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Neuroanatomy > Ch. 5 — For Exam 1 > Flashcards

Ch. 5 — For Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

The brain receives ____% of cardiac output (800 ml per minute), and uses ____% of body oxygen

A

20%; 20%

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2
Q

CNS vasculature must be _________ to supply oxygen and b/c CNS stores little or no ________

A

Continuous; glucose

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3
Q

True or False:

CNS blood flow rates change minimally /c increases in the level of celebration (flow rates are mostly determined by vascular pressure differences)

A

True

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4
Q

What are the two arterial supply systems of CNS?

A
  1. Vertebral arteries (aka vertebrobasilar system)

2. Internal carotid arteries

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5
Q

What arteries are…

  • paired
  • enter skull thru foramen magnum on the ventrolateral surfaces of the spinal cord
A

Vertebral arteries

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6
Q

The vertebral arteries has paired _____________ arteries, which unit to from a single midline artery and the ______________ artery.

A

Anterior spinal aa.; posterior inferior cerebellar aa.

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7
Q

The union of the vertebral arteries forms the _______ a., which is a ingle midline a. That courses to the midbrain.

A

Basilar a.

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8
Q

What are the 3 branches of the basilar a.?

A
  1. Anterior inferior cerebellar a.
  2. Short pontine branches
  3. Superior cerebellar aa.
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9
Q

At the midbrain, the basilar a. Bifurcated to form the two __________ arteries

A

Posterior cerebral arteries

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10
Q

What 3 areas does the posterior cerebral a. Supply?

A
  1. Caudal diencephalon
  2. Medial & lateral occipital lobes (visual cortex)
  3. Posterior inferior temporal lobe
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11
Q

Which arteries pass thru the cavernous sinus to the base of the brain /c several branches?

A

Internal carotid arteries

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12
Q

What are the two branches of the internal carotid artery that enter thru the cavernous sinus?

A
  1. Ophthalmic A.

2. Posterior Communicating a.

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13
Q

The internal carotid a. Terminates lateral to the __________ as what two terminal branches?

A

Optic chiasm

  1. Middle cerebral a.
  2. Anterior cerebral a.
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14
Q

Which artery…
- passes laterally thru the lateral fissure to supply the lateral orbital gyri and lateral parts of the frontal, parietal, and temporal lobes

A

Middle cerebral a.

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15
Q

Some branches of the ________a. Pierce to supply to basal ganglia, diencephalon, and internal capsule.

A

Middle cerebral

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16
Q

Which artery….

- passes anteriorly to supply the orbital and medial aspects of the frontal lobe and medial aspect of the parietal lobe

A

Anterior cerebral a.

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17
Q

The R and L anterior cerebral arteries are connected in the midline by what?

A

Anterior communicating artery

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18
Q

What is the Circle of Willis?

A

An arterial ring at the base of the brain

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19
Q

What does the circle of Willis allow for?

A

Anastomoses btw the vertebrobasilar and carotid arteries

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20
Q

The circle of Willis may act as what?

A

A safety valve if one portion of the circle becomes obstructed

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21
Q

What 5 arteries/ artery pairs are included in the Circle of Willis?

A
  1. Posterior cerebral arteries (paired)
  2. Posterior communicating arteries (paired)
  3. Internal carotid arteries (paired)
  4. Anterior Cerebral arteries (paired)
  5. Anterior communicating arteries.
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22
Q

Valveless venous channels btw two layers of the dura mater

A

Dural sinuses

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23
Q

What drains into the superior sagittal sinus?

A

Upper, lateral, and medial cortex

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24
Q

The superior sagittal sinus is located superiorly in the midline and flows toward the ________ region

A

Occipital

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25
Q

The superior sagittal sinus drains into the __________ sinus, which drains laterally into the ______ sinus.

A

Transverse; sigmoid

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26
Q

Venous blood ultimately drains into the _________ vein at the base of the skull

A

Internal jugular

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27
Q

Deep cerebral venous blood flows to what 4 things?

