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Kaplan Biology > Ch 2,3- Reproduction and Embryogenesis > Flashcards

Ch 2,3- Reproduction and Embryogenesis Flashcards

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1
Q

2 Groups of mammals that birth their young differently (development wise)

A

Prototherians (monotremes) and metatherians (marsupials)

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2
Q

Echidna (spiny anteater) and duckbilled platypus are examples of

A

Prototherians (monotremes) (oviparity)

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3
Q

Group of mammals that encase their developing embryos within hard-shelled amniotic eggs and lay them to be hatcehd

A

Prototherians (monotremes)

Method of development call oviparity

Examples includes duck billed platypus and echidna (spiny anteater)

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4
Q

Koalas and Kangaroos are called

A

Marsupials (metatherians)

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5
Q

“undergoes some development in its mother’s uterus and then climbs its way out of the birth canal and into her marsupium, or pouch. ”

A

metatherian (marsupial)

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6
Q

Autosomal cells in animals are said to be

A

diplod (2n)

-2 copies of each chromosome

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7
Q

Germ cells in animals are

A

Haploid (n)

-only 1 copy of each chromosome

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8
Q

“a specific series of phases during which a cell grows, synthesizes DNA, and divides”

A

Cell cycle

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9
Q

“Derangements of the cell cycle can lead to unchecked cell division and may be responsible for”

A

Cancer

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10
Q

4 stages of the cell cycle

A

G1, S, G2, M

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11
Q

The first 3 stages of the cell cycle (G1, S, G2) are known as

A

Interphase

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12
Q

The longest part of the cell cycle is

A

Interphase (G1 , S , G2)

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13
Q

“Cells that do not divide spend all of their time in an offshoot of G1 called ”

A

G0

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14
Q

The cell is simply living and serving its function, without any preparation for division in what stage?

A

G0

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15
Q

Interphase chromosomes look like

A

Less condensed form (chromatin)

-Not visible with light microscopy

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16
Q

2 Main things that occur during G1 stage

A
  1. Cell create organelles for energy and protein production

2. Cell grows

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17
Q

Passage into s phase is governed by a

A

restriction point (The G1/S Checkpoint)

Is the DNA good enough to replicate?

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18
Q

“the cell replicates its genetic material so that each daughter cell will have identical copies during what stage

A

S phase

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19
Q

“After replication, each chromosome consists of two identical

A

chromatids

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20
Q

chromatids are bound together at a specialized region known as the

A

centromere

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21
Q

TF: Cells entering g2 have twice as much DNA as cell in G1

A

True

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22
Q

“The term chromosome may be used to refer to ”

A
  • A chromatid before s phase

- A pair of chromatids attached at the centromere after s phase

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23
Q

2 checks that occur in G2

A
  1. Did Dna replicate correctly?

2. Are there enough organelles and cytoplasm to divide

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24
Q

M stage consists of

A

Mitosis with cytokinesis

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25
Q

4 stages of mitosis

A 
Prophase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase 
(PMAT)
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26
Q

In autosomal cells mitosis results in

A

2 identical daughter cells

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27
Q

2 Main checkpoints of the cell cycle

A

G1/S (restriction point)

and G2/M

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28
Q

Main protein in control of arresting cell cycle at the checkpoints

A

p53

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29
Q

Checkpoint where cell is concerned with ensuring cell achieved adequate size and organelles have been properly replicated to support 2 daughter cells

A

G2/M

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30
Q

Molecules responsible for the cell cycle are known as

A

Cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CDK)

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31
Q

“In order to be activated, CDKs require the presence of the right”

A

Cyclins

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32
Q

Name the pathway to move to the next cell cycle

A
  1. Cyclins bind to CDK (creates an activated CDK-Cyclin complex
  2. Complex phosphorylates transcription factors
  3. Transcription factors promote gene transcription needed for the next state
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33
Q

“One of the most common mutations found in cancer is

A

mutation of the gene that produces p53 called TP53

-Cell cycle not stopped to repair damaged DNA

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34
Q

“genes that, when mutated, actively promote cell division”

