Ch 7 - Flexibility Training Concepts Flashcards

1
Q

During the overhead squat assessment a clients knees move inward. Which of the following strengthening exercises is MOST appropriate to correct this movement impairment?

A

Tube walking

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2
Q

Which term represents the ability of the neuromuscular system to allow all muscles to work synergistically?

A

Neuromuscular efficiency

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3
Q

What term describes the act of synergists taking over function for a weak or inhibited prime mover?

A

Synergistic dominance

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4
Q

When performing an active kneeling hip flexor stretch, internally rotating the rear leg will place a greater stretch on which of the following muscles?

A

Psoas

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5
Q

A client is currently training in the Hypertrophy Phase of the OPT model. Which phase of the flexibility continuum would be the most appropriate?

A

Active

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6
Q

What is designed to increase joint range of motion (ROM), improve muscle imbalances, and correct altered joint motion, and is used in Phase 1 of the OPT model?

A

Corrective flexibility

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7
Q

What is the process of passively taking a muscle to the point of tension and holding the stretch for a minimum of 30 seconds?

A

Static stretching

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8
Q

What are predictable patterns of muscle imbalanced called?

A

Postural distortion patterns

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9
Q

Which term is defined as the normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allow the full range of motion of a joint?

A

Flexibility

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10
Q

Which of the following is true about dynamic stretching?

A

It should be performed at a controlled speed.

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11
Q

Which term refers to the capability of soft tissues to be elongated or stretched?

A

Extensibility

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12
Q

During a 40-yard dash, the hamstring complex begins to do most of the work for a weakened gluteus maximus. Which of the following best describes this action?

A

Synergistic dominance

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13
Q

Contracting the glutes while performing a static standing TFL stretch will cause which of the following effects?

A

Reciprocal inhibition of the TFL

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14
Q

Which of the following describes the tendency of the body to seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns?

A

Relative flexibility

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15
Q

Ryan is performing static stretching on a client’s calves after an overhead squat assessment. Which of the following is most likely to have prompted him to perform this procedure?

A

Clients feet were turned out

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16
Q

How long does pressure need to be held on the tender spot while using self-myofascial release?

A

30 seconds minimum

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17
Q

In which of the following cases should a static stretch be performed?

A

When overactive muscles have been identified

18
Q

Practicing self-myofascial release through the use of a foam roller creates autogenic inhibition by which of the following?

A

Stimulating the Golgi tendon organ

19
Q

Which of the following exercises is also a dynamic stretch?

A

Single-leg squat touchdown

20
Q

Which of the following is appropriate at the Stabilization Level (Phase 1) of the OPT model?

A

Corrective flexibility

21
Q

When performing self-myofascial release of the adductors, the focus should be on foam rolling what location on the body?

A

The groin region inside the upper thigh

22
Q

Dynamic stretching uses which of the following concepts to improve soft tissue extensibility?

A

Reciprocal inhibition

23
Q

When performing the static latissimus dorsi ball stretch, which of the following is a correct body position?

A

Posteriorly rotated pelvis

24
Q

Daniel is foam-rolling the piriformis after a workout. Which of the following steps should he take when he encounters a tender spot?

A

Hold the spot for 30 seconds.

25
What term refers to the simultaneous contraction of one muscle and the relaxation of its antagonist?
Reciprocal inhibition
26
The active supine biceps femoris stretch uses which physiological principle to increase flexibility?
Reciprocal inhibition
27
What is used to increase the extensibility of soft tissues through both autogenic inhibition and reciprocal inhibition?
Static Stretching
28
Dynamic stretching improves soft tissue extensibility by using which of the following?
Reciprocal inhibition
29
Holding a static stretch for at least 30 seconds causes which of the following neuromuscular phenomena?
Autogenic inhibition
30
During a static postural assessment, a personal trainer observes that a client has pronated feet, as well as adducted and internally rotated knees. Which muscles would he or she expect to be shortened?
Adductors
31
Which of the following is appropriate at the Stabilization Level (Phase 1) of the OPT model?
Active flexibility
32
What is the phenomenon called when prolonged Golgi tendon organ stimulation provides an inhibitory action to muscle spindles?
Autogenic inhibition
33
When performing a squat, an overactive hip flexor complex can decrease neural drive to the gluteus maximus; which is an example of?
Altered reciprocal inhibition
34
In addition to SMR, which flexibility technique is used for corrective flexibility?
Static stretching
35
Which form of stretching should be used to inhibit muscle spindle activity of a tight muscle before and after physical activity?
Static stretching
36
A client is placing pressure on his calf musculature using a foam roll. Which of the following stretching techniques is the client using?
Self-myofascial release
37
What is caused by a tight agonist muscle decreasing the neural drive to its functional antagonist?
Altered reciprocal inhibition
38
Which of the following concepts is demonstrated when a tight psoas decreases the neural drive of the gluteus maximus?
Altered reciprocal inhibition
39
Alan is utilizing self-myofascial release for his corrective flexibility protocols. Where should the foam roll be placed for the latissimus dorsi?
under the arm
40
Which form of stretching should be used to inhibit muscle spindle activity of a tight muscle before and after physical activity?
Static stretching