A
  1. Great vein of Galen
  2. Straight sinus
  3. Transverse, sigmoid sinus
  4. Internal Jugular vein
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28
Q
  • connect some dural sinuses /c veins that are superficial to the skull
  • can be a route for spread of infection from face or nasopharynx
A

Emissary veins

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29
Q

Vascular insufficiency for more than several minutes can result in __________

A

Infarction (necrosis)

- ex. Stroke, CVA

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30
Q

Vascular insufficiency can be caused by what two things?

A
  1. Occlusion (via thrombus or embolus)

2. Hemorrhage (usually more severe)

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31
Q
  • temporary neurological dysfunction

- warning sign of vascular insufficiency

A

Transient ischemic attack (TIA)

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32
Q

What substances do not pass from the blood into the brain?

A

Large proteins and penicillin

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33
Q

True or False:

Neuro damage can break down the blood-brain barrier

A

True

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34
Q

What part of the neuron usually receives and integrates signals?

A

Dendrite-soma

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35
Q

What part of the neuron functions to conduct or transmit the signal away from the cell?

A

Axon

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36
Q

What part of the neuron is the effector segment (where the action is passed on)?

A

Synapse

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37
Q

A peripheral neuron which conveys information (sensory) to the CNS about the external environment

A

First-order neuron

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38
Q

The peripheral process begins in sensory tissues such as what? (4 things)

A
  1. Retina
  2. Skin
  3. Muscles
  4. Joints
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39
Q

The charged state of a cell at rest (not conducting an impulse)

A

Resting potential

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40
Q

The resting potential is a comparison of the difference btw the ______ and ________ of the cell (intracellular and extra cellular fluid)

A

Inside; outside

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41
Q

What 3 things diffuse freely across the semipermeable plasma membrane through non-gated open channels?

A
  1. Sodium
  2. Chloride
  3. Potassium
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42
Q

Sodium and Chloride are highly concentrated _______ the cell. Potassium and organic anions are highly concentrated _______ the cell.

A

Outside; inside

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43
Q

What does the sodium-potassium pump do?

A
  • pumps 3 sodium’s out of the cell for every 2 potassium’s pumped in
  • requires ATP
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44
Q

What establishes the electrical potential difference across the cell membrane?

A

The sodium potassium pump

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45
Q

What is the electrical potential difference of the cell membrane?

A

-60 (outside the cell) to -90 (inside the cell)

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46
Q

Allows the calculation of the magnitude of potential at which ions are in equilibrium across a membrane

A

Nernst equation

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47
Q

The Nernst equation only considers ______ channels, not ______ channels

A

Open; gated

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48
Q

The resting membrane potential is mostly due to what?

A

Potassium

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49
Q

Why does sodium only contribute a small amount to the cells resting potential?

A

B/c sodium channels are gated, so they are not open in a resting cell

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50
Q
  • enables a neuron to respond to and transmit info as an electrical signal
  • a stimulus may cause a change in the resting membrane potential (depolarization) by opening or closing channels (allowing passive diffusion of concentrated ions)
A

Excitability of a neuron

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51
Q

Always permit passage of ions; involved in maintaining resting potentials

A

Open channels

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52
Q

Have a molecular gap or gate which can open to permit passage of particular ions and will not allow passage of other types of ions

A

Gated channels

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53
Q

The process by which a channel is opened during activity

A

Gating

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54
Q

What are 3 types of gating?

A
  1. Chemical channels
  2. Modality-specific channels
  3. Voltage-gated channels
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55
Q

Have gates which respond to chemicals or transmitters

A

Chemical channels

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56
Q

Have gates which open when the membrane potential changes

A

Voltage-gated channels

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57
Q

Respond to specific modalities such as touch

A

Modality-specific channels

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58
Q

What are the two types of membrane responses?

