CEN Maxillofacial, Ocular, ortho and wound emergencies Flashcards

1
Q

An adult striked with vehicle bumper would most likely have _______ _______fractures but a child would most likely have _____ fractures too

A

tibia and fibular fracture; femur

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2
Q

Fast moving potentially fatal infection involving the floor of the mouth and neck is called_______; spreads to _____ ______ ______ as well… _____ should be consulted

A

Ludgwig’s Angina; pericardium, mediastinum; pleural cavity. ENT

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3
Q

Causes of Ludwig’s angina

A

untreated dental absess
ABT resistant dental abscess
trauma to the mouth.

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4
Q

Patient with periorbital cellulitis needs to be monitored for ________ , _______, and __________

A

blindness, intracranial abscess and carvenous sinus thrombosis

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5
Q

Patient with conjunctivitis needs to be monitored for ______ and _______

A

decreased vision

corneal ulceration

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6
Q

Pt diagnosed with iritis and uveitis you need to monitor for

A

vision loss

macular edema

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7
Q

Pt diagnosed with glaucoma needs to be monitored for

A

visual impairments, including blind spots, tunnel vision and total blindness.

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8
Q

What is an avulsion injury?

A

involve peeling of the skin from underlying tissues

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9
Q

Degloving injury is when the

A

skin separates completely from the underlying tissue

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10
Q

Degloving injury is common in patients who are on ______ in this case it is important to use __________dressing such as

A

corticosteroids therapy; occlusive; tegaderm

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11
Q

A tooth fracture involving only the enamel is classified as

A

Ellis I

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12
Q

A tooth fracture involving the dentin and the enamel is classified as

A

Ellis II

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13
Q

A tooth fracture involving the pulp, the dentin and the enamel is classified as

A

Ellis III

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14
Q

During the phalen test, the wrist is flexed for ____minute while the patient is asked to _______

A

wrist is flexed for one minute, report usual symptoms if precipitated.

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15
Q

Phalen test, what is recorded

A

the time take for symptoms to appear

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16
Q

When is the Phalen test positive?

A

When the patient experiences a tingling sensation in the MEDIAL NERVE over the hand.

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17
Q

What is CARPAL TUNNEL SYNDROME

A

compression neuropathy of the wrist’s median nerve

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18
Q

The outer ear and the medial ear are connected by the

A

External auditory canal

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19
Q

The external ear and middle ear are divided by

The middle ear and the throat are linked by

A

The TYMPANIC MEMBRANE

Eustachian tube

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20
Q

Foreign piece embedded to the skin should NOT be

A

Soaked

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21
Q

What is the waddell triad?

A

high velocity accidents, chest/abdomen, head and femurs.

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22
Q

What should be used to remove ocular foreign bodies that have rust rings present? if NO RUST RING, what should be used? _______, _______ and _______ and after treatment, you should monitor the patient for a ________ , an _______ or ______

A

OPHTHALMIC DRILL; moist cotton-tipped swab; sterile needle, foreign body removal instrument; corneal ulcer, infection; scarring.

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23
Q

The maxilla facial bones house the ________sinus and the _____ _____ and forms the ________ ; and the ________cavity

A

Maxillary; upper teeth; roof of the oral cavity ; nasal

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24
Q

The frontal bone houses the _______sinuses which also forms the roof of the _______sinuses

A

frontal; ethnoid

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25
Q

The lower teeth are housed by the

A

Mandible

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26
Q

Patient has injured pelvis , you should initially immobilize the patient by using a

A

Long spine board

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27
Q

__________is used to initially immobilize a patient with injured clavicle

A

Figure eight splint

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28
Q

_________is used to initially immobilize a patient who has injured his spine

A

Stiff cervical collar

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29
Q

___________splint would be used to initially immobilize a patient who has injured his foot, ankle, tibia or fibula

A

Air

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30
Q

When the patient is standing upright, where should the CANE reach if it is sized appropriate

A

The patient’s wrist.

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31
Q

The cane should be held in the

A

opposite the injured site

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32
Q

When walking, the ______ and the ______should move together

A

cane; injured leg

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33
Q

Bones serves at the primary storage site for which of the following?______ and ______

A

Calcium and phosphate

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34
Q

Patient with a CENTRAL RETINAL ARTERY OCCLUSION need _______to improve the outflow of aqueous humor

A

CHOLINERGIC agent

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35
Q

A cholinergic agent would be used to _______The pupils which results in an _________outflow of aqueous humor

A

constrict; improved/increased

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36
Q

For improving aqueous humor flow, if the patient has light color eyes use _____solution

A

2%

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37
Q

For improving aqueous humor flow, if the patient has dark color eyes use _____solution

A

4%

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38
Q

Which type of medications decrease aqueous humor PRODUCTION? Which medications decrease aqueous humor SECRETION

A

Beta-blockers; CARBONIC ANHYDRASE INHIBITORS

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39
Q

_________ increases the delivery of oxygen to the ischemic tissues and dilate the retinal arterioles

A

CARBOGEN GAS

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40
Q

2 most important independent risk factors for osteoporosis

A

age

low bone mineral density

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41
Q

First line of therapies for osteoporosis

A

Alendronate

Risedronate

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42
Q

When is LDH release?

