Ch 2 Cells involved in Immune Responses Flashcards

1
Q

what are the pro B cell surface markers?

A

CD 43, CD19, CD20

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2
Q

what are the pre B cell surface markers?

A

CD 43, CD19, CD20, pre-BCR, cytoplasmic u chain

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3
Q

what are the surface markers for immature naive B cells?

A

CD19, CD20, IgM

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4
Q

what are the surface markers for a mature naive B cell?

A

CD19, CD20, IgM, IgD

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5
Q

what stage of B cell development does RAG and TdT perform their actions?

A

Pro

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6
Q

what stage of B cell development hosts heavy chain rearrangement? Light chain?

A

Pro; pre (k or lambda)

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7
Q

what chemokine is expressed on naive mature B cells and what attracts that to the lymph node?

A

CXCL5 on B cells; CXCL13 gradient created by follicular DC in lymph node follicles

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8
Q

where does class switching and somatic hypermutation take place?

A

germinal centers of lymph node follicles

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9
Q

what survival factor maintains plasma cells?

A

BAFF

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10
Q

what survival factor maintains memory B cells?

A

BCL2

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11
Q

what process determines if an Ig is membrane bound or secreted?

A

alternative splicing of primary mRNA transcript; transmembrane and cytoplasmic exons remain in for membrane-bound; spliced out for secreted

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12
Q

what are the survival signals for B cells in the periphery and their receptors?

A

BAFF, BLYSS, APRIL. Receptors: BR3, TACI (early on), BCMA (later)

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13
Q

what are B1 cells?

A

innate; T cell independent; produce natural antibodies of low affinity that respond to microbes and lipids; found in peritoneal cavity and fetus

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14
Q

what are marginal zone B cells?

A

T cell independent; first responders to polysaccharide antigens (develop by 2 years of age…why infants have poor polysaccharide responses)

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15
Q

what are B2 cells?

A

conventional or follicular B cells, including memory B cells and plasma cells; adaptive; T cell dependent; protein antigens

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16
Q

what is the name of the molecule that commits T cells to develop?

A

Notch

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17
Q

what chemokine is expressed by naive T cells and what is the chemokine gradient in nodes?

A

CCR7 directed by CCL19/21 in perifollicular T cell zone (produced by stromal cells in T cell zone); DC in T cell zone express CCL19 and CCL18 (binds to CCR3 on naive T cells)

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18
Q

what are markers of central memory T cells?

A

CD45RA-, CD27+, CCR7+, CD62L+; effector memory T cells lack all aforementioned markers and home to the peripheral sites

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19
Q

expression of what draws T cells out of lymph node and back into circulation?

A

SIP1 via sphingosine-1-phosphate concentration gradient; SIP1 is internalized if T cell binds cognate MHC

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20
Q

describe intrinsic pathway of lymphocyte apoptosis

A

intracellular stress-> Bim -> Bax/BAK-> cytochrome C-> caspase 9 -> caspase 3; Bcl-2 and Bcl-XL inhibits Bax/BAK

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21
Q

desribe extrinsic pathway of lymphocyte apoptosis

A

lethal ligands and/or repeated lymphocyte activation leads to binding FasL (CD178) to Fas (CD95) -> caspase 8 -> caspase 3

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22
Q

which cell is CD14++; CD16-

A

monocytes; CD14 is part of TLR4 and LPS receptor

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23
Q

what are chemokines that attract monocytes to lungs?

A

CCL2, 3, 4 & 5

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24
Q

what do macrophages typically express on their surface

A

CD14, CD16, CD11b/18 (Mac-1), CD33 and CD 36

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25
Q

CD 14

A

highly expressed on monocytes and macrophages; part of TLR4; binds LPS and activates innate immune responses

26
Q

what cytokine promotes granuloma formation and what cell secretes it?

A

TNFa; secreted by macrophages

27
Q

what disease process leads to uncontrolled activation of macrophages?

A

hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis (HLH)

28
Q

what are criteria for HLH?

A

fever, splenomegaly, elevated ferritin (>500), cytopenia of >2 cell lines, hypertriglyceridemia or hypofibrinogenemia, hemophagocytosis on smear/bone marow, hepatitis, low NK cells, soluble CD25 (IL2 R) >2400

29
Q

what virus leads to fatal HLH? and in what immunodeficiency? What is the mutation?

A

EBV leads to fatal HLH in boys with XLP; mutation is SH2D1A-> encodes SAP protein

30
Q

what are distinguishing markers for plasmacytoid DCs?

A

CD 123 (lack CD11c); conventional have CD11c, CD1, CD13, CD14; Langerhans and insterstitial dendritic cells also epxress CD11c

31
Q

what is CD1? what chromosome is it mapped to?

