Ch. 21 Anesthesia Principles Flashcards

1
Q

How many half lives does it take for an infusion to reach maintenance level if it is given at the maintenance dose?

A

5 half lives - that is why we usually give loading doses

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2
Q

What two factors influence the administration of a drug into the body?

A

redistribution to other areas of the body
metabolism and excretion of the drug
*drugs that are more lipid soluble take longer to achieve steady state because they readily redistribute to many areas of the body (a larger volume of distribution)

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3
Q

How do we divide the body into three groups from the perspective of general anesthetic action?

A

vessel rich group - receive a large percentage of the cardiac output and usually have high rate of oxygen consumption (heart, brain, kidneys)
muscle group
vessel poor group - low metabolic rates like fat

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4
Q

What factors influence the time necessary to achieve a steady state of anesthetic (particularly an inhalent)?

A

the minute ventilation (which is functionally the rate of delivery of drug into the body)
the cardiac output (delivery of the drug to the target organs)
the speed of redistribution (away from the target organs)
amount of drug that is eliminated from the circulation (metabolism or exhalation)

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5
Q

Rule of six to administer drugs at 1 ug/kg/hr at 1 ml/hr

A

body weight of the patient in kg is multipled by 6 and then that number is the number of mg added to 100 ml of diluent.
Ex: a 5 kg cat will need dopamine. Multiple 5 by 6 –> 30… 30 mg of dopamine is what you add to 100 ml of diluent so that you can run the pump at 1 ml/hr for the patient to get 1 ug/kg/hr
You can also multiply by 60 to run it at 1 ml/hr but receive 10 ug/kg/hr

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6
Q

What kind of inhalent will be less dissolved in blood and therefore will have less redistribution?

A

a less soluble drug like desflurane will be less dissolved in the blood and will have less redistribution… it will therefore achieve a faster equilibrium to the delivered percentage in the lungs and target organ

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7
Q

What is the concept behind low flow (close circuit) anesthesia?

A

at equilibrium, only enough inhalant must be supplied to make up for that lost from the system by redistribution or metabolism. and only enough oxygen must be supplied to meet the animal’s metabolic demands
this is because at the induction of anesthesia, a relatively high concentration of inhalant is in the arterial blood and a low concentration in venous blood. The transfer from blood to tissue follows a concentration gradient - as anesthesia continues, less anesthetic will be taken up by the tissues because it begins to equal that of arterial blood and meanwhile, the venous concentrations are rising. As the amount of anesthetic returned to the lungs increases, anesthetic levels in the exhaled gas rise… then an equilibrium is formed and very little additional drug is needed

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8
Q

How do we classify vaporizers for anesthesia

A

regulation of output
method of vaporization
vaporizer location in the anesthetic circuit
temperature compensation
agent specificity
Most vaporizers today are out of circuit, variable bypass, flow over, temperature compensated, and agent specific

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9
Q

What is the saturated vapor pressure?

A

the pressure at the point where the gas of the anesthetic agent is in dynamic equilibrium with the liquid agent
it is too high to be clinically useful and must be diluted with a carrier gas

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10
Q

Vaporizer output - what are the two kinds?

A

variable bypass vs measured flow

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11
Q

Variable bypass vaporizer output

A

splits the incoming fresh gas flow to direct a variable portion through the vaporizing chamber and the remainder through a bypass chamber - then merge before exiting the vaporizer
most widely used

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12
Q

measured flow vaporizer output

A

uses two flow meters - one that passes through the vaporizer and is saturated with drug and the other controlling the carrier gas. You need to calculate these gas flows independently
not really used

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13
Q

What are the three methods of vaporization?

A

flow over
bubble through
direct injection

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14
Q

Describe a flow over vaporizer

A

the carrier gas passes over a reservoir of inhalant and picks up the anesthetic vapor as it does so (the concentration of vapor being relative to the specific vapor pressure of the agent)
may use wicks in the vaporizer to increase surface area for contact between the inhalant and carrier gas
most commonly used

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15
Q

Describe a bubble through vaporizer

A

bubbles the carrier gas through the bottom of the reservoir of the anesthetic to pick up the vapor
rarely used now

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16
Q

Describe injection type vaporizers

A

inject an atomized spray of inhalant into the stream of the carrier gas, rapidly vaporizing the inhalant

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17
Q

Describe out vs in circuit vaporizers

A

for in circuit, they can have highly variable output depending on the ambient temperature, patient ventilation, and volatility of the selected agent. In circuits are hardly used
Out of circuit are situated before the common gas outlet of the machine and are not part of the patient circuit… as a result, out of circuit vaporizers deliver a constant dose of anesthetic agent to the circuit, regardless of the patient’s respiratory minute volume

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18
Q

How does temperature affect the anesthetic vaporizer?