A

Oncogenes

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35
Q

Genes that when mutated lose their ability to regulate or pause the cell cycle

A

Tumor Supressor Genes

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36
Q

2 types of cancer causing genes

A

Oncogenes and Tumor-Suppressing Genes

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37
Q

After anaphase (Chromatids split) chromatids are called

A

Chromosomes

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38
Q

Meiosis results in

A

4 non-identical cells

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39
Q

After s phase how many chromatids and chromosomes in humans

A

92 Chromatids, 46 chromosomes

Organized into 23 homologous pairs

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40
Q

3 Things that happen in Prophase 1

A
  1. Chromatin condenses into chromosomes
  2. Spindle apparatus forms
  3. Nuclear membrane dissaperars
  4. Synapsis (homologous chromosomes come together)
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41
Q

Synaptic pairs in prophase 1 is referred to as

A

Tetrads

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42
Q

Crossing over happens at the

A

Chiasma (points of synapsis)

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43
Q

Exchanging equivalent pieces of DNA at the chiasma

A

Crossing over

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44
Q

“tendency for genes to be inherited together”

A

linkage

Broken in recombinations and increases genetic variety

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45
Q

“genes that are located further from each other physically are”

A

Less likely to be inherited together

-more likely to cross over

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46
Q

Advantage of sexual reproduction

A

Genetic diversity

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47
Q

“genes coding for alternative forms of a given trait”

A

Allele

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48
Q

Crossing over explains what law

A

Mendels second low of inheritance (independent assortment)

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49
Q

Mendels second law of inheritance is

A

Law of independent assortment

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50
Q

“states that the inheritance of one allele has no effect on the likelihood of inheriting certain alleles for other genes.”

A

Law of independent assortment (2nd law)

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51
Q

“During metaphase I, homologous pairs (tetrads) align at the ”

A

Metaphase plate

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52
Q

Each pair of a homologous chromosome during metaphase 1 attaches to a separate spindle fiber by its

A

kinetochore

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53
Q

“in meiosis, homologous chromosomes are lined up across from each other at the metaphase plate and are held by”

A

one spindle fiber

-in mitosis each chromosome at the metaphase from is lined up by 2 spindle fibers (one from each pole)

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54
Q

During anaphase 1 what happens

A

Homologous pairs separate

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55
Q

Homologous pairs separate in a process called

A

Disjunction

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56
Q

Disjunction (where homologous pairs separate) accounts for what law

A

Mendel first law

Law of segregation

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57
Q

Meiosis 2 is very similar to what

A

Mitosis

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58
Q

What stage is the reductional division in?

A

Meiosis 1

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59
Q

Events that happens in Telophase 1

A

Nuclear membrane forms around each new nucleous

Cells are now haploid (n)

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60
Q

A short rest period in between cell divisions where chromosomes partially uncoil

A

Interkinesis

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61
Q

During anaphase______get pulled apart

A

Sister chromatids

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62
Q

Sex linked disorder are

A

X-linked

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63
Q

Males are termed

A

Hemizygous (only one copy of gene on ex chromosome)

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64
Q

Most x-linked disorders are

A

recessively inherited

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65
Q

“Females carrying a diseased allele on an X-chromosome, but not exhibiting the disease, are said to be”

A

Carriers

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66
Q

One notable gene on the Y chromosome

A

SRY Gene
(sex-determining region Y)

Codes for a transcription factor that initiates testes differentiation (male gonad differentiation)

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67
Q

A father will pass y-linked diseases to

A

All his sons

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68
Q

2 functional components of the tests

A

Seminiferous tubules and interstitial cells (Of Leydig)

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69
Q

Sperm are produced in the coiled

A

Seminiferous tubules

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70
Q

Noroushes sperm in the seminiferous tubules

A

Sertoli Cells

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71
Q

Lydig cells secrete

A

Testosterones and Androgens

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72
Q

“As sperm are formed, they are passed to the _______ where their flagella gain motility, and they are then stored until ejaculation”

A

Epididymis

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73
Q

“During ejaculation, sperm travel through the ___________ to the _______ at the posterior edge of the prostate gland.”