A
  1. Hyperpolarization

2. Depolarization

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59
Q

Membrane becomes more negative on its inside

A

Hyperpolarization

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60
Q

Membrane becomes less negative on the inside, may even become positive

A

Depolarization

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61
Q

What are the 5 functional organizations of the neuron?

A
  1. Receptive segment
  2. Initial segment
  3. Conductive segment
  4. Transmissible segment
  5. Tropic segment
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62
Q

The reception of a stimuli (chemically or modality gated) results in a __________

A

Local potential

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63
Q

The most common receptive segment is _____

A

Dendrite-soma unit

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64
Q

The postsynaptic receptor membrane is responsive to neurotransmitters from the _________ vesicles

A

Presynaptic

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65
Q

At the dendrite-soma unit, chemically gated channels open to allow ________ to flow in and ______ to flow out. The result is a ___________ potential which is _________.

A

Sodium; potassium

Receptor (local); graded (short duration and short distance)

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66
Q

What is an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP)?

A

A partial depolarization at the dendrite-soma unit, which is insufficient to generate an action potential

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67
Q

When a closely successive stimuli brings the membrane closer to depolarization after an EPSP

A

Temporal summation

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68
Q

When closely placed local potentials have an additive effects in overlapping margin areas after an EPSP

A

Spatial summation

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69
Q

What are two types of facilitation?

A
  1. Temporal summation

2. Spatial summation

70
Q

An inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) results in a degree of hyperpolarization which prevents neuron firing

A

Inhibition

71
Q

The receptive segment integrates _____ synaptic inputs

A

All

72
Q

EPSPs are most concentrated on the ________, while IPSPs are most concentrated on the __________. This allows IPSPs to effectively control the _______ of excitatory influences

A

Dendrites; cell bodies; quantity

73
Q

Aside form the dendrite-soma unit, what is another receptive segment?

A

Terminals distal to the first node of Ranvier in the peripheral sensory neurons

74
Q

True or False:

Peripheral sensory ends have long receptive segments

A

False; they have short receptive segments

75
Q

Some peripheral sensory neurons are associated /c special sensory receptors. Name 3 examples.

A
  1. Rods & cones
  2. Organ of Corti
  3. Muscle spindles
76
Q

Terminals distal to the first node of Ranvier in the peripheral sensory neurons are ________ gated channels and produce ________ potentials

A

Modality-specific; graded receptor

77
Q

Modality-specific gated channels are opened by what 4 things?

A
  1. Light
  2. Vibration
  3. Stretch
  4. Touch
78
Q

At the initial segment of the neuron, the sum effects from the receptive zone generate an ________ potential

A

Integrated

79
Q

The initial segment of the neuron is the region of the _________ in most neurons, or the ___________ in peripheral sensory neurons

A

Axon hillock; first node of Ranvier

80
Q

What region has the lowest threshold (-45 mv) to generate an action potential?

A

Initial segment

81
Q

Once threshold is reached, a _________ potential is generated.

A

Action

82
Q

What segment of the neuron conducts “all-or-none” action potentials to the synaptic segment?

A

Conductile segment

83
Q

A rapidly propagated wave of electrical impulse passing “all-or-none” w/o decrement down the axon

A

Action potential

84
Q

What is an action potential due to?

A

Voltage-gated sodium and potassium channels being opened differentially

85
Q

Action Potential

  1. ________ channels open first and inside of the cell becomes more ________
  2. the more positive the potential voltage becomes, the more sodium channels open (________________)
  3. sudden opening of all __________ channels causes the depolarization seen at initiation of the AP
  4. Gated ________ channels open 0.2 ms after the sodium channels open, which along /c the action of the _________ results in depolarization of the membrane
  5. The AP impulse is __________ along the length of the nerve fiber
A
  1. Sodium; positive
  2. Positive feedback
  3. Sodium
  4. Potassium; Na/K pump
  5. Propagated
86
Q

AP propagation

  1. The AP is propagated constantly along the full length of __________ axons, /c the initial depolarization triggering depolarization of the adjacent resting membrane and so forth on down the fiber
  2. AP in a ________ fiber is propagated in a “skipping or jumping” fashion from one node of Ranvier to the next node of Ranvier.
A
  1. Unmyelinated

2. Myelinated

87
Q

What is saltatory conduction?