A

vaporization of inhalant from the reservoir lowers the reservoir temperature
as the temp of the reservoir decreases, fewer molecules are liberated to a gaseous state and that lowers the output from the vaporizer

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19
Q

Desflurane vaporizer

A

desflurane has a very high saturated vapor pressure, it is nearly a gas at standard temperature and pressure.
creation of an externally warmed desflurane vaporizer
will need an additional power source to warm it

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20
Q

How does soda lime act as an absorbant for a rebreathing system?

A

CO2 exhaled by the patient reacts with water to form carbonic acid on the surface of the absorbant granules
the carbonic acid then dissociates to free protons and carbonate
these then associate with the strong bases to form water and calcium carbonate
an indicator dye (ethyl violet) changes color on reaction with acid

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21
Q

What is the minimum oxygen flow for the rebreathing system?

hint - it is equal to the patient’s metabolic oxygen demand

A

estimated as 10 x kg^0.75

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22
Q

T/F: in a rebreathing system, the concentration of inhalant the patient inspires will be less than that set on the vaporizer

A

true because the gas is rebreathed and mixed with the fresh gas, and that rebreathed gas will have a lower concentration of inhalant

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23
Q

Where is the dead space in a rebreathing system?

A

at the y piece where the inspiratory and expiratory breathing tubes meet at the patient
therefore, rebreathing systems are reserved for patients larger than 5 kg

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24
Q

What is the recommended fresh gas flow rate for a non rebreathing system?

A

three times the patient’s respiratory minute volume

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25
Q

How do you calculate a patient’s respiratory minute volume?

A

MV = respiratory rate x tidal volume

estimated tidal volume is 15 ml/kg

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26
Q

What is a patient’s estimated tidal volume?

A

15 ml/kg

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27
Q

How quickly will a patient develop hypoxemia from apnea or obstruction on room air versus 100% oxygen

A

30 seconds versus almost 5 minutes! this is why we preoxygenate at induction

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28
Q

Why might the use of 100% oxygen result in relatively more alveolar collapse than 40% oxygen:air combo?

A

the nitrogen contained in air is not readily absorbed from the alveoli. the nitrogen, therefore, provides structural support to the alveoli (called a nitrogen scaffold)
because oxygen is rapidly absorbed form the alveoli, an alveolus filled with 100% oxygen will gradually collapse as that oxygen is removed by the pulmonary blood flow (called absorption atelectasis)

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29
Q

For a green oxygen tank, what is the PSI and volume of gas in a full tank?

A

1900 PSI

660 Liters

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30
Q

For a white oxygen tank, what is the PSI and volume of gas in a full tank?

A

2200 PSI

6900 L

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31
Q

To what pressure does the internal pressure regulator on the anesthesia machine reduce the carrier gas pressure from the tank or wall?

A

the internal pressure regulator lowers the pressure from the wall/tank to 50 PSI

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32
Q

How fast does oxygen flow from an oxygen flush valve? units are liters per minute

A

30-50 liters/min

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33
Q

What are the two types of bellows of an anesthesia ventilator?

A

ascending or descending
ascending is considered superior (ascend during expiration) because a leak can be noticed easier than for a descending (descend during expiration)

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34
Q

What factors influence oxygen delivery to tissue?

A

blood flow through the body (generated by cardiac output)

oxygen content of the arterial blood (dictated by hemoglobin concentration)

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35
Q

Which organs are most susceptible to hypoxemia?

A

brain
kidney
heart

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36
Q

How does hypoventilation lead to respiratory acidosis?

A

hypoventilation results in an increase in CO2 causing a respiratory acidosis. When there is hyperventilation, the CO2 decreases and a respiratory alkalosis is seen

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37
Q

Why does hypoxemia have a less dramatic effect on the the oxygen content of the arterial blood than anemia does?

