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Private Pilot > Ch. 6: Cross Country Flight Planning > Flashcards

Ch. 6: Cross Country Flight Planning Flashcards

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1
Q

What frequencies does VOR operate on?

A

108.0 thru 117.95

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2
Q

What is a VOR radial?

A

Magnetic bearing extending from a VOR. Projects 360 radials from the station. Radials determined by their direction from the station

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3
Q

How are VOR NAVAIDS classified?

A

Terminal, low, and high

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4
Q

VOR reception distances?

A

Terminal - 12,000’ and below: 25 miles

Low - Below 18,000’: 40 miles

High - 14,500’ +: 100+ miles

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5
Q

3 functional elements of GPS

A

Space - Satellites
Control - ground based GPA monitoring for accuracy
User - Antennas and receivers on AC

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6
Q

Checking Accuracy of VOR

A 
VOT Check
Ground Checkpoint
Airbourne Checkpoint
Dual VOR Check
Selected radial over a known ground point
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7
Q

Purpose of RAIM

A

Self-monitoring function performed by GPS receiver

Ensures adequate GPS signal received

Availability can be obtained through FSS, manufacturer tool, or FAA SAPT

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8
Q

What is WAAS?

A

Wide Area Augmentation System

Ground/Satellite error correction system

Extremely accurate GPS

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9
Q

GPS Limitations

A

RAIM capability - Many don’t have RAIM. Pilot will not be aware of loss of satellites

Database currency

Antenna location

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10
Q

VFR Waypoints

A

Used as an supplementary tool to navigation. Assists with position awareness. Only used when flying VFR

Help when pilots are unfamiliar with the area, enhanced nav in class b and c, positive ID of reporting points

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11
Q

VHF Frequencies

A

118.0 thru 136.975

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12
Q

Ground Control Frequencies

A

TYPICALLY 121.6 thru 121.9

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13
Q

Heavy Lined Blue Box Around NAVAID

A

FSS frequencies 121.5, 122.2, 243.0, and 255.4 available

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14
Q

Thin Lined Blue Box

A

No standard FSS frequencies available

“R” indicates FSS is receive only

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15
Q

Max airspeed below 10,000’

A

250 Knots

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16
Q

If radio comms are lost in flight under VFR while operating into a tower controlled airport, what conditions must be met before landing?

A

Must have basic VFR Wx minimums

Visual contact must be maintained with tower

Clearance to land received

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17
Q

Where is aerobatic flight prohibited?

A 
Over a congested area
Over open air assembly
Less than 1,500' AGL
Less than 3 miles visibility
Within Class B, C, D, or E airspace designated for airport
Within 4NM of a federal airway
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18
Q

Minimum Equipment for Class A

A

Two Way Radio
Mode C Transponder
IFR Equipment

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19
Q

Minimum Equipment for Class B

A

Two Way Radio
Mode C Transponder
If IFR, VOR, VORTAC, or RNAV

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20
Q

Minimum Equipment for Class C

A

Two Way Radio

Mode C Transponder

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21
Q

Minimum Equipment for Class D

A

Two Way Radio

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22
Q

Minimum Equipment for Class E

A

No specific requirement

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23
Q

Who can operate in Class B

A

Private Pilot

Student Pilots may operate in Class B if in compliance with appropriate regs

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24
Q

Entry Requirements for Class A

A

ATC Clearance

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25
Q

Entry Requirements for Class B

A

ATC Clearance

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26
Q

Entry Requirements for C & D

A

Two Way Radio Communication Established

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27
Q

Various Types of Terminal Radar Service Available for VFR AC?

A

Basic Radar Services
TRSA
Class C
Class B

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28
Q

Basic Radar Service

A

Safety alerts
Traffic Advisories
Limited Radar Vectoring
Sequencing

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29
Q

TRSA - Terminal Radar Service Area

A

Radar sequencing and separation

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30
Q

Class C Service

A

Separation between VFR and IFR AC

Sequencing of VFR Arrivals

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31
Q

Class B

A

Separation between AC based on IFR, VFR, and/or weight

Sequencing of VFR Arrivals

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32
Q

Where is Mode C Required?