A

MHC-like molecules that present non-peptide antigens (lipids) to T cells; maps to MHC locus on chromosome 15

32
Q

what immunohistochemical staining would identify Langerhans histiocytosis?

A

CD1a; CD207

33
Q

True or False: FCeR1 is expressed on mast cells, basophils and eosinophils?

A

False; not expressed on eos

34
Q

which cell produces PGD2 when activated? and what is the function?

A

mast cells (not basos or eos); bronchocontriction; vasodilation and increased permeability; LTB4 is also unique to mast cells and is a neutrophil and T cell chemoattractant

35
Q

which cell produces PGE2 when activated?

A

eos (not basos or mast cells); opposite effect of PGD2; inhibits 5 lipoxygenase activation

36
Q

what lipid mediators are common to mast cells, basos and eos?

A

LTC4, LTD4, LTE4; also PAF; thromboxane is made by mast cells and eos, but not basos

37
Q

what is c-kit? what is its receptor? what is a pharmacologic target for this?

A

c-kit is a proto-oncogene; binds kit receptor; imatinib targets

38
Q

what are the mast cell preformed mediators

A

histamine, tryptase, chymase, carboxypeptidase, cathepsin G

39
Q

where can you find MCtc?

A

think connective tissue; skin, intestinal and respiratory SUBmucosa, conjunctiva, blood vessels, synovium

40
Q

where can you find MCt?

A

alveolar and GI mucosa

41
Q

what is the low-affinity IgE receptor?

A

FcERII; CD 23

42
Q

what allergen has been shown to cleave CD23?

A

Der-p-1; cleaves from cell surface which serves to increase the production of allergen specific IgE

43
Q

what % reduction is needed in IgE to see clinical efficacy with omalizumab? What is omalizumab?

A

96% reduction (may take many months; IgG to IgE

44
Q

describe the FCeRI complex?

A

Can exist as tetramer (a (binds the Fc portion of IgE), b and 2 y chains (main signaling component) or trimer (a and 2 y chains)

45
Q

what is a key receptor that distinguishes MCtc from MCt?

A

C5a receptor (CD88)

46
Q

what is an important growth factor for basophils?

A

IL-3 (binds to IL-3R aka CD123)

47
Q

what are the markers measured for basophil activation test?

A

CD203c; CD 63

48
Q

what is the transcription factor for eos development and what brings them to tissue?

A

GATA1; CCL-5 (Rantes) and CCL11 (eotaxin1) and CCL24 (eotaxin2)

49
Q

what factors are known to suppress eosinophilia?

A

bacterial and viral infections (except HIV), fever and steroids

50
Q

what are neutrophil attractants?

A

CXCL8 (IL8) and LTB4 (also T cell chemotaxis)

51
Q

which granules are enlarged in Chediak Higashi?

A

primary (azurophilic); contain MPO, defensins, cathelidins, cathepsin

52
Q

what aspect of platelets are targeted by antibodies in ITP? TTP?

A

GP2b3a; ADAMTS13

53
Q

what are the layers of the epidermis?

A

Basale, Spinosum, Granulosum, Lucidum, Corneum; Mnemonic: Before Signing Get Legal Counsel

54
Q

what are key cytokines secreted by epithelial cells?

A

TSLP, IL33, GM-CSF, IL-25

55
Q

what is the target antigen for pemphigus vulgaris? pemphigus foliaceous? Location?

A

IgG and IgM targeting Desmoglein 3; IgG to desmoglein 1; located in desmosome

56
Q

what is the target antigen for bullous pemphigoid, including pemphigoid gestationis?

A

IgG (linear at BMZ) to BP 230 or BP180; located in hemidesmosome

57
Q

what is the target antigen for dermatitis herpetiformis? what disease process?

A

granular IgA to transglutaminase; celiac (linear IgA is seen in IgA bullous dermatoses)

58
Q

what is the CD nomenclature, adhesion molecule location, ligand and ligand location for E-, P- and L-selectin?

A

CD62E (endothelium), P (endothelium), L (leukocytes); Ligand for E and P = sialyl lewis x on leukocytes; L selectin binds Sialyl Lewis X on GlyCam1/MadCam1 on HEVs

59
Q

what are the 3 key integrins for transmigration of leukocytes? what do they bind and where?

A

Integrins are all expressed on leukocytes; LFA1 (CD11aCD18) binds to ICAMs in endothelium; VLA4 binds to VCAMs in endothelium; A4b7 binds to MadCam1 in Gut epithelium

60
Q

what does airway smooth muscle upregulate in steroid resistant asthma?

A

glucocorticoid receptor B (inhib receptor)