Ch.14 Innate Immunity Flashcards

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1
Q

What are first line defenses?

prevent entry

A
  • skin and mucus membranes
  • antimicrobial substances
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2
Q

What are sensor systems?

detect invaders

A
  • pattern recognition receptors (PRRs)
  • complement system

detect damage and microbial invasion

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3
Q

What are innate effector actions?

eliminate threat/ invader

A
  • interferon response
  • phagocytosis
  • complement activation
  • inflammatory response
  • fever
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4
Q

What is dermis?

A

tightly woven fibrous connective tissue

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5
Q

What is epidermis?

A

many layers of epithelial cells
* outermost are dead and filled with keratin
* repels water
* continually flake off
* epidermal dendritic cells phagocytize pathogens

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6
Q

True or False

Salt inhibits growth of pathogens

A

True

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7
Q

True or False

Antimicrobial peptides (defensins) form pores in microbial membranes

A

true

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8
Q

True or False

Lysozyme destroys cell wall of bacteria

A

True

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9
Q

True or False

Sebum secreted by sebaceous oil glands help keep skin pliable and lowers skin pH

A

True

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10
Q

Where are mucous membranes in the body?

A

respiratory, digestice, urinary, and reproductive tracts

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11
Q

True or False

Goblet and ciliated columnar cells help remove invaders

A

True

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12
Q

True or False

Epithelial cells are living and single layered

A

True

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13
Q

True or False

Peristalsis of intestines remove microbes

A

True

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14
Q

where are lysozymes found?

A

tears, saliva, mucus

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15
Q

Where are antimicrobial peptides present?

A

mucus

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16
Q

Where are peroxidases present?

A
  • saliva
  • breast milk
  • tissue fluids
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17
Q

Where is lactoferrin present?

A

saliva, mucus, breast milk, and some phagocytes. This is an iron binding protein

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18
Q

What is microbial antagonism?

A

members of the microbiome make it hard for pathogens to compete
* consumption of nutrients
* create unfavorable environments to other microbes
* prevent pathogens from attaching to host cells
* provide vitamins to host

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19
Q

What is the function of first-line defenses?

A

prevent microbial entry

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20
Q

What is the function of sensor systems?

A

detect damage and microbial invasion

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21
Q

What is the function of innate effector actions?

A

eliminate invader

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22
Q

Is the skin easy or difficult for microbes to penetrate?

A

difficult

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23
Q

what are the outermost epithelial cells of the epidermis characterized by?

A

dead and filled with keratin with repels water and maintains a dry environment

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24
Q

what part of the epidermis phagocytize pathogens?

A

epidermal dendritic cells

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25
Q

what role does skin play in innate immunity?

A

skin has chemicals that defend against pathogens

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26
Q

what chemicals does the skin use to defend against pathogens?

A
  • salt
  • antimicrobial peptides
  • lysozymes
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27
Q

role of salt as an antimicrobial substance

A

inhibits growth of pathogens

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28
Q

role of antimicrobial peptides (defensins) as antimicrobial substance

A

forms pores in microbial membranes

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29
Q

role of lysozyme as antimicrobial substance

A

destroys cell wall of bacteria

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30
Q

What do mucous membranes line?

A

body cavities open to the environment

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31
Q

what do goblet cells and ciliated columnar cells in the epidermis do?

A

help remove invaders

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32
Q

peroxidases

A

part of systems that form antimicrobial compounds

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33
Q

what methods does microbial antagonism use to make it difficult for pathogens to compete?

A
  • consumption of nutrients
  • create environment unfavorable to other microbes
  • prevent pathogens from attaching to host cells
  • help stimulate the body’s second line of defense
  • generate antimicrobial compounds
  • promote overall health by providing vitamins to host
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34
Q

disruption of microbiome with antibiotics leads to what?

A

infections

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35
Q

when does the body’s second line of defense operate?

A

when pathogens penetrate the skin or mucous membranes

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36
Q

what is the body’s second line of defense composed of?

A
  • cells
  • antimicrobial chemicals
  • processes
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37
Q

many of the components of the second line of defense are contained in or originate in ________

A

blood

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38
Q

neutrophils consist of what percentage of circulating WBCs?

A

50%

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39
Q

types of granulocytes

A
  • neutrophils
  • basophils
  • eosinophils
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40
Q

what is the first granulocyte recruited?

A

neutrophils

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41
Q

what do basophils cause?

A

release of histamine which causes an allergic response

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42
Q

which granulocyte is released to fight ectoparasites?

