Ch. 1-6 Exams from book Flashcards

1
Q
Transitional cell carcinoma is commonly found in all of the following locations except:
Liver
Renal pelvis
Urinary bladder
Ureter
A

Liver

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2
Q
The neuroblastoma is a malignant pediatric mass commonly found in:
Kidney
Liver
Testicle
Adrenal gland
A

Adrenal gland

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3
Q
The pheochromocytoma is a benign mass commonly located in:
Testicle
Thyroid gland
Adrenal gland
Liver
A

Adrenal gland

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4
Q
Which of the following is not considered an intraperitoneal organ?
Liver
Pancreas
Gallbladder
Spleen
A

Pancreas

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5
Q
Which of the following is not considered retroperitoneal organs?
Abdominal lymph nodes
Kidneys
Adrenal glands
Ovaries
A

Ovaries

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6
Q
The hypernephroma may also be referred to as:
Nephroblastoma
Neuroblastoma
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Renal cell carcinoma
A

Renal cell carcinoma

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7
Q
A type of reverberation artifact caused by several small, highly reflective interfaces, such as gas bubbles, describes:
Mirror image artifact
Posterior shadowing
Comet tail artifact
Ring-down artifact
A

Comet tail artifact

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8
Q
The term cholangiocarcinoma denotes:
Bile duct carcinoma
Hepatic carcinoma
Pancreatic carcinoma
Splenic carcinoma
A

Bile duct carcinoma

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9
Q
The hepatoma is a :
Benign tumor of the spleen
Benign tumor of the liver
Malignant tumor of the liver
Malignant tumor of the pancreas
A

Malignant tumor of the liver

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10
Q
The hepatoblastoma is a:
Benign tumor of the pediatric liver
Malginant tumor of the adult liver
Malignant tumor of the pediatric liver
Malignant tumor of the pediatric adrenal gland
A

Malignant tumor of the pediatric liver

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11
Q
A Wilms tumor may also be referred to as a:
Neuroblastoma
Nephroblastoma
Hepatoblastoma
Hepatoma
A

Nephroblastoma

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12
Q
An angiosarcoma would most likely be discovered in the:
Rectum
Gallbladder
Spleen
Pancreas
A

Spleen

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13
Q
A gastrinoma would most likely be discovered in the:
Pancreas
Adrenal gland
Stomach
Spleen
A

Pancreas

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14
Q
The space located behind the liver and stomach, and posterior to the pancreas is the:
Hepatosplenic space
Lesser sac
Greater sac
Supraduodenal space
A

Lesser sac

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15
Q
Of the list below, which is considered to be an intraperitoneal organ?
Left kidney
Aorta
Inferior vena cava
Liver
A

Liver

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16
Q
Of the list below, which is considered to be a malignant testicular neoplasm?
Neuroblastoma
Hepatoma
Yolk sac tumor
Hamartoma
A

Yolk sac tumor

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17
Q
The oncocytoma is a mass noted more commonly in the:
Liver
Adrenal glands
Pancreas
Kidneys
A

Kidneys

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18
Q
These potential spaces extend alongside the ascending and descending colon on both sides of the abdomen:
Paracolic gutters
Periumbilical gutters
Greater gutters
Suprapubic gutters
A

Paracolic gutters

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19
Q
This common tumor of the kidney consists of blood vessels, muscle, and fat:
Hemagioma
Angiomyolipoma
Oncocytoma
Pheochromocytoma
A

Angiomyolipoma

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20
Q
Which of the following is not a pediatric malignant mass?
Hepatoblastoma
Neuroblastoma
Pheochromocytoma
Nephroblastoma
A

Pheochromocytoma

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21
Q
A tumor that consists of tissue from all three germ cell layers is the:
Pheochromocytoma
Oncocytoma
Choriocarcinoma
Teratoma
A

Teratoma

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22
Q
A benign tumor that consists primarily of blood vessels best describes:
Adenocarcinoma
Oncocytoma
Hemangioma
Lymphoma
A

Hemangioma

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23
Q
The insuloma is a:
Malignant pediatric adrenal tumor
Benign pancreatic tumor
Malignant pancreatic tumor
Benign liver tumor
A

Benign pancreatic tumor

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24
Q
A tumor that consists of a group of inflammatory cells best describes the:
Hematoma
Hemangioma
Lymphoma
Granuloma
A

Granuloma

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25
Q
A tumor that consist of a focal collection of blood best describes the:
Hematoma
Hemangioma
Hamartoma
Hepatoma
A