A

Vas deferens, Ejaculatory Duct (at posterior prostate)

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74
Q

Pathway of sperm through the male reproductive system

A

Seven Up

Seminiferous tubules
Epididymis
Vas deferens (also called the ductus deferens)
Ejaculatory duct
(Nothing)
Urethra
Penis
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75
Q

Sperm is mixed with

A

Seminal fluid

Produced by seminal vesicles, prostate glade, and bulbourethral glands

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76
Q

3 glands that make the seminal fluid in male reproductive system

A

seminal vesicles, prostate glade, and bulbourethral glands

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77
Q

Gland that contribute fructose to nourish sperm and give fluid alkaline properties

A

Seminal vesicles

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78
Q

“give the fluid mildly alkaline properties so the sperm will be able to survive in the relative acidity of the female reproductive tract.”

A

Seminal vesicles and prostate gland

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79
Q

“produce a clear viscous fluid that cleans out any remnants of urine and lubricates ”

A

“The bulbourethral (Cowper’s) glands ”

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80
Q

Sperm and seminal fluids are called

A

Semen

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81
Q

Formation of haploid sperm through meiosis

A

Spermatogenesis

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82
Q

Spermatogenesis occurs in the

A

Seminiferous tubules

83
Q

Diploid stem cells are call

A

Spermatogonia (give rise to 4 spermatozoa eventually)

84
Q

Spermatogonia (diploid stem cells) replicated in s phase, after they develop into

A

diploid primary spermatocytes

85
Q

The first meiotic division in spermatogenesis results in

A

Secondary spermatocytes (Haploid)

86
Q

Secondary spermatocytes (haploid) undergo meiosis II to generate

A

Haploid spermatids

87
Q

When spermatids mature they become

A

mature spermatozoa

88
Q

Spermatogenesis results in

A

4 functional sperm for each spermatogonium

89
Q

Parts of a mature sperm

A

head (containing the genetic material),

a midpiece (which generates ATP from fructose)

flagellum (for motility)”

90
Q

Midpeace of the sperm is filled with

A

mitochondria (generates ATP from fructose)

91
Q

“Each sperm head is covered by a cap known as ”

A

Acrosome

  • Derived from the golgi apparatus
  • Necessary to penetrate Ovum
92
Q

Gonads of females

A

Ovaries

93
Q

Ovaries produces

A

Estrogen and progesterone

94
Q

Ovaries consists of thousands of

A

Follicles

95
Q

Follicles in the ovaries are

A

“multilayered sacs that contain, nourish, and protect immature ova (eggs). ”

96
Q

Eggs are ovulated thru the

A

Peritoneal sac

-lines abdominal cavity

97
Q

After ovulation the ova is drawn into the

A

Fallopian tube or Oviduct

98
Q

External female anatomy

A

Vulva

99
Q

“The production of female gametes is known as

A

Oogenesis

100
Q

“By birth, all of the oogonia have already

“undergone DNA replication and are considered

A

Primary oocytes (diploid)

  • just like primary spermatocyte
  • Arrest in prophase 1
101
Q

Once a month one primary oocyte (2n) will complete meiosis I, producing a

A

secondary oocyte and a polar body

-polar body generally doesn’t divide any further

102
Q

“The secondary oocyte, on the other hand, remains arrested in _______ and does not complete the remainder of meiosis II unless _______ occurs.”

A

metaphase II

103
Q

“Oocytes are surrounded by two layers:

A

the zona pellucid (surrounds oocyte itself) (has glycoproteins that protect oocyte and compounds for sperm binding)

and the corona radiate (outside pellucida and layer of cells around oocyte during ovulation)

104
Q

After fertilization

A

“The secondary oocyte undergoes the second meiotic division to split into a mature ovum and another polar body, which will eventually be broken down. ”

105
Q

“Upon completion of meiosis II, the haploid pronuclei of the sperm and the ovum join, creating a diploid

A

zygote

106
Q

“Prior to puberty, the hypothalamus restricts production of

A

gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)

-triggers anterior gland to secrete FSH and LH

107
Q

Gonadotropin releasing hormone stimulates the _______ to produce______ and ________

A

anterior pituitary

Follicle Stimulating (FSH) Hormone and Luteinizing Hormone (LH)

108
Q

“produced by the testes, increases dramatically during puberty, and sperm production begins.”

A

testosterone

109
Q

“FSH in males stimulates _____whereas LH causes____

Excerpt From: Kaplan. “Kaplan MCAT Biology Review: Created for MCAT 2015 (Kaplan Test Prep).” iBooks.