A

At/above 10,000’ MSL, excluding airspace below 2,500’

Mode C veil

Within/above Class C up to 10,000’

Within 10 miles of certain airports, excluding airspace outside of Class D and below 1,200’ AGL

All AC flying into, within, or across ADIZ

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33
Q

Max airspeed in Class C

A

200 knots

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34
Q

Class D Services

A

No separation

On workload permitting basis, ATC may provide radar traffic info, safety alerts, and traffic info

35
Q

Examples of Class E Airspace

A 
Class e extension
Surface area for airport where control tower is not open
Airspace used for transition
Federal airways and RNAV routes
Offshore airspace areas
En route domestic areas
36
Q

Purpose of Class E Transition Areas

A

Extend up from 700’ or 1,200’ AGL

Help separate (via cloud clearance) IFR traffic from VFR AC in vicinity

37
Q

Are you required to establish contact with tower in Class E?

A

Yes, anytime you are operating to, from, through, or on airport with operational control tower, contact must be established 4 NM from airport up to 2,500’ AGL

38
Q

How are Class E Extensions Depicted on a Chart?

A

Magenta dashed line

39
Q

Main difference between Class G and other airspace?

A

Wx minimums

40
Q

Class B Wx Minimums

A

3 miles

Clear of Clouds

41
Q

Class C Wx Minimums

A

3 Miles

1/5/2

42
Q

Class D Wx Minimums

A

3 Miles

1/5/2

43
Q

Class E Wx Minimums - Less than 10,000’ MSL

A

3 Miles

1/5/2

44
Q

Class E Wx Minimums - 10,000’ or above

A

1 Mile

1,000’ Above/1,000’ Below/1 Mile

45
Q

Class G Wx Minimums -
Day
1,200’ AGL or Less

A

1 Mile

Clear of Clouds

46
Q

Class G Wx Minimums -
Night
1,200’ AGL or Night

A

3 Miles

1/5/2

47
Q

Class G Wx Minimums -
Day
Above 1,200’ AGL but Less Than 10,000’ MSL

A

1 Mile

1/5/2

48
Q

Class G Wx Minimums -
Night
Above 1,200’ AGL but Less Than 10,000’ MSL

A

3 Miles

1/5/2

49
Q

Class G Wx Minimums -

Above 1,200’ AGL &/or above 10,000’ MSL

A

5 Miles

1,000’ Above/1,000’ Below/1 Mile

50
Q

What is a prohibited area?

A

Contain certain airspace where AC ops is prohibited

Established for security or other national welfare

51
Q

What is a restricted area?

A

Ops not completely prohibited, but subject to restrictions.

Often contain invisible hazards

Must have clearance to operate contrary to imposed restrictions from controlling agency

52
Q

What is a warning area?

A

3 NM outward from coast of US

Contains activity that may be hazardous

53
Q

What is a MOA?

A

Military operations area -

Separates certain military training exercises from IFR traffic

VFR pilots should use extreme caution

Status may change frequently

Should contact FSS within 100 miles to receive hours of operation

54
Q

What is an alert area?

A

May contain a high volume of pilot training or unusual type aerial activity

All aircraft are responsible for collision avoidance

55
Q

When may a pilot deviate from ATC clearance?

A

In an emergency

Collision avoidance

Amended clearance received

56
Q

Preflight action required for all flights leaving the vicinity of departure airport?

A 
N otams
W eather
K nown ATC delays 
R unway lengths and condition
A lternatives available
F uel requirements
T akeoff and landing distance data
57
Q

Arriving AC Receiver INOP

A

Remain outside Class D surface area
Determine direction/flow of traffic
Advise tower of AC type, position, altitude, and intentions Request light signals
At 3-5 miles, advise tower of position and join traffic
Watch tower for light signals

58
Q

Arriving AC Transmitter INOP

A

Remain outside Class D surface area
Determine direction/flow of traffic
Monitor frequency for landing and traffic info
Join traffic pattern
Watch tower for light signals
Acknowledge by rocking wings or flashing landing light

59
Q

Arriving AC Reciever/Transmitter INOP

A 
Remain outside Class D surface area
Determine direction/flow of traffic
Join traffic pattern
Watch tower for light signals
Acknowledge by rocking wings or flashing landing
60
Q

Oxygen requirements - 12,500’ MSL - 14,000’ MSL

A

Required for crew for that part of flight more than 30 minutes

61
Q

Oxygen requirements - Above 14,000’ MSL

A

Required for crew for entire duration

62
Q

Oxygen requirements - Above 15,000 MSL

A

Required for all for entire duration

63
Q

When are parachutes required on AC?