Hematoma

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26
Q
The malignant testicular tumor that consists of trophoblastic cells is the:
Cholangiocarcinoma
Teratoma
Yolk sac tumor
Choriocarcinoma
A

Choriocarcinoma

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27
Q
Which of the following laboratory values would be most helpful in evaluating a patient with recent trauma?
White blood cell count
a-Fetoprotein
Blood urea nitrogen
Hematocrit
A

Hematocrit

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28
Q
Which of the following laboratory values would be most helpful in evaluating a patient with an infection?
White blood cell count
a-Fetoprotein
Blood urea nitrogen
Hematocrit
A

White blood cell count

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29
Q
The artifact most commonly encountered posterior to a gallstone is:
Acoustic enhancement
Shadowing
Ring down
Reverberation
A

Shadowing

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30
Q
A collection of abdominal fluid within the peritoneal cavity often associated with cancer is termed:
Transudate ascites
Peritoneal ascites
Exudate ascites
Chromaffin ascites
A

Exudate ascites

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31
Q
The covering of the liver is referred to as:
Glisson capsule
Gerota fascia
Morison pouch
Hepatic fascia
A

Glisson capsule

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32
Q
The left lobe of the liver can be separated from the right lobe by:
Right hepatic vein
Middle hepatic vein
Left hepatic vein
Falciform ligament
A

Middle hepatic vein

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33
Q
The right lobe of the liver is divided into segments by the:
Middle lobar fissure
Middle hepatic vein
Right hepatic vein
Left hepatic vein
A

Right hepatic vein

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34
Q
The right intersegmental fissure contains the:
Right hepatic vein
Middle hepatic vein
Left portal vein
Right portal vein
A

Right hepatic vein

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35
Q
The main portal vein divides into:
Middle, left, and right branches
Left and right branches
Anterior and posterior branches
Medial and lateral branches
A

Left and right branches

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36
Q

The ligamentum teres can be used to separate the:
Medial and lateral segments of the left lobe
Medial and posterior segments of the right lobe
Anterior and medial segments of the left lobe
Anterior and posterior segments of the right lobe

A

Medial and lateral segments of the left lobe

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37
Q
The main lobar fissure contains the:
Right hepatic vein
Middle hepatic vein
Main portal vein
Right portal vein
A

Middle hepatic vein

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38
Q
All of the following are located within the porta hepatis except:
Main portal vein
Common bile duct
Hepatic artery
Middle hepatic vein
A

Middle hepatic vein

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39
Q
Right-sided heart failure often leads to enlargement of the:
Abdominal aorta
Inferior vena cava and hepatic veins
Inferior vena cava and portal veins
Portal veins and spleen
A

Inferior vena cava and hepatic veins

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40
Q
The right portal vein divides into:
Middle, left, and right branches
Left and right branches
Anterior and posterior branches
Medial and lateral branches
A

Anterior and posterior branches

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41
Q
The diameter of the portal vein should not exceed:
4 mm
8 mm
10 mm
13 mm
A

13 mm

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42
Q
The right lobe of the liver can be divided into:
Medial and lateral segments
Medial and posterior segments
Anterior and medial segments
Anterior and posterior segments
A

Anterior and posterior segments

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43
Q

Which of the following is true concerning the portal veins?
Portal veins carry deoxygenated blood away from the liver
Portal veins have brighter walls than the hepatic veins
Portal veins should demonstrate hepatofugal flow
Portal veins increase in diameter as they approach the diaphragm

A

Portal veins have brighter walls than the hepatic veins

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44
Q
The left lobe of the liver can be divided into:
Medial and lateral segments
Medial and posterior segments
Anterior and medial segments
Anterior and posterior segments
A

Medial and lateral segments

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45
Q
Budd-Chiari syndrome leads to a reduction in the size of the:
Hepatic arteries
Portal veins
Hepatic veins
Common bile duct
A

Hepatic veins

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46
Q
A tonguelike extension of the right lobe of the liver is termed:
Papillary lobe
Focal hepatomegaly
Riedel lobe
Morison lobe
A

Riedel lobe

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47
Q
The left portal vein divides into:
Middle, left, and right branches
Left and right branches
Anterior and posterior branches
Medial and lateral branches
A

Medial and lateral branches

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48
Q
The left umbilical vein after birth becomes the:
Falciform ligament
Main lobar fissure
Ligamentum teres
Ligamentum venosum
A