A

the Sertoli cells—-triggers sperm maturation

Interstitial cells to produce testosterone

110
Q

2 roles of testosterone

A
  1. Develops and maintains male reproductive system

2. Results in development of secondary sexual characteristics

111
Q

The ovaries produce what

A

Estrogen and Progesterone

112
Q

In the embryo, estrogens stimulates

A

development of the reproductive tract

113
Q

“secreted in response to FSH, and they result in the development and maintenance of the female reproductive system and female secondary sexual characteristics”

A

Estrogen

114
Q

“In adults, estrogens lead to ”

A

“the thickening of the lining of the uterus (endometrium) each month in preparation for the implantation of a zygote.”

115
Q

Hormone secreted by the corpus luteum

A

Progesterone

116
Q

“involved in the development and maintenance of the endometrium, but not in the initial thickening of the endometrium”

A

Progesterone

“EStrogen EStablishes and PROgesterone PROtects the endometrium.”

117
Q

After 3rd trimester, progesterone is supplied by

A

Placenta

before it was the corpus luteum

118
Q

What are the 3 events of the menstrual cycle

A

Follicular, Ovulation, Luteal Phase

119
Q

The peak of LH marks

A

Ovulation

120
Q

“The follicular phase begins when”

A

“the menstrual flow, which sheds the uterine lining of the previous cycle, begins”

121
Q

“The higher concentrations of GnRH cause

Excerpt From: Kaplan. “Kaplan MCAT Biology Review: Created for MCAT 2015 (Kaplan Test Prep).” iBooks.

A

“increased secretions of both FSH and LH”

122
Q

Estrogen provides negative feedback and decreases

A

GnRH, LH, FSH

123
Q

“Estrogen works to regrow the endometrial lining, stimulating vascularization and glandularization of the

A

decidua (the thick layer of modified mucous membrane that lines the uterus during pregnancy and is shed with the afterbirth)

124
Q

“Eventually, estrogen concentrations reach a threshold that paradoxically results in positive feedback, and GnRH, LH, and FSH levels”

A

Increase

LH surges at day 14 and induces ovulation

125
Q

“After ovulation, LH causes the ruptured follicle to form the”

A

corpus luteum

126
Q

The corpus lute secretes

A

progesterone

127
Q

“The high levels of progesterone from the corpus lute in the Luteal phase again cause

A

Negative feedback on GNRH, FSH, and LH

128
Q

“Assuming that implantation does not occur, the corpus luteum loses its stimulation from LH and

A

progesterone levels decrease.

Loss of high levels of estrogen and progesterone removes block on GnRH

129
Q

“On the other hand, if fertilization has occurred, the resulting ______ will develop into a _________”

A

Zygote, Blastocyst

The blastocyst secretes (hCG)

130
Q

HCG secreted by the _______ maintains the _______

A

Blastocyst, Corpus Luteum

hCG looks chemically similar to LH and stimulates its receptors

131
Q

During the first trimester, what secretes estrogen and progesterone

A

The corpus luteum

132
Q

After second trimester, hug levels decline because

A

Placenta now secretes progesterone and estrogen

continues negative feedback for GnRH

133
Q

Follicles mature during what phase of the menstrual cycel

A

Follicular phase

134
Q

What hormone surge triggers ovulation

A

LH

135
Q

“Ruptured follicle becomes ________, which secretes estrogen and progesterone to build up uterine lining in preparation for implantation; LH and FSH are inhibited”

A

corpus luteum

136
Q

During menopause, because the negative feedback on FSH and LH is removed (estrogen/progesterone levels drop) the blood levels of these two hormones (FSH,LH) ________

A

Go up

137
Q

Once formed, sperm gain motility in the epididymis and are stored there until ejaculation.

A

Epididymis

138
Q

“a modified Golgi apparatus that contains enzymes that help the sperm fuse to and penetrate the ovum.”

