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Microbiology > Ch.15 adaptive immune system > Flashcards

Ch.15 adaptive immune system Flashcards

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1
Q

how is adaptive immunity developed?

A

by exposure to foreign antigens or by vaccination

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2
Q

is adaptive immunity broad or specific?

A

highly specific

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3
Q

what components does adaptive immunity include?

A

cells of mononuclear phagocyte system (macrophages and dendritic cells) and cytokines

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4
Q

why are memory cells important to adaptive immunity?

A

produce strong immune responses upon re-exposure to pathogens

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5
Q

vaccination relies on the abilities of which cells?

A

memory cells

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6
Q

what happens if a person only has adaptive immunity?

A

the adaptive immunity has no chance to be informed of infection, so microbes grow out of control

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7
Q

what happens if a person only has innate immunity?

A

the innate immunity initially helps control the microbial population, but without the intercession of the adaptive immune system, the population will eventually rise

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8
Q

cell-mediated immunity

A

response toward intracellular pathogens

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9
Q

intracellular pathogens

A

microbes that have breached the cell membrane and are already inside the cell

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10
Q

example of intracellular pathogen

A

viruses

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11
Q

humoral immunity

A

attack against extracellular pathogens

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12
Q

extracellular pathogens

A

microbes that are free in the tissues, organs, or bloodstream

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13
Q

steps of adaptive immunity

A
  1. dendritic cells find invaders and present them to naive helper T cells and naive cytotoxic T cells
  2. naive helper T cells and naive cytotoxic T cells become activated
  3. cytotoxic T cells differentiate into active cytotoxic T cells
  4. helper T cells deliver cytokines to activate macrophages to increase killing power and become more phagocytic, and activate naive B cells to begin the humoral immune response
  5. naive B cells differentiate into plasma cells which produce antibodies to bind to free-floating antigens (extracellular pathogens)
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14
Q

what are the 3 steps involved in adaptive immunity?

A
  1. activation of B and T cells
  2. proliferation and differentiation of B and T cells
  3. effector action (action that takes place to elimination infection) and consequence
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15
Q

adaptive immunity involves activity of what type of cell?

A

lymphocytes

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16
Q

what are the 2 main types of lymphocytes?

A

B lymphocytes (B cells) and T lymphocytes (T cells)

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17
Q

where do B cells mature?

A

bone marrow

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18
Q

Where do T cells mature?

A

thymus

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19
Q

what are the 2 types of adaptive immune responses?

A
  1. cell-mediated immune responses
  2. antibody immune responses
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20
Q

primary lymphoid organs

A
  • bone marrow
  • thymus
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21
Q

secondary lymphoid organs

A
  • lymph nodes
  • spleen
  • tonsils
  • MALT
  • SALT
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22
Q

what does MALT stand for?

A

mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue

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23
Q

what does SALT stand for?

A

skin-associated lymphoid tissue

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24
Q

secondary lymphoid organs are the only place where what can occur?

A

where adaptive immune responses can be initiated

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25
Q

where do lymphocytes gather to contact antigens?

A

secondary lymphoid organs

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26
Q

where do hematopoietic stem cells reside and what do they give rise to?

A

bone marrow; all blood cells including lymphocytes

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26
Q

where are mature lymphocytes formed?

A

bone marrow

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27
Q

once B and T cells are mature, where do they gather to wait to encounter an antigen?

A

secondary lymphoid organs

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28
Q

peyer’s patches

A

tissues in intestinal wall that inspect samples on intestinal content

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29
Q

peyer’s patches are part of what secondary lymphoid organ?

A

MALT

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30
Q

MALT plays a crucial role in ____________, preventing _____________

A

mucosal immunity; preventing microbial invasion by mucous membranes

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31
Q

M cells

A

specialized intestinal epithelial cells that transfer material from intestinal lumen to peyer’s patches

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32
Q

antigens

A

molecules that the body recognizes as foreign and worthy of attack

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33
Q

how are antigens recognized?

A

by 3D epitopes on antigens

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34
Q

epitopes

A

certain regions of an antigen molecule that stimulate immune responses

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35
Q

what are the 2 classes on MHC proteins?

A

MHC class 1 and MHC class 2

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36
Q

MHC class 1

A

present on all cells except RBCs

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37
Q

MHC class 2

A
  • present on antigen-presenting cells (APCs)
  • include B cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells
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38
Q

what does MHC stand for?