Ligamentum teres

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49
Q
The inferior extension of the caudate lobe is referred to as:
Papillary process
Focal hepatomegaly
Riedel process
Morison lobe
A

Riedel process

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50
Q
Clinical findings of fatty infiltration of the liver include:
Elevated liver function tests
Fever
Fatigue 
Weight loss
A

Elevated liver function tests

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51
Q
Shortly after birth, the ductus venosus collapses and becomes the:
Falciform ligament
Main lobar fissure
Ligamentum teres
Ligamentum venosum
A

Falciform ligament

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52
Q
Sonographically, when the liver is difficult to penetrate and diffusely echogenic, this is indicative of:
Portal vein thrombosis
Metastatic liver disease
Primary liver carcinoma
Fatty liver disease
A

Fatty liver disease

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53
Q
The most common cause of cirrhosis is:
Portal hypertension
Hepatitis
Alcoholism
Cholangitis
A

Alcoholism

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54
Q
Clinical findings of hepatitis include all of the following except:
Jaundice
Fever
Chills
Pericholecystic fluid
A

Pericholecystic fluid

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55
Q
Immunocompromised patients are more prone to develop which form of hepatic abnormality?
Hepatic adenoma
Amebic abscess
Hydatid liver abscess
Candidiasis
A

Candidiasis

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56
Q
All of the following are sequel of cirrhosis except:
Portal vein thrombosis
Hepatic artery enlargement
Portal hypertension
Splenomegaly
A

Hepatic artery enlargement

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57
Q

Normal flow toward the liver in the portal veins is termed:
Hepatopetal
Hepatofugal

A

Hepatopetal

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58
Q
Which of the following is the most common form of liver cancer?
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Metastatic liver disease
Hepatoblastoma
A

Metastatic liver disease

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59
Q
Which hepatic mass is closely associated with oral contraceptive use?
Hepatic adenoma
Hepatic hypernephroma
Hepatic hamartoma
Hepatic hemangioma
A

Hepatic adenoma

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60
Q
All of the following are clinical findings of hepatocellular carcinoma except:
Reduction in a-fetoprotein
Unexplained weight loss
Fever
Cirrhosis
A

Reduction in a-fetoprotein

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61
Q
A 71-yr-old pt presents to the ER with painless jaundice and an enlarged, palpable gallbladder. These findings are highly suspicious for:
Acute cholecystitis
Chronic cholecystitis
Courvoisier gallbladder
Porcelain gallbladder
A

Courvoisier gallbladder

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62
Q
The innermost layer of the gallbladder wall is the:
Fibromuscular layer
Mucosal layer
Serosal layer
Muscularis layer
A

Mucosal layer

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63
Q
The cystic artery is a branch of the:
Main pancreatic artery
Celiac artery
Right hepatic artery
Left hepatic artery
A

Right hepatic artery

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64
Q
The middle layer of the gallbladder wall is the:
Fibromuscular layer
Mucosal layer
Serosal layer
Muscularis layer
A

Fibromuscular layer

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65
Q
Which structure is a useful landmark for identifying the gallbladder?
Main lobar fissure
Hepatoduodenal ligament
Falciform ligament
LIgamentum venosum
A

Main lobar fissure

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66
Q
What hormone causes the gallbladder to contract?
Estrogen
Cholecystokinin
Bilirubin
Biliverdin
A

Cholecystokinin

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67
Q
The gallbladder wall should measure no more than:
5 mm
6 mm
4 mm
3 mm
A

3 mm

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68
Q
The direct blood supply to the gallbladder is the:
Cholecystic artery
Common hepatic artery
Main portal vein
Cystic artery
A

Cystic artery

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69
Q
The outermost layer of the gallbladder wall is the:
Fibromuscular layer
Mucosal layer
Serosal layer
Muscularis layer
A

Serosal layer

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70
Q
Hartmann pouch involves which part of the gallbladder:
Neck
Fundus
Body
Phrygian cap
A

Neck

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71
Q
The gallbladder is connected to the biliary tree by the:
Common hepatic duct
Common bile duct
Cystic duct
Right hepatic duct
A

Cystic duct

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72
Q
The junctional fold is found at which level of the gallbladder:
Neck 
Fundus
Body
Phrygian cap
A

Neck

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73
Q
What is/are cholelithiasis?
Inflammation of the gallbladder
Gallstones
Hyperplasia of the gallbladder wall
Stones within the biliary tree
A

Gallstones

74
Q
The most common variant of gallbladder shape is the:
Phrygian cap
Hartmann pouch
Septated gallbladder
Junctional fold
A