A

Acrosome

139
Q

“In males, FSH stimulates the ________and triggers __________”

A

Sertoli Cells, Spermatogenesis

140
Q

In males LH cause the interstitial cells to produce

A

Testosterone

141
Q

In female FSH stimulates development of ________ while LH causes _______

A

Ovarian Follicles, Ovulation

142
Q

“From the time of birth until shortly before ovulation, all egg cells are arrested at the ”

A

Prophase 1 of meiosis

-Referred to as Primary oocytes

143
Q

“At ovulation, the egg cell has completed meiosis I and is now arrested in ________as a haploid cell called a _______

A

Metaphase 2

Secondary Oocyte

144
Q

“The spindle apparatus first interacts with the kinetochore fibers near”

A

The end of prophase

145
Q

“formation of the neural tube is called

A

Neurulation

146
Q

fertilization usually occurs in the wider part of the fallopian tube called the

A

Ampulla

147
Q

“Once the first sperm comes into direct contact with the secondary oocyte’s cell membrane, it forms a tubelike structure known as the”

A

Acrosomal Apparatus

148
Q

“After penetration of the sperm through the cell membrane what happens

A

The cortical reaction occurs

A release of calcium ions

149
Q

What are the 2 purposes of the cortical reaction, where a release of calcium ions occur to depolarize the cell membrane of the ovum

A
  1. Prevents fertilization of the ovum by multiple sperm cells
  2. Increase Ca2+ increases metabolic rate of the newly formed diploid zygote
150
Q

The depolarized and impenetrable membrane is called the

A

Fertilization membrane

151
Q

Form from fertilization of two different eggs released during one ovulatory cycle by two different sperm

A

Dizygotic or fraternal

Each develops its own placenta, chorion, and amnion

“Fraternal twins are no more genetically similar than any other pair of siblings.”

152
Q

“form when a single zygote splits into two. Because the genetic material is identical, so too will be the genomes of the offspring.”

A

Monozygotic or identical twins

153
Q

Monozygotic twins that don’t divide completely

A

Conjoined twins

154
Q

Monochorionic/Monoamniotic twins share the same

A

Amnion and chorion

155
Q

Mono chorionic/Diamniotic twins

A

Have their own amnion but star the same chorion

156
Q

Zygote undergoes rapid mitotic cell divisions in a process called

A

cleavage

157
Q

Although several rounds of mitosis occur, total size of embryo

A

remains unchanged

158
Q

When the embryo divides into progressively smaller cells the cell increases what 2 rations

A

Nuclear to cytoplasmic and surface area to volume ration

Increases area for gas and nutrient exchange

159
Q

2 type of cleavage

A

Indeterminate and determinate cleavage

160
Q

Results in cells that can still develop into complete organisms

A

Indeterminate cleavage

How monozygotic twins are formed

161
Q

Results in cells that are committed to differentiating into a certain type of cell

A

Determinate cleavage

162
Q

After several division the embryo becomes a solid mass of cells known as the

A

Morula

163
Q

Once the morula is formed it undergoes what

A

Blastulation, (forms the blastula)

164
Q

A _______ hollow ball of cells with a fluid filled inner cavity called a ________

A

Blastula, Blastocoel

The mammalian blastula is the blastocyst

An embryo with a BLASTed-out cavity is a blastula

165
Q

The mammalian blastula is known as the _______ and consists of 2 noteworthy cell groups called the _______ and ________

A

Blastocyst

Trophoblast, inner cell mass

166
Q

Surrounds the blastocoel and give rise to the chorion and later the placenta

A

The Trophoblast cells of the blastocyst

the inner cell mass protrudes into the blastocoel (inner space) and gives rise to the organism

167
Q

The trophoblast cells give rise to the

A

Chorion

168
Q

An extra embryonic membrane that develops into the placenta

A

Chorion

The chorion also forms and outer membrane around the amnion

169
Q

Microscopic fignerlike projections that penetrate into the endometrium

A

Chorionic villi (develop into the placenta)

170
Q

The umbilical chord consists of

A

2 arteries and 1 vein

AVA

  • Vein carries oxy blood with nutrients from placenta to embryo
  • Arteries carry deoxy blood and waste to placenta
171
Q

Until the placenta is functional, the embryo is supported by the

A

Yolk Sac (also site of early RBC development)

172
Q

Involved in early fluid exchange between the embryo and the yolk sac

A

Allantois

Surrounded by the amnion

173
Q

Umbilical chord is formed from remnant of

A

yolk sac and allantois

174
Q

Thin tough membrane filled with amniotic fluid

A

Amnion

175
Q

Once the cell mass implants in can begin the generation of 3 distinct cell layers

A

Gastrulation to a gastrula

176
Q

Membrane invagination into the blastocoel is called the

A

Archenteron (later develops in the gut)

