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vtt 115 - clin path 2 > cestodes and immunology > Flashcards

cestodes and immunology Flashcards

1
Q

common name for cestodes

A

tapeworms

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2
Q

head of tapeworm? segments?

A

scolex; proglottis

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3
Q

Why can tapeworm infection be missed if a gross fecal exam is not done

A

Intact proglottids are too heavy to float

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4
Q

What effects do tapeworms have on the host

A
  • intestinal obstruction
  • injury to intestinal mucosa (enteritis)
  • interfere with absorption of nutrients
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5
Q

Name the genus for 5 kinds of tapeworm and tell what the definitive host species is

A

dipylidium (dogs and cats)
taenia (dogs and cats)
echinococcus (dogs and cats)
anaplocephala (horse)
monezia (ruminants)

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6
Q

Besides worming the animal, what must be done to prevent reinfection with cestodes?

A

control the intermediate host

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7
Q

intermediate host for dipylidium

A

fleas

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8
Q

intermediate host for taenia

A

rabbits and rodents

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9
Q

intermediate host for echinococcus

A

sheep, deer, elk, humans

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10
Q

intermediate host for large animal tapeworms

A

mites

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11
Q

immunology

A

cells from other organisms have proteins on the surface that are recognized by an animal’s immune system as not belonging to the animal’s body

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12
Q

antigens

A

proteins not wanted in the body

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13
Q

antibody

A

fit the shape of antigen to remove it

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14
Q

sensitivity

A

Ability to correctly identify all animals that are truly positive for a given reaction procedure

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15
Q

Specificity

A

Measures the number of false positives produced with a given reaction procedure

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16
Q

sensitivity vs specificity

A
  • highly sensitive tests are prone to false positives
  • highly specific tests are prone to false negatives
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17
Q

sample collection tubes

A

Red top- serum
Lavender- plasma unless otherwise noted
Green top- if heparinized plasma is requested

18
Q

serum handling

A

● Clot for 20 to 30 minutes at room temperature
● Centrifuge for 10 minutes at ≤1500 rpm

19
Q

plasma handling

A

● Centrifuge immediately after collection
* Pipette serum or plasma into a transfer tube and label
* Freeze or refrigerate for later use

20
Q

ELISA

A

● most commonly used in vet practice
● accurate way to detect specific antigens: viruses, bacteria, parasites hormones
- test for antibody in serum: contains heart worm, feline leukemia, FIV, Parvo, progesterone

21
Q

CELISA

A

● Uses patient antigen
● Uses enzyme-labeled antigens, as well as monoclonal antibodies
● Intensity of color varies with concentration
● equine infectious Anemia

22
Q

latex agglutination

A
  • uses small, spherical latex particles coated with an antigen suspended in water
  • if serum containing the correct antibody is added, agglutination occurs
  • bovine brucellosis
23
Q

false negatives can occur

A

when excessive amounts of antigen or antibody are present

24
Q

prozone phenomenon

A

excess antibody: it is possible that each antibody molecule binds with only one or two antibodies and does not cross-link so that agglutination does not occur

excess antigen: can result in lack of cross linking when the excess antigen surrounds any small clumps that may form

25
Q

lateral flow immunoassay

A

● Uses colloidal gold, enzymes, and color reagents or agglutinated latex particles
● Antibodies present in the membrane of the test cassette where sample is applied.
● Positive results show two areas of color, test, and control.

26
Q

immunology analyzers

A

● Are available for practices but are not common - Some only read test results
● Larger units are used in reference laboratories
● Can read multiple tests at once
● Many automated analyzers use the principles of chemiluminescence

27
Q

Chemiluminescence

A

● Principle similar to the ELISA method except that the test uses a substrate that reacts to produce light
● Amount of light produced can be quantified
● Used for detection and quantification of pathogens as well as other substances
- Thyroid hormones, cortisol, pancreatic lipase, progesterone, and testosterone

28
Q

Coomb’s test

A

detects the presence of autoantibodies

29
Q

Direct Coombs’ reaction

A
  • detects antibodies that attack RBC’s
  • positive test: Immune-mediated hemolytic disease
30
Q

indirect Coomb’s

A
  • detects circulating antibodies
  • positive test: antibodies against body’s own tissue
31
Q

immunodiffusion

A
  • Patient serum and antigen placed in separate wells on an agar plate
  • Both diffuse through the agar and form a band of precipitation where they meet
  • no band = no antibody present
  • detects: equine infectious anemia and johne’s disease
32
Q

Radioimmunoassay

A

● Mainly used in research and diagnostic laboratories.
● Similar to CELISA but uses a radioisotope instead of an enzyme.
● Antigen is labeled with a radioisotope and an antibody.
● Radioactivity is measured and compared with a standard curve to determine the concentration of antigen in the patient’s serum.

33
Q

Fluorescent Antibody Testing

A

● Not common in veterinary practice but available in reference laboratories
● Used to verify a tentative diagnosis
- two tests: direct and indirect
- Patient sample added to a fluorescent dye- conjugated antigen
- Examined microscopically for fluorescence

34
Q

Antibody Titers

A

● Not routinely performed
● May be needed to distinguish between active infection and prior exposure
● Used when reliable antigen test not available
● Can be used to determine need for revaccination

35
Q

titer

A

greatest dilution at which a sample no longer yield a positive result

36
Q

Molecular Diagnostics

A

● Analyze DNA and RNA
● Many state diagnostic laboratories offer testing

37
Q

molecular diagnostics DNA tests are used to

A
  • identify cancers
  • detect genetic defects
  • pedigrees
  • bacterial contaminants in food
38
Q

advantages to molecular diagnostics

A
  • increased sensitivity and specificity
  • small samples
  • faster results
39
Q

disadvantages to molecular diagnostics

A
  • contamination gives false positives
  • high levels of expertise to run tests
  • high cost
40
Q

Reverse Transcriptase Polymerase Chain Reaction

A
  • similar to PCR but tests single-stranded RNA
  • must first be converted to double-stranded DNA before PCR can continue
41
Q

Real-Time Polymerase Chain Reaction

A

● Decreases the risk of contamination
● More easily automated
● Faster and easier to run
● fluorescence probe attaches to DNA segments

42
Q

Polymerase Chain Reaction

A

● Small amount of DNA detected is amplified to better run the test and determine results.
● Three steps:
- Denaturation
- Annealing
- Extension
- Process repeated 25 to 30 times to gain enough DNA

vtt 115 - clin path 2 (7 decks)

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