Phrygian cap

75
Q
The diameter of the gallbladder should not exceed:
8 cm
5 cm
7 mm
3 cm
A

5 cm

76
Q
Acute cholecystitis that leads to necrosis and abscess development within the gallbladder wall describes:
Emphysematous cholecystitis
Gangrenous cholecystitis
Chronic cholecystitis
Gallbladder perforation
A

Gangrenous cholecystitis

77
Q
All of the following are sources of diffuse gallbladder wall thickening except:
Malignant ascites
AIDS
Hepatitis
Adenomyomatosis
A

Malignant ascites

78
Q

Which statement is not true of cholelithiasis?
Men have an increased likelihood of developing cholelithiasis
Patients who have been or are pregnant have an increased occurrence of cholelithiasis
A rapid weight loss may increase the likelihood of developing cholelithiasis
Patients who have hemolytic disorders have an increased occurrence of cholelithiasis

A

Men have an increased likelihood of developing cholelithiasis

79
Q

WES sign denotes:
The presence of a gallstone lodged in the cystic duct
Multiple biliary stones and biliary dilatation
A gallbladder filled with cholelithiasis
The sonographic sign of a porcelain gallbladder

A

A gallbladder filled with cholelithiasis

80
Q
All of the following are sources of diffuse gallbladder wall thickening except:
Benign ascites
Hepatitis
Congestive heart failure
Gallbladder polyp
A

Gallbladder polyp

81
Q
Tumefactive sludge can resemble the sonographic appearance of:
Cholelithiasis
Gallbladder carcinoma
Cholecystits
Adenomyomatosis
A

Gallbladder carcinoma

82
Q
The sequel of acute cholecystitis that is complicated by gas within the gallbladder wall is:
Emphysematous cholecystitis
Membranous cholecystitis
Chronic cholecystitis
Gallbladder perforation
A

Emphysematous cholecystitis

83
Q
A 32-yr-old female pt presents to the sonography department with vague abdominal pain. The sonographic investigation of the gallbladder reveals a focal area of gallbladder wall thickening that produces comet tail artifact. These findings are consistent with:
Gangrenous cholecystitis
Gallbladder perforation
Acalculous cholecystitis
Adenomyomatosis
A

Adenomyomatosis

84
Q
Intermittent obstruction of the cystic duct by a gallstone results in:
Emphysematous cholecystitis
Gangrenous cholecystitis
Chronic cholecystitis
Acute cholecystitis
A

Chronic cholecystitis

85
Q
A nonmobile, nonshadowing focus is seen within the gallbladder lumen. This most likely represents a:
Gallstone
Gallbadder carcinoma
Gallbadder polyp
Sludge ball
A

Gallbladder polyp

86
Q
Focal tenderness over the gallbladder with probe pressure describes:
Murphy sign
Strawberry sing
Courvoisier sign
Hydrops sign
A

Murphy sign

87
Q
The sequel of acute cholecystitis that is found more often in diabetic patients is:
Emphysematous cholecystitis
Gangrenous cholecystitis
Chronic cholecystitis
Gallbladder perforation
A

Emphysematous cholecystitis

88
Q
Cholesterol crystals within the Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses are found with:
Acute cholecystitis
Acalculous cholecystitis
Adenomyomatosis
Gallbladder perforation
A

Adenomyomatosis

89
Q
The spiral valves of Heister are found within the:
Gallbladder neck
Cystic duct
Gallbladder fundus
Gallbladder wall
A

Cystic duct

90
Q
Couvoisier's gallbladder is associated with which of the following:
A pancreatic head mass
A stone in the cystic duct
Cholecystitis
Chronic diverticulitis
A

A pancreatic head mass

91
Q
A congenital disease in which there is narrowing or obliteration of the bile ducts is referred to as:
Caroli disease
Mirizzi disease
Choledochal cysts
Biliary atresia
A

Biliary atresia

92
Q
Primary biliary tree cancer is referred to as:
GB carcinoma
Biloma
Cholangiocarcinoma
Lymphangioma
A

Cholangiocarcinoma

93
Q
The merging point of the pancreatic duct and common bile duct at the level of duodenum is referred to as the:
Sphincter of Oddi
Ampulla of Vater
Common bile duct
Cystic duct
A

Ampulla of Vater

94
Q
A gallstone located within the biliary tree is referred to as:
Cholecystitis
Choledocholithiasis
Cholangitis
Cholangiocarcinoma
A