A

oxygen content will change more radically with a decrease in hematocrit than with a decrease in PaO2 up to values less than 70 mmHg. PaO2 less than 70 mmHg will lead to a rapid drop in the oxygen content of arterial blood - review figure 21.6 in Tobias

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38
Q

Why is blood pressure used as a surrogate for cardiac output monitoring?

A

Hard to measure cardiac output. Therefore, we use BP because BP = CO x SR where SR is systemic resistance

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39
Q

How is the mean arterial pressure (MAP) calculated?

A

MAP = DAP + [{SAP-DAP}/3]

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40
Q

At what MAP will perfusion and oxygen delivery to the brain or kidney be insufficient to meet requirements for aerobic metabolism

A

60 mmHg

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41
Q

How does the doppler ultrasound help us measure indirect BP?

A

the crystal emits an ultrasonic wave that interacts with the moving blood, causing a shift in frequency of the wave, which is then received by the crystal and transduced into an audible noise
In cats, the doppler may underestimate the systolic arterial pressure by up to 25 mmHg

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42
Q

What is photoplethysmography?

A

a variation on the doppler method where you use the waveform on a pulse oximeter device
we can only really do this on the webbing of the toes and offers no advantage to doppler readings

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43
Q

are oscillometric devices useful on cats?

A

oscillometric devices tend to underestimate the systolic arterial pressure in cates but are pretty precise for mean and diastolic arterial pressure
For dogs, oscillometric devices underestimate all three pressures

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44
Q

What is electromechanical dissociation?

A

formerly termed pulseless electrical activity, it is when there is an ECG trace without a contraction of the heart

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45
Q

What is hypercarbia?

A

synonomous to hypoventilation, it is when there is too much CO2
it results in respiratory acidosis, vasodilation, increased intracranial pressure, sympathetic nervous system stimulation, anxiety in awake patients, arrhythmias, and narcosis
partial pressure of CO2 greater than 55 mmHg but not going to cause consequences until about 65 mmHg

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46
Q

What is hypocarbia?

A

hyperventilation
low CO2 - less than 25 mmHg
may cause respiratory alkalosis, vasoconstriction, and dizziness

47
Q

Why is it that we can use end tidal CO2 as an accurate measurement of CO2 in arterial blood?

A

in patients with normal pulmonary function, CO2 is efficiently passed from the pulmonary blood into the alveoli and then breathes out
**because perfusion of the alveoli is required to deliver CO2 to the alveoli, end tidal CO2 is also appropriate to monitor changes in pulmonary perfusion and cardiac output

48
Q

What is the primary factor that dictates oxygen content of arterial blood?

A

hemoglobin concentration

49
Q

What does a pulse oximeter measure?

A

estimates the percentage of hemoglobin that is saturated with oxygen
under normal circumstances, it exists as oxyhemoglobin or deoxyhemoglobin
Each type of hemoglobin absorbs infrared light at a different frequency
A pulse oximeter emits two light frequencies, one for oxy and one more deoxyhemoglobin
Relies on pulsatile nature of arterial blood to measure only arterial hemoglobin

50
Q

What are the five causes of hypoxemia?

A
high altitude
hypoventilation
diffusion impairment
shunting
V/Q mismatch
51
Q

What is the difference between a transmittance and reflectance pulse oximeter

A

transmittance is a clip and the light is sent out and then measured by a sensor on the other side
reflectance probes are flat and emit light that is reflected back

52
Q

What is the partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood when breathing room air at sea level

A

PaO2 110 mmHg

Also correspondes to 100% oxygen saturation

53
Q

what is the oxygen saturation of a patient with PaOq of 60 mmHg

A

90%

54
Q

What should the PaO2 be in a patient breathing 100% oxygen?

A

500 mmHg

A significant disturbance in blood oxygen levels must occur before a pulse oximeter reads less than 98%

55
Q

Can anemia affect a pulse oximeter reading?

A

Technically yes but the Hct must be less than 10% for that to occur

56
Q

What is the normal central venous pressure?

A

0-8 cm H20
or
0-5 mmHg

57
Q

Thermodilution

A

a method of non invasive cardiac monitoring
placement of a thermistor tipped pulmonary artery catheter via the jugular vein
a bolus of room temp or cold saline is injected into a port proximale to the thermistor
the saline is then pumped by the heart through the pulmonary arter and the thermistor will register a change in the temp of the blood
this is a reliable and accurate reading but requires placement of a pulmonary artery catheter

58
Q

Lithium dilution cardiac output

A
  • method to measure cardiac output
  • a jugular or peripheral venous catheter and a peripheral arterial catheter are necessary
  • a bolus of lithium is injected into the venous catheter and blood is simultaneously aspirated from the arterial catheter across a lithium sensor
  • as the lithium is pumped by the heart through the body, it reaches the lithium sensor, similar to the thermodilution method
59
Q

Pulse contour analysis

A
  • method of cardiac output measurement
  • algorithms calculated from the arterial blood pressure waveform
  • must be calibrated against another device at the beginning and again after any significant alteration in CO
60
Q

Noninvasive cardiac output

A
  • method to measure cardiac output
  • NiCO device
  • relies on the modified Fick principle using CO2 measurement to estimate cardiac output
  • the Fick principle uses oxygen consumption and the arterial venous oxygen concentration to calculate cardiac output
  • the uptake of a substance is equal to the product of the blood flow to the tissue and the arterterial venous concentration gradient of the substance
  • inaccurate in patients with significant lung disease, ongoing thoracic surgery, cannot use in dogs <20 kg
61
Q

How do opioid receptors work?

A
  • all opioid receptors are G protein coupled receptors with endogenous ligans including endorphins, enkephalins, and dynorphins
  • activiation of the receptors results in an influx of K+ and decrease in Ca2+
  • This decreases the release of neurotransmitters such as substance P and glutamate
    causes hyperpolarization of the post synaptic cell
  • net result is a decrease in neuronal activity and transmission of pain signals
62
Q

Why is oral administration of opioids generally not satisfactory?

A

poor absorption as well as extensive first pass metabolism

63
Q

Why is vomiting induced commonly for IM or SQ opioid administration?

A

stimulates the chemoreceptor trigger zone

64
Q

Characteristics of morphine

A
  • prototypical opioid agonist that is compared to others - relative potency is 1
  • can cause histamine release, especially if given IV
  • acts for 3-4 hours
  • give diluted if you must give it IV
  • preferred opioid for most epidurals because of low lipophilicity - can last 12-24 hours
65
Q

Characteristics of hydromorphone

A
  • 8x more potent than morphine at mu receptor
  • does not cause massive histamine release
  • analgesia of 2-4 hours
66
Q

Characterstics of oxymorphone

A
  • 10 x potency of morphine
  • does not cause big histamine release
  • may cause less dysphoria, excitement, passive gastroesophageal reflux than morphine
  • expensive
67
Q

characteristics of meperidine

A
  • 10x less potent than morphine
  • causes significant histamine release - dangerous to give IV
  • may cause serotonin syndrome in patients also receiving MAOIs (monoamine oxidase inhibitor)
68
Q

characteristics of methadone

A
  • 2x as potent as morphine

- also an NMDA receptor antagonist, therefore could lead to fewer excitatory responses in cats versus other opioids

69
Q

Characteristics of fentanyl

A
  • 100x more potent than morphine
  • duration of 20-40 min
  • more likely to cause bradycardia or apnea when given as a bolus than any other opioid
70
Q

characteristics of remifentanil

A

-unique among opioids in that it is metabolized by plasma esterases - extremely short half life that does not requre hepatic nor renal metabolism

71
Q

characteristics of buprenorphine

A

-40x more potent than morphine at mu receptor
- partial mu agonist
- binds very strongly to the mu receptor and does not fully activate it - a reduced analgesic effect compared to the full mu agonsits
does not cause the side effects typically seen with full mu agonists like nausea, emessis, histamine release and respiratory depression
-dose dependent duration of 4-6 hours
-might cause less ileus
-because of the pH of the feline mouth, absorption is rapid in the mouth

72
Q

characteristics of butorphanol

A
  • k receptor agonist and mu receptor antagonist
  • duration of 30 min to 2 hours
  • as a CRI, may provide good sedation
  • Not that strong a pain relief
  • has some anti emetic properties
73
Q

characterstics of tramadol

A
  • analogue of codeine with weak action at the mu receptor
  • analgesic properties are related to serotonin and adrenergic receptor effects
  • nausea and ileus still seen with tramadol
74
Q

characterstics of naloxone

A

binds competitively to mu, kappa, and delta
short duration of action - only 30-60 min
nalmefene and naltrexone are similar to naloxone but much longer duration of effect

75
Q

How do benzodiazepenes work?

A
  • enhance the effects of gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) which is an inhibitory neurotransmitter
  • the GABA receptor is activated and allows chloride to enter neurons, hyperpolarizing the cell and preventing the propagation of action potentials
  • the distribution of GABA receptors within the central nervous system accounts for species difference in response to benzodiazepines
  • no signficant CV or respiratory depresion
76
Q

Characteristics of diazepam

A
  • formulated in a propylene glycol solution
  • 2 hour duration of effect
  • adsorbs to plastic IV tubing and is light sensitive so its hard to use as a CRI
  • processed into the active metabolites nordiazepam and oxazepam which can have more sedative activity
77
Q

Characteristics of midazolam

A
  • water soluble benzo
  • duration of effect is about an hour
  • processed into 1-hydroxymethyl midazolam which has minimal biologic activity - therefore it is a good choice for a patient with hepatic dysfunction
78
Q

characteristics of acepromazine

A

-a phenothiazine tranquilizer that depresses dopamine activity in the reticular activating system
- acts as an alpha1 receptor antagonist –> therefore causes vasodilation leading to hypotension but may protect the heart from arrhythmias
-anti histaminic and antiemetic properties
-4-6 hour duration
irreversible

79
Q

alpha 2 agonists mechanism

A
  • alpha 2 agonists cause a decrease of norepinephrine release in the central nervous system
  • some activity at the peripheral alpha 1 receptors (which is why they cause vasoconstriction, hypertension, arrhythmogenicity, paradoxical excitation)
  • the hypertension can cause a reflex braadycardia
  • may also cause hyperglycemia, diuresis, respiratory depresion
80
Q

characteristics of xylazine

A

has an alpha 2:alpha 1 receptor selectivity of 160:1
15-20 min duration
can be used to induce vomiting
associated with a big increase in anesthetic complications and death in dogs

81
Q

characteristics of medetomidine

A

has an alpha 2:alpha 1 receptor selectivity of 1600:1
duration of 60-90 min
increasing the dose prolongs the effect but doesnt really change the degree of effect
profound depression on cardiac output

82
Q

characteristics of dexmedetomidine

A

this is the dextrorotary isomer of medetomidine

may have slightly less degree and duration than medetomidine

83
Q

characterstics of trazodone

A

a phenylpiperazine antidepressant that is a serotonin antagonist and reuptake inhibitor
oral trazodone reaches peak plasma concentrations after 7 hours

84
Q

characteristics of propofol

A
  • acts via agonism at the GABA receptors –> increasing inhibition through the central nervous system
  • available as an emulsion that is susceptible to bacterial growth and also a version with benzyl alcohol which is good for 28 days
  • the benzyl alochol version can lead to malaise in cats
  • rapidly redistributed and metabolized - extrahepatic sites of metabolism too so okay for patients in liver failure
  • causes hypotension as a result of vasodilation and then compensatory tachycardia
85
Q

characteristics of dissociative agents ketamine and tiletamine

A
  • acts via antagonism of the NMDA receptor
  • dissociative anesthesia is characterized by a catatonic state wherin dissociation exists between higher brain functions and unconsious functions –> this means that body systems like airway reflexes usually maintain a basal level of function
  • mild sympathomimetic effects with ketamine which might increase myocardial work
  • in patients with depleted sympathetic reserves, it may produce a decrease in cardiac output
  • metabolized to norketamine, which requires renal elimination and therefore should be avoided in patients with renal dysfunction
  • has analgesic properties but is not a good primary somatic analgesic
86
Q

characteristics of etomidate

A
  • an imidazole derivative unrelated to barbiturates
  • like other induction agents, works at the GABA receptor
    rapidly metabolized
    minimal CV depression
    etomidate alone for induction will have muscle rigidity and myoclonus
    induces adrenal suppression - therefore is not good for animals already in septic shock with a relative renal insufficiency
87
Q

characteristics of alfaxalone

A

steroid anesthetic that enhances GABA and glycine mediated central nervous system depression
depresses cardiac output and causes apnea but less commonly than with propofol

88
Q

what is minimum alveolar concentration

A

the concentration of anesthetic (in volume/volume percent) required to prevent purposeful movement in response to a standard painful stimulus in 50% of patients
It is a measure of the spinal cord afferent and efferent transmission - because it measures purposeful movement
the concentration of anesthetic required to prevent movement during surgery is usually 1.2-1.5 times the MAC

89
Q

minimum alveolar concentration awake definition

A

the concentration that prevents a conscious response to a verbal command in 50% of patients
usually about 30% of the MAC in people - maybe 60-80% in dogs? we dont know

90
Q

minimum alveolar concentration BAR

A

concentration of inhalant that prevents a CV response from a painful stimulus - usually higher than the MAC

91
Q

what is the anesthetic triad?