A

major histocompatibility complex

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39
Q

cytotoxic T cells and helper T cells have numerous copies of what?

A

a surface molecule called T cell receptor

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39
Q

what is the relationship between MHC and antigen-presenting cells?

A

antigens bind in the antigen-binding groove of MHC molecules

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40
Q

cytotoxic T cells

A

destroy host cells that contain viruses

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41
Q

helper T cells

A

direct and assist various responses of humoral and cell-mediated immunity

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42
Q

T cell receptor

A

binds to specific antigens presented by dendritic cells or antigen-presenting cells

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43
Q

will T cell receptors bind to free floating antigens? why or why not?

A

no because it is a part of cell-mediated immunity, which is about attacking an intracellular pathogen)

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44
Q

are T cells part of cell-mediated or humoral immunity?

A

cell-mediated

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45
Q

T cell activation steps

A
  1. recognition of presented antigen
  2. stimulatory signals secreted from APC
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46
Q

APC

A

antigen-presenting cell

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47
Q

how are cytotoxic T cells and helper T cells different physically?

A

they have different CD markers

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48
Q

once infected, what do cytotoxic T lymphocytes do in cell-mediated immunity?

A
  • tells infected “self” cells to go through apoptosis
  • some cells with become memory CTLs and remain in secondary lymphoid organs in case the antigen presents again
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49
Q

once infected, what do T helper cells do in cell-mediated immunity?

A
  • produce cytokines that activate B cells and macrophages
  • some cells become memory T helper cells that will remember those specific antigens
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50
Q

T regulator cells

A

suppress immune activation from overreacting and responding to harmless substances

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51
Q

function of B cells in humoral immunity

A

have numerous copies of a B cell receptor on their cytoplasmic membrane and are activated and divide upon antigen recognition

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52
Q

B cells include:

A

plasma cells and memory cells

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53
Q

plasma cells

A

activated B cells that produce antibodies

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54
Q

B cell receptor

A

membrane-bound version of antibody (free floating antigen) that the B cell is genetically programmed to make

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55
Q

what happens when a naive B cell encounters an antigen that its B cell receptor can combine with?

A

an interaction signals the B cell to respond

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56
Q

what must occur for a B cell to be activated?

A
  1. B cell encounters an antigen that its B cell receptor can bind to
  2. T helper cell gives a 2nd signal that the antigen should be eliminated
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57
Q

what occurs once a B cell is activated?

A

the B cell proliferates and differentiates into plasma cells (which produce antibodies) and memory cells (which respond quickly upon re-exposure of the same antigen)

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58
Q

steps for clonal selection and expansion of lymphocytes

A
  1. immature lymphocytes in bone marrow
  2. naive lymphocytes form when immature lymphocytes matures and is moved to secondary lymphoid organ
  3. activated lymphocytes occurs when the cell comes into contact with the epitope it is programmed to respond to
  4. effector lymphocytes/memory lymphocytes
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59
Q

at what point are lymphocytes programmed to recognize specific epitopes on specific antigens?

A

when they are moved to secondary lymphoid organ

60
Q

activation of lymphocytes involves what?

A

coming into contact with an antigen and being signaled by a helper T cell

61
Q

what process are effector lymphocytes and memory lymphocytes formed from?

A

clonal selection and expansion

62
Q

what do effector lymphocytes do?

A

produce antibodies

63
Q

what do memory lymphocytes do?

A

stay in the body and produce a quick, strong response to the second exposure of the same antigen

64
Q

what causes clonal selection and expansion in B and T cells?

A

when an antigen and antibody are bound

65
Q

clonal selection occurs in ___________ (primary/secondary) response to antigen

A

primary

66
Q

which types of cells does clonal selection apply to?

A

both T and B cells

67
Q

one antigen has ___ (#) B and T cell(s)

A

1

68
Q

antibodies produced by plasma cells upon first exposure are what shape?

A

pentamer

69
Q

which immunoglobulin is the first produced in primary response?

A

IgM

70
Q

what occurs once IgM antibodies are produced in primary response? what is this process called?

A

T4 cells can send cytokines to induce some of the activated B cells to switch their genetic program and differentiate into plasma cells which can secrete other classes of antibodies (IgG or IgA); class-switching

71
Q

class-switching

A

once IgM antibodies are produced in primary response, T4 cells can send cytokines to induce some of the activated B cells to switch their genetic program and differentiate into plasma cells which can secrete other classes of antibodies (IgG and IgA)

72
Q

what antibody is normally produced in the lymph node?