A

60 degrees of bank
30 degrees nose up/down

Not required for training or pilot certification as specified in FARs

64
Q

What are Military Training Routes?

A

Used by the military to conduct low altitude, high speed training.

Routes above 1,500’ AGL developed to be flown IFR

Routes 1,500’ and below are developed to be flown VFR

65
Q

What is a TRSA?

A

Airspaces surrounding designated airports wherein ATC provides radar vectoring, sequencing, and separation on a full time basis for all IFR and participating VFR AC.

Depicted on charts with a solid black line and altitudes for each segment

Class D portion is charted with a blue segmented line

66
Q

What are ADIZ and where are they located?

A

Air Defense Identification Zone

Domestic - Within US along international boundaries

Coastal - Over US Coastal Waters

Distance Early Warning ID Zone - Over coastal waters of Alaska

Land Based ADIZ - US Metro Areas

67
Q

Requirements to ops into, across, or within ADIZ

A

Flight Plan
Two Way Radio
Transponder
Position Reports - For DVFR, must provide 15 minutes prior to entry
AC position tolerances
Land based ADIZ - activated and deactivated over US metro areas as needed. Report landing or leaving

68
Q

When is immediate notification of NTSB required?

A

AC accident
Flight control system malfunction
Crew unable to perform normal duties
Inflight fire
AC collision inflight
Property damage, other than AC, estimated to exceed $25K
Overdue AC (believed to be an accident)
Release of all or portion of prop blade from AC
Complete loss of info from more than 50% EFIS cockpit display

69
Q

“Aircraft Incident”

A

An occurrence other than accident associated with the AC which could affect safety of ops

70
Q

“Aircraft Accident”

A

Occurrence associated with operations of AC in which death, serious injury, or substantial damage occurs

71
Q

“Serious injury”

A

Any injury that:

Requires hospitalization for more than 48 hours, within 7 days from date of injury

Results in fracture of bone (except fingers, nose, and toes)

Causes severe hemorrages, nerve, muscle, or tendon damage

Involves internal organ,

Involves 2nd or 3rd degree burns affecting more than 5% of body

72
Q

“Substantial Damage”

A

Damage that substantially affects structural strength, performance, or flight characteristics of the AC

Engine failure or damage

73
Q

When an accident or incident has occurred, how soon must a report to the NTSB be filed?

A

Within 10 days after an accident;

When, after 7 days, an overdue AC is still missing

74
Q

How to determine traffic pattern at airport without operating control tower?

A

At airport with full/part time UNICOM, airport advisory may be obtained

Many airports have automated advisories on automated UNICOM system

Segmented circle may be available

75
Q

Recommended entry and departure procedures at airports without CT?

A

Enter in level flight abeam midpoint of runway at pattern altitude

When departing, continue straight out or exit with a 45 degree turn beyond the departure end of the runway (left in LH pattern, right in RH pattern)

76
Q

What comms procedures are recommended when departing Class D airspace?

A

Stay on frequency to receive traffic info

77
Q

NOTAM

A

Time critical aeronautical info that could affect a pilot’s decision to fly. Includes runway closures, changes to status of NAVAIDS, ILS’s, FICON reports, etc.

78
Q

Order of contact for arriving aircraft

A

ATIS
Approach Control
Control Tower
Ground Control

79
Q

Order of contact for departing aircraft

A 
ATIS
Clearance delivery
Ground Control
Control Tower
Departure Control
80
Q

NOTAM Categories

A

(D) NOTAM - Info that requires wide dissemination. Pertains to en route NAVAIDS, civil airports, procedures, etc

FDC NOTAM - Regulatory. IFR Charts, procedures, & airspace usage

Pointer NOTAM - Points out another NOTAM

SAA NOTAM - Special Activity Airspace outside published times

Military NOTAM

81
Q

Where can NOTAMS be obtained?

A 
FSS
Notice to Airman Publication
DUATs vendors
FAA website
FIS-B
82
Q

“DVFR”

A

Defense VFR

VFR flights operating in proximity of ADIZ

Must file flight plan

83
Q

Minimum safe altitude over congested area

A

1000’ above tallest obstacle in 2000’ radius

Private Pilot (11 decks)

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