A

The depolarization skips from one node of Ranvier to the next in myelinated axons

88
Q

What is saltatory conduction due to?

A

The inability of the current to flow transversely thru the myelin d/t its increased resistance

89
Q

Nerve conduction velocity increases /c what 4 things?

A
  1. Myelin
  2. Increased thickness of myelin
  3. Increased fiber thickness
  4. Increased length of internodes
90
Q

What segment of the neuron is the presynaptic vesicles releasing the neurotransmitter?

A

Transmissive/synaptic segment

91
Q

At the transmissive/synaptic segment, the AP upon arrival at the presynaptic membrane opens voltage-gated _________ channels. Calcium moves ______ the cell, which prompts vesicles to fuse /c the terminal plasma membrane. The neurotransmitter is then released into the __________ and diffuses across it. The transmitter binds to ________ receptors to effect the postsynaptic neuron, muscle cell, or gland cell.

A

Calcium; into; synaptic cleft; protein

92
Q

Once a neurotransmitter binds to a protein receptor on the postsynaptic cell…

  • a new vesicle is then formed by __________ and filled /c neurotransmitter
  • synapses at the ____________
  • the post-synaptic response is initiated and determined by the transmitter-receptor interaction followed by the generation of a ________ potential
A
  • pinocytosis
  • motor end plate
  • graded
93
Q

At the motor end plate

  • ___________ is the neurotransmitter
  • large quantities of the neurotransmitter result in end plate potential which releases __________ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum to initiate fiber contraction
A
  • acetylcholine (ACh)

- calcium

94
Q

Acetylcholine is excitatory in ___________ and inhibitory in __________

A

Voluntary muscle; cardiac muscle

95
Q

True or False:

Specific molecule-receptor combinations exist in dynamic steady state of binding and unbinding

A

True

96
Q

How are transmitters removed from the synaptic cleft?

A
  1. Enzymes break down the remaining transmitters
    OR
  2. Molecular pumps remove the transmitters from the cleft
97
Q

What segment of the neuron is…

  • the cell body
  • the metabolic center to maintain neuron viability
  • usually located in the receptive segment (the conductile segment of the sensory neuron)
A

Tropic segment

98
Q

_______ must integrate all the excitatory and inhibitory inputs, to determine if AP occurs or not

A

Neurons

99
Q

CNS neurons may be _______ neurons projecting to distant regions, or _______ neurons

A

Projection; local circuit

100
Q

__________ can allow one neuron to influence another or even itself

A

Interneurons

101
Q

An interneuron btw a motor neuron axon collateral and the dendrite-soma of the same motor neuron or other motor neurons

A

Renshaw cell

102
Q

The axon collateral is _________ on the Renshaw cell and the Renshaw axon is _________ on the original motor neuron

A

Excitatory; inhibitory

103
Q

The _______ synapse may allow one neuron to influence the presynaptic terminal of another neuron

A

Axoaxonic

104
Q

Presynaptic excitation: great ________ influx causes greater releases of _________

A

Calcium; neurotransmitter

105
Q

Presynaptic inhibition: less ________ influx results in less __________

A

Calcium; transmitter

106
Q

Why is presynaptic inhibition important? Provide an example

A
  • keeps neural expressions under proper control, thus preventing excess and unnecessary movements
  • ex. Learning to write, excess movements are gradually eliminated
107
Q

Where are most first order neurons located?

A

In spinal nerves (dorsal root ganglia) and most cranial nerves (sensory ganglia)

108
Q

Are first order neurons mostly unipolar, bipolar, or multipolar?

A

Unipolar

109
Q

Have a single process which divides into at distal process to the sensory nerve endings and a proximal process extending toward the CNS

A

Unipolar

110
Q

Some first order neurons are bipolar. What are 3 examples?