A

basophils

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43
Q

what are eosinophils used for?

A

parasite defense and allergic response

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44
Q

what do eosinophils release? what does this do?

A

histamines, which breaks down histamine

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45
Q

what do granulocytes contain?

A

granules with active chemicals

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46
Q

how do neutrophils kill bacteria?

A

phagocytosis

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47
Q

what do the granules of basophils contain and what do they do?

A

histamine and other chemicals that increase capillary permeability during inflammation

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48
Q

what are basophils involved in?

A

allergic reactions and inflammation

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49
Q

what do granules of eosinophils contain?

A

antimicrobial substances and histaminase

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50
Q

lifespan of a neutrophil

A

1-2 days

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51
Q

neutrophil extracellular traps

A

A network of chromatin (DNA) fibers formed from dead neutrophils that binds microbes inhibiting colonization

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52
Q

when do monocytes differentiate into macrophages?

A

upon migration into tissue

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53
Q

where are monocytes found?

A

circulating blood

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54
Q

function of macrophages

A

sentinel; tissue specific phagocytes

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55
Q

specific types of macrophages

A
  • microglia
  • kupffer cells
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56
Q

what types of tissues contain macrophages?

A

almost all tissue types

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57
Q

function of dendritic cells

A

bring material to adaptive immune system for inspection

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58
Q

dendritic cells

A

specialized WBCs that act as a bridge between innate and adaptive immunity

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59
Q

function of lymphocytes

A

produce antibodies

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60
Q

types of lymphocytes

A
  • T cells
  • B cells
  • innate lymphoid cells (natural killer cells)
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61
Q

how do innate lymphoid cells differ from T and B cells?

A

ILCs have a similar function to T/B cells but lack specificity of antigen recognition

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62
Q

cell communication allows _________

A

coordinated response

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63
Q

surface receptors

A

serve as the eyes and ears of the cell

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64
Q

where are surface receptors found?

A

span the membrane and connect outside to inside

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65
Q

what induces a response from surface receptors?

A

binding to specific ligand

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66
Q

cytokines

A

chemicals that are produced by cells, diffuse to others, and bind to appropriate receptors to induce changes

67
Q

what changes can cytokines induce?

A

cytokines induce?
- growth
- differentiation
- movement
- cell death

68
Q

function of cytokines

A

voices of the cell

69
Q

do cytokines act at a low or high concentration?

A

low

70
Q

adhesion molecules

A

allow cells to adhere to other cells

71
Q

example of adhesion molecules

A

endothelial cells can adhere to phagocytic cells and allow them to exit the bloodstream

72
Q

pattern recognition receptors

A

see signs of microbial invasion and lead to cytokine secretion

73
Q

what do pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) detect?

A

microbe-associated molecular patterns (MAMPs)

74
Q

what do microbe-associated molecular patterns include?

A
  • cell wall components (peptidoglycan, lipoteichoic acid, lipopolysaccharide, lipoproteins)
  • flagellin subunits
  • microbial nucleic acid
75
Q

PAMPs are ____________-associated, but not exclusive to ____________

A

pathogen; pathogens

76
Q

damage-associated molecular patterns (DAMPs)

A

indicate cell damage

77
Q

where are pattern recognition receptors located?

A
  • cell surface
  • in endosomes and phagosomes
  • free in cytoplasm
78
Q

what do PRRs on the cell surface detect?

A

microbial components present in the cell’s surroundings

79
Q

what do PRRs in phagosomes and endosomes detect?

A

components of microbes ingested by the cell

80
Q

what do PRRs in the cytoplasm detect?

A

cell damage as well as microbial components in the cell’s cytoplasm

81
Q

T/F: phagocytes always have pattern recognition receptors

A

T

82
Q

where are toll-like receptors found?

A

anchored in membranes of sentinel cells

83
Q

what do surface TLRs do?

A

monitor extracellular environment

84
Q

what do TLRs in phagosomal or endosomal membranes of organelles characterize?

A

ingested material

85
Q

TLRs are specific for what?

A

distinct MAMPs

86
Q

dendritic cells have both TLRs and _______

A

CLRs (C-type lectin receptors)

87
Q

RIG-like receptors (RLRs)

A

detect viral RNA (often double stranded)

88
Q

where are RIG-like receptors found?

A

cytoplasm

89
Q

NOD-like receptors (NLRs)

A

detect microbial components of cell damage

90
Q

where are NOD-like receptors found?