Choledocholithiasis

95
Q
The yellowish staining of the whites of the eyes and the skin 2ndary to a liver disorder or biliary obstruction is referred to as:
AIDS cholangitis
Pruritis
Jaundice
Bilirubinemia
A

Jaundice

96
Q

The Klatskin tumor is located:
At the junction of the right and left hepatic ducts
At the junction of the cystic and common bile duct
At the junction of the common bile duct and common hepatic duct
Between the pancreatic head and duodenum

A

At the junction of the right and left hepatic ducts

97
Q
Inflammation of the bile ducts is referred to as:
Pneumobilia
Choledocholithiasis
Cholelithiasis
Cholangitis
A

Cholangitis

98
Q
A pt presents with jaundice, pain, and fever, 2ndary to an impacted stone in the cystic duct. This is referred to as:
Caroli syndrome
Mirizzi syndrome
Choledochal cysts
Biliary atresia
A

Mirizzi syndrome

99
Q
Air within the biliary tree is referred to as:
Pneumobilia
Cholangitis
Choledocholithiasis
Cholesterolosis
A

Pneumobilia

100
Q
The spiral valves of Heister are located within the:
Common bile duct
Pancreatic duct
Common hepatic duct
Cystic duct
A

Cystic duct

101
Q
If a gallstone, causing obstruction, is located within the distal common hepatic duct, which of the following would become dilated?
Common bile duct only
Gallbladder only
Intrahepatic ducts
All of the above
A

Intrahepatic ducts

102
Q
Which of the following is considered the most proximal portion of the biliary tree?
Intrahepatic radicles
Cystic duct
Common hepatic duct
Common bile duct
A

Intrahepatic radicles

103
Q
Which of the following would be the most distal portion of the biliary tree?
Common bile duct
Common hepatic duct
Gallbladder
Intrahepatic radicles
A

Common bile duct

104
Q
If an obstructive biliary calculus is located within the distal common duct, which of the following could ultimately dilate?
Common bile duct
Gallbladder
Common hepatic duct
All of the above
A

All of the above

105
Q
The gallbladder is connected to the biliary tree by the:
Cystic duct
Ampulla of Vater
Sphincter of Oddi
Common bile duct
A

Cystic duct

106
Q

The most common level for biliary obstruction to occur is the:
Junction of the right and left hepatic ducts
Proximal common hepatic duct
Distal common bile duct
Cystic duct

A

Distal common bile duct

107
Q
A 32-yr-old female pt presents to the US department with a hx of fever, leukocytosis, and right upper quadrant pain. Sonographically, you visualize dilated bile ducts that have thickened walls and contain sludge. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Choledocholithiasis
Cholangitis
Mirizzi syndrome
Biliary atresia
A

Cholangitis

108
Q
Sonographically, you visualize scattered echogenic linear structures within the liver parenchyma that produce ring-down artifact. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Pneumobilia
Choledocholithiasis
Sludge balls
Cholesterolosis
A

Pneumobilia

109
Q
A 64-yr-old man presents to the US department for a RUQ sonogram. He's complaining of abdominal pain, weight loss, and pruritus. Sonographically, you visualize an area of dilated ducts that abruptly end. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Biliary atresia
Choledocholithiasis
Caroli syndrome
Cholangiocarcinoma
A

Cholangiocarcinoma

110
Q
An abdominal sonogram is ordered on an infant in the intensive care unit who is suffering from jaundice and fever. Sonographically, you visualize a cystic mass within the CBD that's causing focal enlargement. This is most suggestive of:
Cholangiocarcinoma
Mirizzi syndrome
Choledochal cyst
Biliary atresia
A

Choledochal cyst

111
Q
All of the following are clinical findings consistent with cholangiocarcinoma except:
Pruritus
Weight loss
Elevated bilirubin
Dilation of the intrahepatic ducts
A

Dilation of the intrahepatic ducts

112
Q
Which of the following is not associated with the development of pneumobilia?
Cholangiopneumonia
Gastric surgery
Acute cholecystitis
Fistula formation
A

Choangiopneumonia

113
Q
A Klatskin tumor is a form of:
Lymphocytic carcinoma
Cholangiocarcinoma
Pancreatic carcinoma
Gallbladder carcinoma
A

Cholangiocarcinoma

114
Q
The biliary duct wall should never measure more that:
2 mm
9 mm
4 mm
5 mm
A

5 mm

115
Q
Clinical findings of choledocholithiasis include all of the following except:
Jaundice
Elevated bilirubin
Elevated blood urea nitrogen
Elevated alkaline phosphatase
A