A
  1. Olfactory (in nasal mucosa)
  2. Optic (in retina)
  3. Vestibulocochlear (in vestibular system)
111
Q

Two process from cell body

A

Bipolar

112
Q

Series of actions or operations among neurons in a processing center

A

Neural processing

113
Q

Sequential neural connections, each acting upon the next (ex. Patellar reflex)

A

Serial processing

114
Q
  • A receptor has synaptic connections /c several different sequences of neurons
  • These different channels then convey the information in parallel fashion
  • The impulses may be compared to each other to help interpret the environment
A

Parallel processing

115
Q

Various levels have specific ranks. Each successive levels processes at a more complex level

Ex. Visual system —> rods/cones —> bipolar cells —> ganglia

A

Hierarchical organization (of CNS)

116
Q

When neurons of a pathway are excited, those neurons stimulate inhibitory neurons in adjacent areas to suppress the circuits conveying superfluous information. The result is that the signal is emphasized and the background is suppressed/filtered.

A

Lateral inhibition

117
Q

The CNS ability to regulate and alter the resting level of excitability and responsiveness of a neuron or circuit. This level can be raised to make the input more effective or lowered to make the input less effective.

A

Modulation

118
Q
  • A cylinder of an inner core of gray matter surrounded by columns of white matter
  • encased in the upper 2/3 of the bony vertebral column
A

Spinal cord

119
Q

The spinal cord functions as a central _______ and _______ station

A

Processing; relay

120
Q

The spinal cord extends from the foramen magnum to the cone shaped end, ___________, at L1

A

Conus medullaris

121
Q

Non-neural _________ extends caudally from the tip to attach at the coccyx

A

Film Terminale

122
Q

Meningeal coverings are continuous /c the _______ meninges (pia, arachnoid, and dura)

A

Brain

123
Q

What 3 things is the pia attached to?

A
  1. Spinal cord
  2. Spinal roots
  3. Film terminale
124
Q

The spinal cord is suspended along its length by ~20 paired ____________ which extend from the pia of the lateral surface outward to the dura

A

Denticulate ligaments

125
Q

What does a lumbar puncture do?

A

Remove CSF from the subarachnoid space of the lumbar cistern

126
Q

Where are anesthetics frequently injected?

A

The epidural space distal to S2, /c venous plexuses

127
Q

Dorsal root lets join in each vertebral level to form the ___________, which has a dorsal root _________

A

Dorsal root; ganglion

128
Q

Ventral rootlets join in each vertebral level to form the ___________

A

Ventral root

129
Q

The dorsal and ventral roots of each segment join to form the __________, which is covered by a dural sheath just before the interventricular foramen

A

Spinal nerve

130
Q

The 8 cervical nerves exit _______ their respective vertebral bodies (except c8 which exits between the _____ and ______ vertebral bodies)

A

Above; C7; T1

131
Q

The 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral, and 1 coccygeal nerves exit ______ the corresponding vertebral body

A

Below

132
Q

The lumbar and sacral nerves have long roots which comprise the ________

A

Cauda equina (“horse’s tail”)

133
Q

The cervical enlargement of the spinal cord, due to widened gray matter (C5 - T1), provides innervation to the ____________ via the _____________

A

Upper extremities; brachial plexus

134
Q

The lumbosacral enlargement of the spinal cord, due to widened gray matter (L3 - S2), provides innervation to the ____________ via the _____________

A

Lower extremities; lumbosacral plexus

135
Q

Afferent (sensory) fibers carrying input to the spinal cord from the sensory receptors

A

Dorsal roots

136
Q

Contains all the cell bodies of dorsal root fibers which supply sensory innervation to a particular dermatome

A

Dorsal root ganglion

137
Q

General _________ afferents which convey sensory info from the extremities and the body wall, and general ________ afferent which convey sensory info from the viscera

A

Somatic; visceral

138
Q

Motor efferent fibers that convey output from the spinal cord

A

Ventral roots

139
Q

Convey impulses to the motor end-plates of voluntary muscle fibers

A

Alpha motor neurons

140
Q

What is a motor unit?