177
Q

The opening of the archenteron is call the

A

Blastopore

178
Q

In deuterosomes (like humans) the blastopore develops into the

A

Anus

D for Doo-doo

179
Q

In protostomes the blastopore develops into the

A

Mouth

180
Q

What are the 3 primary germ layers

A

Ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm

181
Q

The outer most layer is call the _______ it gives rise to what

A

Ectoderm

-Skin
-Nervous System
-Inner Ear
-Hair, Nails
-Epithelia of nose, mouth, lower anal canal
-Eyes lens
-Adrenal Medulla (cuz contains some nervous tissue)
(e for epinephrine)

182
Q

The middle germ layer is called the ________ it gives rise to

A

MesoDerm

  • Musculoskeletal
  • Circulatory
  • Excretory Systems
  • Gonads
  • Adrenal Cortex (M for mineralcoricoid)
  • CT of digestive and respiratory

mnemonic: “means”oderm (the means of getting around as an organism, such as bones and muscle; the means of getting around in the body, such as the circulatory system; the means of getting around, such as the gonads

183
Q

The innermost germ layer is called the ________ it gives rise to

A

Endoderm

  • Epithelial linings of digestive and respiratory tracts
  • Liver, pancreas, thyroid, bladder, distal urinary tracts
184
Q

How do cells differentiate?

A

Selective genome transcription

Related to the concept of induction where one group of cell influence the fate of other nearby cells

Mediated by inducers (diffuse from the organizing cells to the responsive cells)

185
Q

After the 3 germ layers are formed what begins?

A

Neurulation (development of the nervous system)

186
Q

Whats the first step of neurulation?

A
  1. Notochord formation

A rod of mesodermal cells (notochord) forms along axis like a primitive spin.

  1. It induces overlying ectodermal cell group to slide inward to form NEURAL FOLDS—These surround a neural groove.

Fuses into a neural tube which gives rise to CNS

187
Q

At the tip of each neural fold are

A

Neural crest cells

Migrate outward to form PNS (sensory ganglia, autonomic ganglia, adrenal medulla, schwann cells)

188
Q

Neural crest cells develop into

A

The peripheral nervous system

189
Q

Commitment of a cell to have a particular function in the future

A

Determination

But not yet actually produces products it needs to carry out functions of the cell (thats differentiation

Presence of diff amounts of specific mRNA and proteins during cleavage may result in this

Can also be by secretion of specific molecules from nearby cells called MORPHOGENS

190
Q

Molecules that may cause nearby cells to follow a particular developmental pathway

A

Morphogens

191
Q

After cell is determined, cell undergoes

A

Differentiation (assumes structures function, and biochemistry of the cell type

192
Q

When a cell is _______it is committed to a particular cell lineage. When the cell _______it assumes the structure, function, and biochemistry of that cell type

A

Determined, Differentiates

key concept

193
Q

Cell that are yet differentiated or which give rise to other cells that will differentiate are known as

A

Stem cells

Exist in embryonic tissues as well as adult tissue

194
Q

The tissues a particular stem cell can differentiate into are determined by its

A

Potency

195
Q

Cells with the greatestt potency are called

A

Totipotent (includes embryonic stem cells)

Can differentiate into any cell type either in fetus or placental structures

196
Q

These cells can differentiate into any cell type except for those found in placental structures

A

Pluripotent stem cells

197
Q

Can differentiate into multiple types of cells within a particular group

A

Multipotent stem cells

198
Q

As cell becomes more differentiated, the potency of the cells gets more

A

Narrower

Totipotent to pluripotent to multipotent

199
Q

A cell that is induced is called

A

Responder

To be induced a responder must be COMPETENT (able to respond to the inducing signal)

200
Q

4 methods of cell to cell communication

A

Autocrine, Paracrine, Juxtacrine, Endocrine

201
Q

Cell to cell signaling that acts on the same cell that secreted the signal in the first place

A

Autocrine

202
Q

Cell to cell signaling that acts on cells in the local area

A

Paracrine

203
Q

Cell to cell signaling that don’t usually involve diffusion but rather cell cell that directly stimulates receptors of the adjacent cell

A

Juxtacrine

204
Q

Cell to cell signaling that involves directly secreting the hormones that travel though the blood stream to a distant target tissue

A

Endocrine

Kaplan Biology (10 decks)

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