Elevated blood urea nitrogen

116
Q

Which segment of the biliary tree tends to dilate first with obstruction?
Intrahepatic
Extrahepatic

A

Extrahepatic

117
Q
Which of the following is not a plausible cause of common bile duct obstruction in adults?
Choledocholithiasis
Chronic pancreatitis
Choledochal cyst
Pancreatic carcinoma
A

Choledochal cyst

118
Q
All of the following are forms of cholangitis except:
Acute bacterial
AIDS
Oriental
Parabolic
A

Parabolic

119
Q
The yellow pigment found in bile that is produced by the breakdown of old red blood cells by the liver is:
Alkaline phosphatase
Bilirubin
Cholesterol
Chyme
A

Bilirubin

120
Q
For patients older than age 60, or those who have had a cholecystectomy, a maximum diameter of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ may be considered normal.
1 cm
12 mm
14 mm
1.5 cm
A

1 cm

121
Q
All of the following are part of the exocrine function of the pancreas except for the:
Production of lipase
Production of glucagon
Production of amylase
Production of sodium bicarbonate
A

Production of glucagon

122
Q
What is an additional name for the accessory duct of the pancreas?
Duct of Santorini
Duct of Langerhans
Duct of Oddi
Duct of Wirsung
A

Duct of Santorini

123
Q

Which of the following is associated with development of cysts within the pancreas?
Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease
Von Hippel-LIndau disease
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography

A

Von Hippel-Lindau disease

124
Q
The most common form of malignancy of the pancreas is:
Cystadenocarcinoma
Islet cell tumors
Cystadenoma
Adenocarcinoma
A

Islet cell tumors

125
Q
The most common location of adenocarcinoma of the pancreas is within the:
Head of the pancreas
Neck of the pancreas
Body of the pancreas
All of the above
A

Head of the pancreas

126
Q
The most common location of  focal pancreatitis is within the:
Head of the pancreas
Neck of the pancreas
Body of the pancreas
Tail of the pancreas
A

Head of the pancreas

127
Q
All of the following are sonographic features of chronic pancreatitis except:
Dilated pancreatic duct
Calcifications within the pancreas
Pancreatic pseudocyst
Diffusely hypoechoic pancreas
A

Diffusely hypoechoic pancreas

128
Q
All of the following are classic clinical features of acute pancreatitis except:
Leukocytosis
Back pain
Weight gain
Fever
A

Weight gain

129
Q
Which of the laboratory value listed below appears to be more specific for acute pancreatitis?
Amylase
Lipase
AST
SGOT
A

Lipase

130
Q
One of the most common locations for pancreatic pseudocyst is within the:
Paracolic gutters
Groin
Spleen
Lesser sac
A

Lesser sac

131
Q
Which of the following is the most common islet cell tumor?
Granuloma
Gastrinoma
Insulinoma
Cystadenoma
A

Insulinoma

132
Q

Courvoisier gallbladder is found in the presence of:
Hepatitis
Cholecystitis and chronic pancreatitis
Adenocarcinoma in the head of the pancreas
Islet cell tumor in the tail of the pancreas

A

Adenocarcinoma in the head of the pancreas

133
Q

A gastrinoma of the pancreas can produce:
Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease
Von Hippel-Lindau disease
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
Hyperinsulinemia

A

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

134
Q
The muscle that controls the emptying of bile and pancreatic juices into the duodenum is the:
Sphincter of Vater
Sphincter of Oddi
Ampula of Vater
Ampulla of Oddi
A

Sphincter of Oddi

135
Q
What is the name for the main pancreatic duct?
Duct of Santorini
Duct of Langerhans
Duct of Oddi
Duct of Wirsung
A

Duct of Wirsung

136
Q
All of the following are clinical findings associated with pancreatic adenocarcinoma except:
Epigastric pain
Weight loss
Jaundice
Decrease amylase and lipase
A

Decrease amylase and lipase

137
Q
The portion of the bowel that encompasses the head of the pancreas is the:
Duodenum
Jejunum
Ileum
Cecum
A

Duodenum

138
Q
Which cells carry out the exocrine function of the pancrease?
Whipple cells
Isles of Langerhans
Delta cells
Acinar cells
A

Acinar cells

139
Q
The most common echogenicity of an acutely inflamed pancreas is:
Anechoic
Hyperechoic
Hypoechoic
Calcified
A

Hypoechoic

140
Q
The arterial blood supply to the head of the pancreas is via the:
Superior mesenteric artery
Splenic artery
Gastroduodenal artery
Hepatic artery
A