A

The alpha motor neuron and the muscle fibers it innervates

141
Q

One neuron innervates _______ ocular muscle fibers for fine motor control. One neuron innervates up to ______ muscle fibers in the soleus muscle for gross motor control.

A

3-8; 2000

142
Q

Convey to intrafusal fibers of the muscle spindles

A

Gamma motor neurons

143
Q

Synapse in the paravertebral sympathetic ganglion /c postganglionic neurons

A

Preganglionic autonomic neurons

144
Q

General somatic efferent stimulate what?

A

Voluntary muscles

145
Q

General visceral efferent stimulate what?

A

Involuntary smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands

146
Q

Cell bodies and transverse fibers are located centrally in a “butterfly shape” in the ________ matter

A

Gray

147
Q

Gray Matter

  1. Each half has a thin _________ horn extending toward the dorsal root
  2. Each half has a widened ________ horn containing the motor neurons
A
  1. Posterior

2. Anterior

148
Q

The gray matter is also subdivided into layers of Reed _________ I - X

A

Laminae

149
Q

Lamina I - VI are located in the ________ horn, including the ____________ (lamina II)

A

Posterior; substantia gelatinosa

150
Q

Laminae VII is located in the _____________

A

Intermediate zone

151
Q

Laminae VIII and IX are located in the _______ horn

A

Anterior

152
Q

Laminae X is located in the midline, surrounding the ____________

A

Central canal

153
Q

White matter of the spinal cord is __________ and ___________ fibers running longitudinally through the cord along /c glial cells

A

Myelinated; unmyelinated

154
Q

A deep cleft containing connective tissue and anterior artery branches

A

Ventral median fissure

155
Q

The white matter of the spinal cord is divided into what 3 paired columns?

A
  1. Posterior funiculi
  2. Lateral funiculi
  3. Anterior funiculi
156
Q

Groups of sensory fibers from _________ tracts of the white matter

A

Ascending

157
Q

Ascending tract:

That lateral half of each posterior funiculi is called the ___________

A

Fasciculus cuneatus (uncrossed)

158
Q

Ascending tract:

The medial half of each posterior funiculi is called the _____________

A

Fasciculus gracilis (uncrossed)

159
Q

The crossed ___________ tract which origininates from the dorsal horn

A

Spinothalamic

160
Q

Groups of motor fibers run in _________ tracts of the white matter

A

Descending

161
Q

Descending tract:

  1. uncrossed __________ tract
  2. Crossed ____________ tract
A
  1. Vestibulospinal

2. Lateral corticospinal

162
Q

Autonomic responses due to neural connections within the spinal cord

A

Spinal reflexes

163
Q

The ________ reflex is basis for the “tendon jerk reflex”

A

Stretch

164
Q

The gamma reflex loop controls ___________

A

Muscle tension

165
Q

The flexor reflex is a protective withdrawal of a limb from a _________ stimulus

A

Painful

166
Q

The _____________ artery originates by the joining of two branches of the vertebral arteries

A

Anterior spinal

167
Q

What does the anterior spinal artery supply?

A

The anterior 2/3rds of the spinal cord

168
Q

The posterior spinal arteries run along the line of attachment of the ______ roots

A

Dorsal

169
Q

Reinforcing arterial supply enters through the ________ foramen and divides into an _________ and ________ spinal root which participates in an anastomotic plexus on the cord surface

A

Intervertebral; anterior; posterior

170
Q

What is the largest reinforcing radicular artery?

A

Spinal artery of Adamkiewicz

171
Q

Where does the spinal artery of Adamkiewicz originate?

A

In the upper lumbar region

172
Q

True or False:

A venous plexus drains roughly parallel to the spinal arteries

A

True

Neuroanatomy (7 decks)

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