A

cytoplasm

91
Q

NLRs in macrophages or dendritic cells combine with other proteins to form _________

A

inflammasome

92
Q

interferon response

A
  1. PRRs detect viral DNA; cell produces interferon (IFN)
  2. IFN causes neighboring cells to express inactive antiviral proteins (iAVPs)
  3. iAVPs activated by viral dsRNA
  4. mRNA is degraded, protein synthesis stops, and infected cells undergo apoptosis
93
Q

types of cytokines

A
  • chemokines
  • colony-stimulating factors
  • interferons
  • interleukins
  • tumor necrosis factor
94
Q

chemokine function

A

chemotaxis of immune cells

95
Q

colony-stimulating factors function

A

multiplication and differentiation of leukocytes

96
Q

interferons function

A

control of viral infections and regulation of immune responses

97
Q

interleukins function

A

important in innate and adaptive immunity

98
Q

what produces interleukins?

A

leukocytes

99
Q

tumor necrosis factor function

A

causes inflammation and apoptosis of tumor cells

100
Q

do cytokines act alone or in groups?

A

in groups or in sequence to generate a response

101
Q

what are adhesion molecules needed for?

A

to leave circulation and enter tissue

102
Q

complement system

A

proteins in the blood that help antibodies kill their target and complements activities of adaptive immune system

103
Q

what proteins are involved in the complement system?

A

C1 through C9

104
Q

the complement system is activated by how many different pathways?

A

three

105
Q

what does the activation of the complement system lead to?

A

formation of C3 convertase, which splits C3

106
Q

what are the 3 pathways of activation for the complement system?

A
  1. alternative pathway
  2. lectin pathway
  3. classical pathway
107
Q

alternative pathway of complement system

A

triggered when C3b binds to foreign cell surfaces (C3 is unstable, so some C3b always present)

108
Q

lectin pathway of complement system

A

pattern recognition molecules (mannose-binding lectins or MBLs) bind to mannose of microbial cells and interact with complement system components

109
Q

classical pathway of complement system

A

activated by antibodies bound to antigen, which interact with complement system

110
Q

activation of the complement system produces what 3 major outcomes?

A
  1. opsonization
  2. inflammatory response
  3. lysis of foreign cells
111
Q

opsonization

A

coating antigen with antibody enhances phagocytosis

112
Q

how does activation of the complement system cause opsonization?

A

C3b binds to bacterial cells and foreign particles, promoting engulfment by phagocytes that attach to opsonins like C3b

113
Q

how does activation of the complement system cause inflammatory response?

A

C5a attracts phagocytes to area; C3a and C5a increase permeability of blood vessels, inducing mast cells to release cytokines

114
Q

how does activation of the complement system cause lysis of feign cells?

A

membrane attach complexes (MACs) formed by proteins C5b, C6, C7, C8, and C9 molecules assembling in cell membranes of Gram-negatives

115
Q

what does regulation of the complement system prevent?

A

prevents host cells from activating the complement system

116
Q

how does regulation prevent host cells from activating complement system?

A

molecules in host cell membranes bind regulatory proteins that inactivate C3b, preventing opsonization or triggering of alternative pathway

117
Q

phagocytosis

A

phagocytes engulf and digest material and pathogens

118
Q

What cells go through phagocytosis?

A

neutrophils, dendritic cells, and macrophages

119
Q

chemotaxis

A

phagocytes recruited by chemoattractants

120
Q

chemoattractants

A

products of microorganisms, phospholipids from injured host cells, chemokine, C5a

121
Q

steps of phagocytosis

A
  1. chemotaxis
  2. recognition and attachment
  3. engulfment
  4. phagosome maturation and phagolysosome formation
  5. destruction and digestion
  6. exocytosis
122
Q

recognition and attachment step of phagocytosis

A

direct (receptors bind mannose) and indirect (binding to opsonins)

123
Q

engulfment in phagocytosis

A

pseudopods surround and form phagosome

124
Q

phagosome maturation and phagolysosome formation in phagocytosis

A

directed by TLRs; fuse with lysosomes containing enzymes

125
Q

destruction and digestion in phagocytosis

A

toxic ROS and nitric oxide produced; pH decreases; enzyme degrade; peptides damage membrane of invader; lactoferrin binds iron

126
Q

exocytosis in phagocytosis

A

vesicle fuses with cytoplasmic membrane, expels remains

127
Q

what do macrophages do?

A

phagocytize dead cells and debris and destroy invaders

128
Q

how long do macrophages live?

