q

You are either Rhesus Positive or?

122
Q

A patient is RH+ if they have

A

D antigens (agglutinogens) on the RBC

123
Q

What is hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)?

A

Occurs when a pregnant mother is RH- and fetus is RH+

First pregnancy ok

Second pregnancy problematic because she has developed Anti D antibodies

124
Q

Why would we give a pregnant woman RhoGAM?

A

To prevent her body from creating anti d

125
Q

What are Leukocytes?

A

White blood cells

126
Q

Roughly how many WBCs do we expect to see?

A

5,000 to 10,000

Least abundant formed element

127
Q

Monocytes give rise to what?

A

Macrophages

128
Q

What is a common characteristic of all WBC’s?

A

Conspicuous nucleus

129
Q

Which leukocytes are classifies as granulocytes?

A

Neutrophils

Basophils

Eosinophlis

130
Q

Which leukocytes are classified as agranulocytes?

A

Lymphocytes

Monocytes

131
Q

Where do WBCs migrate to ?

A

Connective tissue

132
Q

Main functions of WBC’s (Leukocytes)

A

Protectagainst infectious microorganisms and other pathogens

133
Q

What is the normal percentage of Neutrophils?

134
Q

What is the normal percentage of Eosinophils?

135
Q

What is the normal percentage of Basophils?

A

less than 1%

136
Q

What is the normal percentage of Lymphocytes?

137
Q

What is the normal percentage of Monocytes?

138
Q

Main function of Neutrophils

A

aggressively antibacterial

responds to bacterial infections

139
Q

Main function of Eosinophils

A

fights parasitic infections

collagen diseases

allergies

disease of spleen and CNS

140
Q

Main functions of basophils

A

fight chickenpox, sinusitis,diabetes

141
Q

main function of Lymphocytes

A

destroy cancer cells

virally infected cells

All kinds of immune responses

B-cells

142
Q

main function of Monocytes

A

Viral infections and inflammation

Also antigen presenting cells (APC)

143
Q

What is Leukopoiesis?

A

Production of white blood cells

144
Q

What are the main categories of leukopoiesis?

A

Pluripotent stem cell

colony forming units

precursor cells

mature cells

146
Q

Put the following in order:

Pluripotent stem cell

eosinophil

Eosinphilic myeloblast

Eosinophilic CFU

Eosinophilic promyelocyte

Eosinophilic myelocyte

A

Pluripotent stem cell

Eosinophilic CFU

Eosinophilic myeloblast

Eosinophilic promyelocyte

Eosinophilic myelocyte

Eosinophil

147
Q

which cell line do NK cells, T- cells and B- cells come from

A

Lymphoblasts/lymphocyte

148
Q

What is Leukopenia?

A

Low WBC count (below 5000)

Elevated risk of infection

149
Q

Possible causes of Leukopenia

A

Radiation

Poisons

infectious disease

150
Q

What is leukocytosis?

A

high WBC above 10,000

151
Q

Possible causes of leukocytosis?

A

Infection, allergy, disease

152
Q

What is a deifferential WBC count?

A

identifies what percentage of the total wbc count consist of each type of cell

153
Q

What is Leukemia?

A

Cancer of hemopoietic tissue ususally producing a very high number of circulating lymphocytes

154
Q

what is Myeloid leukemia?

A

uncontrolled granulocyte production

155
Q

What is lymphoid leukemia?

A

uncontrolley lymphocyte or monocyte production

156
Q

What is Acute leukemia?

A
  • appears suddenly
  • progresses rapidly
  • death within months
157
Q

What is chronic leukemia?

A

can go undetected for months

survival time 3 years

158
Q

Possible effects of Leukemia?

A

normal cell percentages disrupted

impaired clotting

opportunistic infections

159
Q

What is Hemostasis?

A

Cessation of bleeding

160
Q

what are the three mechanisms of hemostasis?

A
  • Vascular spasm
  • platelet plug formation
  • blood clogging (coagulation)
161
Q

Which formed element plasy the most important role in hemostasis?

162
Q

How are platelets formed?

A

Stem cells become megakaryocytes in red bone marrow which break small pieces off to become platelets

163
Q

What is a normal platelet count?

A

130,000-400000

165
Q

What are the functions of platelets?

A

Secrete vasoctonstrictors

form platelet plugs

secrete procoagulants

initiate formation of clot-dissolving enzyme

chemically attract neutrophils and monocytes to sites of inflammation

phagocytize and dissolve bacteria

secrete growth factors that stimulate mitosis to repair blood vessels

166
Q

What is thrombopoiesis?

167
Q

what is vascular spasm?

A

prompt constriction of a broken vessel

mos immediate protection againts blood loss

168
Q

the last and most effective defense against bleeding is?

A

Clotting (Coagulation)

169
Q

What are the two pathways of coagulation?

A

Intrinsic

Extrinsic

170
Q

What is the trigger for the extrinstic coagulation path ?

A

Damaged perivascular tissue

171
Q

What is the trigger for the intrinsic coagulation pathway ?

A

Platelets release Hagemen facctor

172
Q

What are the two clotting factors for the extrinsic coagulation mechanism?

A

Thromboplastin (factor III)

Factor VII

173
Q

Both coagulation pathways merge to activate factor…?

175
Q

What nutrient do both pathways require?

176
Q

What type of feedback loop does coagulation use?

A

Positive feedback loop

Thrombin speeds up activation of prothrmbin activator

177
Q

Clot retraction occurs within …..

A

30 minutes

178
Q

What is fibrinolysis?

A

dissolution of a clot

179
Q

Which enzyme converts plasminogen to plasmin?

A

Kallikrein

180
Q

What is plasmin?

A

a fibrin dissolving enzyme that breaks up the clot

181
Q

Natural anticoagulants

A

Heparin - from mast cells and basophils

Antithrombin (from liver)

182
Q

What is a clotting disorder?

A

Deficiency of any clotting factor that can shut down the coagulation cascade

183
Q

What is Hemophilia?

A

Hereditary clotting disorder

184
Q

Which is the most dramatic Hemophilia

A

Hemophilia A

185
Q

What is a Hematoma?

A

masses of clotted blood in the tissues

186
Q

What is a thrombosis?

A

Abnornal clottin gof an unbroken vessel

187
Q

What is a thrombus?

188
Q

What is a pulmonary embolism?

A

clot that has broken free and travelled to block blood vessels

189
Q

What is an embolus?

A

Anything that can travel in the blood and bloock blood vessels

190
Q

What is an infarction?

A

Tissue death due to blocked vessels

223
Q

what is the structure labelled 5?

Bio 151 (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions