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Fundamentals & Clinical Procedures > Ch 2 - medical asepsis and OSHA standard > Flashcards

Ch 2 - medical asepsis and OSHA standard Flashcards

1
Q

list six growth requirements needed by microorganisms to survive

A

optimum temperature - mos prefer 98.6 F

pH - most prefer neutral

nutrition - autotrophs (uses inorganic) or heterotrophs (uses organic)

darkness

moisture - need moisture for cell metabolism and carry away wastes

oxygen - aerobes or anaerobes

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2
Q

definition of medical asepsis

A

practices that are employed to inhibit the growth and hinder the transmission of pathogenic microorganisms to prevent the spread of infection meaning

that an object or area is clean and free from disease-producing microbes

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3
Q

examples of nonintact skin

A

abrasions, cuts, hangnails, paper cuts, burns etc

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4
Q

what are 4 factors that contribute to low resistance and increased susceptibility to being infected by pathogen in a host?

A

poor health, poor hygiene, poor nutrition, and stress

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5
Q

what are means of entry/exit for infection process cycle

A

mouth, nose, throat, ears, eyes, intestinal tract, reproductive tract, open wounds, breaks in skin, mucous membranes

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6
Q

when should you wash hands with soap rather than use alcohol

A

visibly soiled with dirt or body fluids
before eating
after using the restroom

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7
Q

why should you not top off the soap dispenser?

A

topping off soap to a partially empty dispenser can lead to bacterial contamination of the soap. get a new one

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8
Q

how many percent does wearing gloves reduce contamination

A

70-80%

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9
Q

when should you use sterile gloves?

A

dressing change or assisting provider with minor office surgery

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10
Q

what are types of nonlatex gloves?

A

nitrile, vinyl, polychloroprene

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11
Q

Symptoms of allergic reaction to latex?

A

redness of skin, urticaria, runny nose, asthma symptoms - sob, coughing and wheezing

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12
Q

how much soap should you use to wash your hands?

A

1 teaspoon or the size of a nickel

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13
Q

how much gel/lotion type alcohol based rub should you use?

A

1 ml or the size of a dime for gel or lotion

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14
Q

what is the purpose of OSHA

A

to assist employers in providing a safe and healthy working environment for their employees

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15
Q

why did OSHA develop a set of regulations called the Bloodborne Pathogens Standard?

A

these regulations are designed to reduce the risk of employees of exposure to infectious diseases

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16
Q

definition of occupational exposure

A

reasonably anticipated skin, eye, mucous membrane, or parenteral contact with blood or other OPIM that may result from the performance of an employee’s duties

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17
Q

example of serosanguineous fluid

A

liquid part of blood eg. exudates from wound

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18
Q

definition of exposure incident

A

specific eyes, nose, mouth, or other mucous membrane, nonintact skin, or parenteral contact with blood or OPIM that results from an employee’s duties

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19
Q

what is an example of a medication derived from blood

A

immune globulins

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20
Q

what are the components of the OSHA bloodborne pathogens standard?

A

exposure control plan
labeling requirements
communication of hazards to employees
record keeping

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21
Q

what are the three parts of the exposure control plan?

A

exposure determination
the method of compliance
postexposure evaluation and follow-up procedures

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22
Q

what must an exposure determination include?

A
  1. a list of all job classifications in which all employees are likely to have occupational exposure
  2. a list of job classifications in which only some employees have occupational exposure; must include a list of tasks in which occupational exposure may occur
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23
Q

what must the method of compliance include?

A

document of the specific health and safety control measures that are taken in the medical office to eliminate or minimize the risk of occupational exposure

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24
Q

what must the postexposure evaluation and follow-up procedures specify?

A 
method of documenting 
investigating an exposure incident 
postexposure evaluation
medical treatment 
follow-up that would be made available to the employee
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25
Q

what information do you need for an exposure incident documentation?

A

route of exposure and conditions and circumstances of the exposure incident including engineering controls, work practice controls, PPE being used at the time of incident

identify and document the source individual

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26
Q

what is a source individual?

A

any person, living or dead, whose blood or OPIM may be a source of occupational exposure to the health care worker

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27
Q

what is the overview/outline of an postexposure evaluation and follow-up procedure?

A
  1. perform initial first aid
  2. document exposure details and source individual
  3. obtain consent from source individual to test their blood for HBV, HBC, HIV
  4. provide exposed employee with results
  5. obtain consent to test employee’s blood
  6. provide exposed employee with postexposure prophylaxis as recommended by US public health service
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28
Q

how often should employers present their ECP to their employees?

A

Employers must present their ECP training at the time of task assignment and at least annually thereafter.

29
Q

what do employers need to include in their records of ECP training? and how long does these records need to be maintained?

A
  1. employers must maintain records of the training sessions, which includes the presentation dates, content, names and qualifications of trainers, and names/job titles of employees who attended.
  2. records must be maintained for 3 years
30
Q

what does the OSHA medical record need to include? and kept for how long?

A 
employers must include:
employee's name
SSN
hepB vaccination status with dates
results of any postexposure examinations
medical testing
f/u procedures
written evaluation of exposure incident
must maintain these records for duration of employment plus 30 years
31
Q

requirements for sharps injury log?

A

employers with more than 10 employees at risk
type and brand of device involved in the injury
location of incident
explanation of how incident occurred

32
Q

definition of engineering controls

A

all measures and devices that isolate or remove the bloodborne pathogens hazard from the workplace

33
Q

definition of work practice controls

A

reduce the likelihood of exposure by altering the manner in which the technique is performed

34
Q

general categories of regulated medical waste

A

any liquid or semiliquid blood or OPIM
contaminated sharps or other materials
contaminated pathologic and microbiologic wastes

35
Q

examples of waste that goes in the regulated waste container?

A 
disposable drapes, pt gowns, table paper, sterile or clean gloves, a tinge of blood, thermometer probe covers, tongue depressors, tissue with respiratory secretions, ear speculums
empty urine containers
urine testing strips
disposable diapers
feminine hygiene products
36
Q

examples of waste that goes into the biohazard bag?

A

anything saturated with blood/OPIM
vaginal speculums and collection devices
tissue or fluid removed during minor office surgery
microbiologic waste such as specimen cultures and collection devices
discarded live and attenuated vaccines

37
Q

how should a biohazard box be labeled?

A

a warning label that appears on two opposite sides of the box

38
Q

what needs to be included on the biohazard waste form?

A

type and quantity of waste (weighed in pounds)
where it is being sent
signature from rep of medical waste service
signature from rep of medical office

39
Q

common symptoms of all hepatitis?

A

fatigue, nausea, loss of appetite, abdominal pain, and jaundice

40
Q

how does hepatitis b survive outside the body?

A

in a dried state for at least 1 week and can still cause infection. dried blood or body fluids on countertops, equipment and instruments

41
Q

when was the hepatitis c blood test developed?

A

July 1992

42
Q

why do we not have hepatitis c vaccines?

A

it is difficult to develop due to the virus mutating so frequently

43
Q

how effective are antiviral drugs for hepatitis c?

A

40%

44
Q

what happens if individuals are infected with acute hepatitis c?

A

may develop chronic hep c
after 10-20 years develop cirrhosis or liver cancer
may die from liver failure

45
Q

CDC definition of AIDS

A

HIV positive status and a CD4+ Tcell count below 200 cells/uL
(normal count is 500-1500cells/uL)

46
Q

how much foam type alcohol based rub should you use?

A

3 grams for foam or the size of a walnut

47
Q

susceptible host

A

likely to get infection….

48
Q

recap a needle from medication

A

is okay

49
Q

which of the following is a violation of the OSHA standard?

A

eating in the office laboratory

50
Q

what is the name given to a person who cannot fight off a pathogen that has entered his or her body?

A

susceptible host

51
Q

list 5 common types of microorganisms

A

bacteria, viruses, protozoa, fungi, animal parasites

52
Q

define reservoir host

A

one that becomes infected by the pathogen and also serves as a source of transfer of the pathogen

the host provides to grow and multiply

eg. people and animals

53
Q

define susceptible host

A

one who is capable of being infected by the pathogen

the resistance or that contribute to low resistance and increased susceptibility include poor health, poor, hygiene, poor nutrition, stress

54
Q

define means of transmission the in the infection process cycle

A

from one person to another includes direct contact with an infected person or discharge.

Indirect transfer includes the transfer of microorganisms by droplets of moisture expelled from the upper respiratory tract known as droplet infection, when a person coughs, sneezes; contaminated hands and equipment; contaminated food and water; and insects that carry pathogens

55
Q

list 7 protective mechanisms of the body

A

skin barrier

mucous membranes lines the nose, throat, GI tract, genital tract

mucus and cilia in the nose and respiratory tract, mucus traps the smaller microbes and cilia beat toward outside to remove from body

coughing and sweating

tears and sweat

urine and vaginal secretions are acidic

stomach acids

56
Q

when to apply an alcohol based hand rub

A

before direct patient contact
after contact with patient’s skin
before or after gloves
after contact with body fluids obviously
when moving from a contaminated body site to a clean body site during patient care
after contact with inanimate objects when providing health care to a patient

57
Q

stupid soap dispenser

A

do not add soap to a partially empty liquid soap dispenser. topping off can lead to bacteria contamination of soap

correct procedure is either dispose of an empty dispenser or to rinse an empty dispenser thoroughly and then refill it

58
Q

define resident flora

A

normal flora resides in dermis
harmless nonpathogenic
difficult to remove

59
Q

define transient flora

A

picked up from external source
resides in epidermis
pathogenic
easy to remove with proper had hygiene

60
Q

CDC recommends hand washing for how long

A

at least 15 seconds

birthday song x2

61
Q

define antiseptic

A

an agent that functions to kill or inhibit growth of microbes

antimicrobial soaps deposits an antibacterial film on skin that discourages bacterial growth

62
Q

how much alcohol is in hand sanitizers

A

60-90% alcohol

ethanol or isopropanol

63
Q

trim fingernails

A

1/4”

64
Q

define contaminated

A

presence or reasonably anticipated presence of blood or OPIM on an item or surface

65
Q

define decontaminated

A

the use of physical or chemical means to remove, inactivate, or destroy pathogens on a surface or item to the point where they are no longer capable of transmitting infectious particles and the surface or item is rendered safe for handling use or disposal

66
Q

define postexposure prophylaxis and use Hepatitis B as example

A

treatment administered to individual after exposure to an infectious disease to prevent the disease

24hours - 7 days

Hep B exposure:
passive immunizing agent provides temporary immunity to Hep B. giving the active agent a chance to take effect.
hepatitis B immune globulin HBIG contains antibodies that provide immunity to hepatitis B for 1 to 3 months

active immunizing agent in hep B vaccine produced from altered yeast cells named Recombivax HB and Energix-B is given IM in a series of three doses at 0, 1mth, 6 mth

67
Q

opportunistic infection

A

an infection that results from a defective immune system that cannot defend itself from pathogens normally found in the environment

68
Q

HIV screening

A

enzyme immunoassay and enzyme linked immunosorbent assay

Fundamentals & Clinical Procedures (12 decks)

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