A

IgG

73
Q

what occurs in secondary response to an antigen?

A

the antigen is detected by memory cells, which quickly differentiate to form plasma cells which rapidly produce antibodies

74
Q

what antibodies are produced in secondary response and where?

A

IgG in lymph nodes
IgA in MALT

75
Q

steps of clonal expansion by a B cell

A
  1. B cell receptor binds to antigen
  2. B cell internalizes antigen through endocytosis
  3. B cell degrades antigen into peptide fragments
  4. peptide fragments are presented on MHC class II molecules
    5a. if a microbial antigen is presented, the T helper cell recognizes the antigen fragment and delivers cytokines to a activate B cell
    5b. if a harmless antigen is presented, the T helper cell does not recognize the antigen fragment and the B cell becomes anergic
76
Q

antibodies

A

Y-shaped proteins

77
Q

what is the purpose of having T helper cells?

A

acts as a safety mechanism to ensure the body responds to antigens in an appropriate way

78
Q

what are the 2 general parts of antibodies?

A

arms and stem

79
Q

enzymatic digestion of antibodies yield ______ types of fragments

A

2

80
Q

what are the fragments that are yielded by enzymatic digestion of antibodies?

A
  1. Fab (antigen-binding fragment): binds antigen
  2. Fc: crystallized fragment
81
Q

what are antibodies made up of?

A

2 identical heavy chains and 2 light chains

82
Q

what are the regions of an antibody?

A

variable region and constant region

83
Q

variable region of antibody

A

includes area where antigens bind with antibody molecules and contains antigen binding site; has high level of variability (different for every type of antibody)

84
Q

constant region of antibody

A

includes Fc region and part of the 2 Fab regions; very consistent and can be recognized by many different components and interact with proteins of the complement system

85
Q

what is Fc region recognized by?

A

Fc receptors on macrophages

86
Q

where on the antigen do antibodies bind to?

A

epitopes/antigenic determinants

87
Q

what are the 6 possible protective outcomes that antibodies may accomplish when they bind to a specific antigen?

A
  1. neutralization
  2. opsonization
  3. complement system activation
  4. immobilization and prevention of adherence
  5. cross-linking
  6. antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC)
88
Q

neutralization

A

antibodies bind to specific viruses and toxins; once coated with antibodies, these viruses and toxins can no longer attach to host cell

89
Q

opsonization

A

antibodies attach so that phagocytic cells recognize antigen, making phagocytosis easier

90
Q

complement system activation

A

multiple molecules of an antibody binds to antigen and causes complement proteins to attach to side-by-side Fc receptors of the antibody, activating the complement cascade and leading to opsonization by C3b, inflammatory response, and lysis and foreign cells

91
Q

immobilization and prevention of adherence

A

antibodies bind to flagellum or pilli to prevent movement and adherence

92
Q

cross-linking

A

ends of 2 arms of an antibody molecule can bind to separate but identical antigens; several antibodies work together to bind antigens on bacteria in this way, causing clumping and making it a target for phagocytosis

93
Q

antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity

A

IgG binds to virally-infected cell or tumor cell and the antibody serves as a marker for natural killer cells, which attach and kill the marked cell

94
Q

what do natural killer cells release when activated?

A

cytokines

95
Q

what cells do natural killer cells kill?

A
  • cells that lack MHC I (virus infected and certain tumor cells)
  • have Fc for IgG and kill cells coated with IgG (antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity)
96
Q

what are the 5 antibody classes?

A

IgG
IgA
IgM
IgE
IgD

97
Q

what is the first antibody class produced during a primary response to an antigen?

A

IgM

98
Q

which antibody class is the principal class produced in response to some T-independent antigens?

A

IgM

99
Q

T-independent antigens

A

antigens that don’t require B cells to receive a signal from a T helper cell to become activated and mount a response

100
Q

IgM makes up what percentage of circulating antibodies?

A

5-13%

100
Q

example of T-independent antigen

A

lipopolysaccharide

101
Q

what structure is IgM?

A

pentamer

102
Q

pentamer structure

A

5 monomeric subunits giving 10 antigen-binding sites

103
Q

why is the pentamer structure of the IgM antibody appropriate for cross-linking?