Gastroduodenal artery

141
Q
One clinical signe of an insulinoma is the presence of:
Low blood sugar symptoms
Elevated alpha-fetoprotein
Hepatitis
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
A

Low blood sugar symptoms

142
Q
What is the early sonographic appearance of acute pancreatitis?
Calcifications within the gland
Pancreatic pseudocyst
Normal
Hyperechoic glandular echotexture
A

Normal

143
Q
Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma of the pancreas are most often located within which parts of the pancreas?
Uncinate process and neck
Head and neck
Body and tail
Fundus and nec
A

Body and tail

144
Q
Co-existing obstruction of the common bile duct and pancreatic duct may be referred to as the:
Double-barrel shotgun sign
Courvoisier sign
Mirizzi sign
Double-duct sign
A

Double-duct sign

145
Q

Courvoisier gallbladder is:
Enlargement of the pancreatic duct 2ndary to co-existing masses within the pancreatic body and gallbladder
Palpable gallbladder caused by biliary obstruction in the area of the pancreatic head
Gallbladder disorder associated with the buildup of cholesterol crystals within the gallbladder wall
Type of gallbladder carcinoma that is the result of chronic cholecystitis

A

Palpable gallbladder caused by biliary obstruction in the area of the pancreatic head

146
Q

The pancreas is an:
Intraperitoneal organ
Retroperitoneal organ

A

Retroperitoneal organ

147
Q
Which part of the pancreas is located right lateral to superior mesenteric vein, anterior to inferior vena cava, and inferior to portal vein?
Head
Neck
Body
Tail
A

Head

148
Q
The pancreatic tail is outlined posteriorly by what vascular structure?
Superior mesenteric artery
Inferior mesenteric vein
Portal confluence
Splenic vein
A

Splenic vein

149
Q
Which part of the pancreas is located anterior to portal confluence?
Uncinate process
Pancreatic body
Pancreatic neck
Pancreatic tail
A

Pancreatic neck

150
Q
Which of the following is the hormone released by the pancreas that encourages the body's use of glucagon?
Insulin
Somatostatin
Glycogen
Sodium bicarbonate
A

Insulin

151
Q
A 25-yr-old female pt presents to the US department for a complete abdominal sonogram. She complains of RLQ pain and nausea. The right upper abdomen appears normal. A small mass is noted in the area of the splenic hilum. This mass appears isoechoic to the spleen. What does this most likely represent?
Pancreatic cystadenocarcinoma
Splenic hemangioma
Accessory spleen
Neuroblastoma
A

Accessory spleen

152
Q
A rare malignant tumor of the spleen that consists of blood vessels is a/an:
Lymphoma
Angiosarcoma
Hemangioma
Granuloma
A

Angiosarcoma

153
Q
A 48-yr-old male pt with a hx of severe, sudden onset of LUQ pain without trauma presents to the US department for a sonogram of the spleen. You visualize a wedge-shaped, hypoechoic area within the spleen. This most likely represents a:
Splenic infarct
Splenic hematoma
Splenic hemangioma
Splenic metastasis
A

Splenic infarct

154
Q
What is the most common sonographic appearance of a splenic hemangioma?
Echogenic
Hypoechoic
Anechoic
Complex
A

Echogenic

155
Q
The process of making red blood cells is termed:
Erythropoiesis
Leukopoiesis
Histopoiesis
Anemia
A

Erythropoiesis

156
Q

The splenic artery marks the:
Posterior aspect of the pancreatic body and tail
Superior aspect of the pancreatic body and tail
Medial surface of the pancreatic body and tail
Lateral aspect of the pancreatic body and tail

A

Superior aspect of the pancreatic body and tail

157
Q
The most common cause of splenomegaly is:
Hepatitis
Portal hypertension
Lymphoma
Trauma
A

Portal hypertension

158
Q
The type of tissue within the spleen that is responsible for its phagocytic function is:
Red pulp
White pulp
Culling pulp
Pitting pulp
A

Red pulp

159
Q
A 32-yr-old female pt presents to the US dept for an abdominal sonogram. An evaluation of the spleen reveals a 1-cm, rounded, echogenic mass that doesn't produce acoustic shadowing. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Pheochromocytoma
Lipoma
Splenic metastasis
Hemangioma
A