A

weeks or month

129
Q

what do macrophages regenerate?

A

lysosomes

130
Q

macrophages are always present where?

A

in tissues

131
Q

what are macrophages replaced by?

A

monocytes

132
Q

activated macrophages are a response to what?

A

cytokines

133
Q

M1 macrophages vs M2 macrophages

A
  • M1 macrophages have greater killing power
  • M2 macrophages lessen inflammation
134
Q

if activated macrophages are insufficient, they can fuse to form ___________

A

giant cells

135
Q

granulomas

A

walled-off organisms or material-resistant to destruction which prevent escape but interfere with normal tissue function

136
Q

granulomas cause what types of disease?

A

tuberculosis, etc.

137
Q

what makes up granulomas?

A
  • macrophages
  • giant cells
  • T cells
138
Q

why are macrophages important sentinel cells?

A

they alert other immune cells

139
Q

what causes inflammation?

A

infection or tissue damage

140
Q

purpose of inflammation

A

contain site of damage, localize response, eliminate invader, and restore tissue function

141
Q

what does inflammation result in?

A
  • swelling
  • redness
  • heat
  • pain
  • sometimes loss of function
142
Q

what causes PRRs to trigger?

A

detection of MAMPs and DAMPs

143
Q

what occurs after PRRs are triggered?

A

host cells release inflammatory mediators (cytokines and histamine)

144
Q

inducers of inflammation

A

microbes, tissue damage

145
Q

MAMPs causes the release of what? what does this do?

A

tumor necrosis factor (TNF) which induces the liver to produce acute phase proteins that activate complement

146
Q

blood vessel damage starts what? what does this lead to?

A

2 enzymatic cascades, leading to coagulation and increased vessel permeability

147
Q

inflammatory process steps

A
  1. dilation of small vessels
  2. migration of leukocytes from bloodstream to tissues
  3. clotting factors wall off site of infection
  4. dead neutrophils and tissue debris accumulate as pus
148
Q

why does the inflammatory process cause dilation of small blood vessels?

A
  • greater blood flow (heat and redness); slower flow rate
  • leakage of fluids (swelling, pain)
  • fluids contain transferrin, complement, and antibodies
149
Q

what occurs when leukocytes migrate from bloodstream to tissues in inflammatory process?

A
  • endothelial cells “grab” phagocytes and slow them down
  • phagocytes squeeze between cells of vessel (diapedesis)
150
Q

purpose of clotting factors walling off site of infection in inflammatory process

A

prevents bleeding and stops the spread of microbes

151
Q

inflammatory response prevents ________ but damages ___________

A

spread; tissues

152
Q

which part of the inflammatory response causes damage to tissues?

A

enzymes and toxic compounds released from phagocytic cells

153
Q

necrosis

A

traumatic cell death due to damage

154
Q

apoptossi

A

programmed cell death; does not trigger inflammatory response

155
Q

pyroptosis

A

PRRs in a macrophage trigger an inflammatory response that sacrifices infected cells

156
Q

why does fever occur with infection?

A
  • temperature-regulation center in the brain normally holds at 37ºC, but raises during infection in response to pyrogens
  • growth rates of bacteria optimized for 37ºC typically drop sharply above optimum, allowing more time for defenses
  • moderate temperature rise increases rates of enzymes
157
Q

what oral temperature is considered a fever?

A

> 37.8ºC

158
Q

what are pyrogens made by?

A

the body or microbes

159
Q

what does temperature rise do for the body during infection?

A
  • enhances inflammatory response
  • phagocytic activity
  • multiplication of lymphocytes
  • release of attractants for neutrophils
  • production of interferons and antibodies
  • release of leukocytes from bone marrow
160
Q

How is Inflammation caused?

A

dilutes and leaks fluids from vascular system

161
Q

classical pathway of complement system

A

activated by antigen-antibody complex

162
Q

alternative pathway of complement system

A

is activated on microbial cell surfaces in the absence of antibodies and is a component of innate immunity

163
Q

lectin pathway of complement system

A

activitaed by a plasma lectin that binds to mannose on microbes & activates the classical system pathway in the absence of antibody

164
Q

what are the 3 lines of defense of the immune system?

A
  1. skin, mucous membranes, enzymes, natural flora on the skin and in the GI tract
  2. innate immunity: phagocytes, natural killer T cells, granulocytes, complement proteins, macrophages
  3. acquired immunity: antibodies, B and T lymphocytes