A

it aggregates very effectively

104
Q

IgM’s large size prevents ___________

A

crossing from the bloodstream to tissues

105
Q

which antibody plays the primary role in bloodstream infections and why?

A

IgM because it cannot cross from the bloodstream to the tissues

106
Q

IgM is the most effective antibody class for __________

A

triggering the classical pathway of complement system

107
Q

IgG makes up what percentage of serum immunoglobulins?

A

80-85%

108
Q

what is the most commonly found immunoglobulin in serum?

A

IgG

109
Q

T/F: IgG exits bloodstream to enter tissues

A

True

110
Q

which antibody provides the longest-term protection?

A

IgG

111
Q

what is the longest living antibody?

A

IgG

112
Q

which antibody is the first and most abundant circulating class produced during secondary response?

A

IgG

113
Q

IgG antibodies protect through what mechanisms?

A
  • neutralization
  • aggregation
  • opsonization
  • complement
  • activation
    antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity
114
Q

which antibody is transported across placenta to fetus’s bloodstream?

A

IgG

115
Q

which antibodies are babies born with?

A

IgG and IgM

116
Q

secretory IgA

A

dimer IgA

117
Q

what is IgA important for?

A

mucosal immunity

118
Q

where does IgA mostly form?

A

mucous membranes

119
Q

what areas of the body needs mucosal immunity?

A
  • GI, genitourinary, and respiratory tracts
  • secretions including saliva, tears, and breast milk
120
Q

IgA protects breast-fed infants against what?

A

intestinal pathogens

121
Q

what mechanisms are used by IgA to protect?

A
  • neutralizing toxins and viruses
  • interfering with attachment of microbes to host cells
122
Q

what produces IgA?

A

plasma cells of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue

123
Q

secretory component of IgA

A

attaches antibody to mucous

124
Q

what is the most abundant immunoglobulin class produced?

A

IgA

125
Q

IgD

A

involved with development an maturation of antibody response

126
Q

what percentage of IgD makes up all serum immunoglobulins?

A

1%

127
Q

what is IgE bound to?

A

membranes of basophils and mast cells which use IgE to detect antigens

128
Q

what happens when IgE is activated by an antigen binding to 2 adjacent IgE molecules carried by mast cells?

A

cell releases histamine and other inflammatory mediators

129
Q

what is IgE important for eliminating?

A

parasitic worms

130
Q

basophils and mast cells release chemicals when IgE binds to _________

A
  • normally harmless foods
  • dust
  • pollen
131
Q

what is the body’s response to IgE binding to things?

A

chemicals are released, causing coughing, sneezing, and swelling

132
Q

function of IgD

A

serves as an antigen receptor for initiating the differentiation of B cells

133
Q

what is IgE bound to?

A

basophils and mast cells

134
Q

functions of IgE

A
  • inflammation
  • allergic responses
  • combating parasitic infections
135
Q

which is the first antibody produced in primary response to an antigen?

A

IgM

136
Q

which is the largest immunoglobulin?

A

IgM

137
Q

what does IgM present in newborns indicate?

A

an in-utero or newborn infection

138
Q

which is the first immunoglobulin made by a newborn?

A

IgM

139
Q

which immunoglobulin is the first circulating immunoglobulin to appear in response to an antigen?

A

IgM

140
Q

function of IgA

A

prevents attachment of viruses and bacteria to epithelial cells

141
Q

which immunoglobulin acts as the primary defense against local infections in mucosal tissue?

A

IgA

142
Q

where is IgA found?

A
  • saliva
  • tears
  • breast milk
  • bronchial, gastrointestinal, prostatic, and vaginal secretions
143
Q

functions of IgG

A
  • protects against bacteria, toxins, and viruses in body fluids
  • activates complement system
144
Q

which immunoglobulin crosses the placenta and transfers immunity from mother to fetus?

A

IgG

145
Q

where is IgG present?

A

body fluids

146
Q

which is the most abundant immunoglobulin?

A

IgG

147
Q

what are the 3 lines of defense of the immune system?

A
  1. skin, mucous membranes, enzymes, natural flora on the skin and in the GI tract
  2. innate immunity: phagocytes, natural killer T cells, granulocytes, complement proteins, macrophages
  3. acquired immunity: antibodies, B and T lymphocytes
148
Q

What is the endogenous process?

A
149
Q

What is the exogenous process?

A

Microbiology (15 decks)

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