A

analgesia
lack of consciousness (aconscious)
lack of movement (akinesia)

92
Q

What is the MAC for isoflurane in a cat and dog?

A

cat - 1.7%

dog - 1.3%

93
Q

What is the MAC for sevoflurane in a cat and dog?

A

cat - 3.1%

dog - 2.1%

94
Q

What is the MAC for desflurane in a cat and dog?

A

cat - 10.3%

dog - 7.2%

95
Q

What determines absorption of an inhalant?

A

blood/gas solubility (lambda)
patient’s cardiac output and minute ventilation
difference in inhalant concentration between the alveolus and the venous blood
**less soluble agents do not have to dissolve as much in the blood before they exert their clinical effects
**a higher cardiac output creates a larger pool of blood that must be saturated and therefore causes slower absorption
**the greater the gradient from alveolus to pulmonary blood, the more rapid the absorption

96
Q

How are the common inhalants metabolized?

A

minimally! barely metabolized by the liver. they need to go back into the blood and then be exhaled. so fat patients take a long time to wake up because it takes a while for the inhalant to leave the fat and reenter the blood to be exhaled
But this does mean that inhalants are great for liver dysfunction patients

97
Q

characteristics of desflurane

A

highly insoluble

may result in faster recoveries which is especially useful for obese patients or brachycephalics

98
Q

characteristics of sevoflurane

A

lower solubility and higher MAC than iso

may interact with soda lime to create compound A

99
Q

How do local anesthetics work?

A

They exert a dose and activity dependent blockage of fast sodium channels on afferent nerves, inhibiting nociceptive afferent transmission resulting in analgesia

100
Q

Characteristics of lidocaine

A
  • relatively lipophilic and results in fast onset (5 min) but shorter duration of action (45-60 min)
  • like other local anesthestics, it is a weak base
101
Q

Characteristics of bupivicaine

A
  • higher lipid solubility and protein binding than lidocaine so longer duration (6-8 hours) but may take up to 45 min for effect to begin
  • like other local anesthestics, it is a weak base
102
Q

What is a Bier block?

A

IV regional anesthesia

103
Q

How does succinylcholine act as a neuromuscular blockade?

A

Mimics the effects of acetylcholine at the NMJ and causes an initial depolarization of all skeletal muscle
may be a trigger for malignant hyperthermia

104
Q

How do non depolarizing agents act as neuromuscular blockades and what are some examples

A

the drugs that end in ium like atracurium, vecuronium
stop depolarization at the NMJ
reversed with neostigmine and edrophonium by inhibiting the actions of acetylcholinesterase –> may result in a cholinergic crisis so you may need to have an anticholinergic available just in case and you should not reverse the blocade before all four twitches of the train of four caused by a nerve stimulator are visible

105
Q

Because the heart fills in diastole, a DAP of less than _____ indicates poor coronary artery perfusion, and possible cardiac ischemia.

A

40 mmHg

106
Q

Color, PSI, and volume of an oxygen tank in this country

A

Green
1900 PSI
660 Liters

107
Q

Color, PSI, and volume of a nitrous oxide tank in this country

A

Blue
745 PSI
1590 Liters

108
Q

Color, PSI, and volume of a carbon dioxide tank in this country

A

Grey
838 PSI
1590 Liters

109
Q

Color, PSI, and volume of a nitrogen tank in this country

A

Black
2200 PSI
6400 Liters

110
Q

Color, PSI, and volume of a medical air tank in this country

A

Yellow (but internationally can be black and white)
2200 PSI
6550 Liters

111
Q

Color, PSI, and volume of an oxygen tank internationally

A

White
2200 PSI
6900 Liters

112
Q

Toxic dose of lidocaine in cat and dog?

A

6 mg/kg cat

8 mg/kg dog

113
Q

toxic dose of bupivicaine in cat and dog?

A

2 mg/kg cat

4 mg/kg dog