Hemangioma

160
Q

The spleen is a/an:
Intraperitoneal organ
Retroperitoneal organ

A

Intraperitoneal organ

161
Q
The type of tissue w/in the spleen that is responsible for its lymphatic function is the:
Red pulp
White pulp
Culling segment
Pitting segment
A

White pulp

162
Q

The splenic vein marks the:
Posterior aspect of the pancreatic body and tail
Anterior aspect of the pancreatic body and tail
Medial surface of the pancreatic body and tail
Lateral aspect of the pancreatic body and tail

A

Posterior aspect of the pancreatic body and tail

163
Q
All of the following are functions of the spleen except:
Storage of iron
Defense against disease
Blood reservoir
Destruction of phagocytic cells
A

Destruction of phagocytic cells

164
Q
Where is the most common location of an accessory spleen?
Superior to the spleen
Medial to the diaphragm and left kidney
Splenic hilum
Anterior to the pancreatic body
A

Splenic hilum

165
Q
All of the following can be associated with splenomegaly except:
Trauma
Hemolytic abnormalities
Mononucleousis
Pancreatitis
A

Pancreatitis

166
Q
Diffuse involvement of lymphoma or leukemia of the spleen will often lead to:
Splenomegaly
Splenic atrophy
Epstein-Barr infection
Splenic torsion
A

Splenomegaly

167
Q
The splenic artery originates at the:
Superior mesenteric artery
Inferior phrenic artery
Celiac trunk
Gastroduodenal artery
A

Celiac trunk

168
Q
A 35-yr-old male pt presents to the US dept for an abdominal sonogram w/ a hx of abdominal pain and histoplasmosis. What are you more likely to identify w/in the spleen?
Multiple histomas
Multiple hemangiomas
Multiple metastatic lesions
Multiple granulomas
A

Multiple granulomas

169
Q
A 14-yr-old male pt presents to the US dept after falling from his bicycle. An abdominal sonogram reveals a complex-appearing mass w/in the spleen. This most likely represents a:
Splenic hemangioma
Splenic granuloma
Splenic hematoma
Splenic infarct
A

Splenic hematoma

170
Q
Sickle cell disease will often lead to:
Splenic metastasis
Sarcoidosis
Splenomegaly
Wandering spleen
A

Splenomegaly

171
Q

Epstein-Barr infection is best described as:
A herpesvirus that can lead to infectious monomucleosis in children
A herpesvirus that is often associated w/ splenic granulomatous disease
An infection that results in sickle cell anemia in children
An infection w/in a splenic hematoma following blunt trauma

A

A herpesvirus that can lead to infectious mononucleosis in children

172
Q
The spleen removes irregular cells from the bloodstream and retains them through a process called:
Pitting
Culling
Crimping
Amassing
A

Culling

173
Q
An area w/in the spleen that has become necrotic b/c of a lack of oxygen is referred to as a:
Splenic hemangioma
Splenic hematoma
Splenic infarct
Granuloma
A

Splenic infarct

174
Q
What systemic disease results in the development of granulomas w/in the spleen and throughout the body?
Granulomatosis
Sarcoidosis
Sickle cell anemia
Hisoplasmosis
A

Sarcoidosis

175
Q
A complex cyst that results from the parasitic infestation of the spleen by a tapeworm is the:
Bacterial endocarditic cyst
Choledochal cyst
Hydatid cyst
Candidiasis
A

Hydatid cyst

176
Q
From the list below, what's the most likely clinical finding of a pt who has a splenic hemangioma?
Fever
Decreased hematocrit
Elevated white blood cell count
None
A

Elevated white blood cell count

177
Q
In a pt w/ suspected lymphoma, the presence of Reed-Sternberb cells indicates:
Hodgkin lymphoma
Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
Metastatic liver disease
Splenic infarction
A

Hodgkin lymphoma

178
Q

All of the following are true of the spleen except:
It’s the largest structure of the reticuloendothelial system
The primary objective of the spleen is to filter the peripheral blood
The spleen has a convex inferior margin and a concave superior border
The spleen is considered the largest lymphatic organ

A

The spleen has a convex inferior margin and a concave superior border

179
Q
The splenic vein joins w/ what structure posterior the pancreatic neck to form the portal vein?
Inferior mesenteric artery
Superior mesenteric vein
Inferior mesenteric artery
Main hepatic vein
A

Superior mesenteric vein

180
Q
Small echogenic foci scattered throughout the spleen most likely represent:
Multiple benign hemagioma
Multiple benign hematomas
Multiple benign granulomas
Malignant lymphoma
A

Multiple benign granulomas