A

Whenever there is muscle injury

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43
Q

ALKALINE PHOSPHATASE in increased when?

A

A patient’s metabolic bone activity has increased

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44
Q

When force is applied to a large surface areal; it results in ______ (more or less) tissue damage than if would if the same force was applied to a small surface area

A

less

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45
Q

4 types of collision occur during a vehicular collision (ABCD)

A

Auto
Body
Cavity contents
Debris

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46
Q

Cold therapy does what?

A

It increases the patient’s pain threshold

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47
Q

The decrease of muscle spasms, inflammation and blood flow for the use of cold therapy limits _____ and ______

A

hemorrhage; swelling.

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48
Q

Which time frame for injury can you apply cold therapy to prior to splint applications?

A

occurred less than 24 to 48hours

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49
Q

In traumatic amputation: APPROPRIATE INTERVENTION FOR AMPUTATED PART is to ?

A

Place in a WATERTIGHT container over an ICED SALINE BATH

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50
Q

Amputated part should be kept_____and never be put directly on

A

Dry; ice

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51
Q

Infection that developed near root of eyelash is _______and it is an infection of the eyelid _____

A

HORDEOLUM (STY) : oil gland;

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52
Q

When the eyelid has a small circumscribed cysts formed by retention of meibomian gland secretions?

A

Chalazion

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53
Q

3 clinical manifestations of TRIGEMINAL NEURALGIA

A
  • Facial grimacing during episodes
  • Painful paroxysmal tic
  • little to no sensory loss along the trigeminal nerve
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54
Q

For neurologic disorder, bleeding gum is symptom of

A

Temporal arteritis

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55
Q

For neurologic disorder, increased sensitivity to noise is symptom of

A

Bell’s PALSY

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56
Q

For neurologic disorder, ______ ________ are a clinical presenation for herpes zoster oticus symptom of

A

Herpetiform vesicles

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57
Q

The diagnostic test that provides the best view of a patient’s inferior orbital rims/maxillary sinues and the nasoethmoidal bones

A

Water’s view

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58
Q

The diagnostic test that provides the SIX LANDMARK FOR EVALUATION of facial symmetry

A

SUBMENTAL VERTICAL VIEW

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59
Q

The diagnostic test that provides view of the frontal sinus and the superior orbital rim

A

CALDWELL VIEW

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60
Q

To view the ZYGOMA and ZYGOMATIC ARCH use

A

zygomatic radiography

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61
Q

In regards to spider bites

A

All spiders are poisonous

62
Q

The 2 spiders humans need to be wary of

A

Black widow spider

Brown recluse spider

63
Q

The black widow spider bite may cause severe pain within _______the brown recluse spider bite may cause pain _____ ____after the bite. Black widow spider bite will _______WBC, brown secluse spider will _______WBC

A

15mns; 3-4 hours; increase; decrease

64
Q

What is the normal intraocular pressure______ and it is measured by a _________

A

10-21 mmhg ; tonometer

65
Q

The higher the intraocular pressure, the greater the risk for _________

A

compression of optic nerve

66
Q

It is important to examine the optic nerve regardless of the

A

Intraocular pressure.

67
Q

Retinal artery occlusion is associated with -______ ______ ______and is a ________. Circulation must be restored within _)____ to ______ to prevent blindness

A

SUDDEN, PAINLESS, UNILATERAL BLINDNESS ;, medical emergency 60-90

68
Q

When a patient is bitten by venomous snake you should:

A

Immobilize the bitten area below the level of the heart.

69
Q

Which of 2 bones are connected by cartilaginous joints?

A

RIBS and SPINE>

70
Q

Bones connected by fibrous joings

A

skull, pelvis, ulnar.

71
Q

The radius and ulna are ______Which is a type of fibrous joints.

A

syndesmoses

72
Q

Heat therapy

A
  • not used that are less than 48 hours old
  • used to relax tight muscles
  • used for injury that do not include inflammation or swelling
  • not used when bleeding disorder are present.
73
Q

Comprised of 80% of adult’s bone mass______ and _____account for 20% of total bone mass and is rod and plate like elements

A

Cortical bone: Trabecular bone

74
Q

A hard splint is best described as _________Ex:
A soft splint is best described as ______Ex:
An air splint is best described as _______Ex:
A traction splint is best described as _____Ex

A

Firm and rigid; (elbow injury)
nonrigid
inflatable (foot injury)
ability to support factors while providing traction. (femur and hip injury)

75
Q

Gout causes joint pain in ankles wrist, elbows, heels NOT in ______recurrent gout can lead to _______

A

Shoulders; gouty arthritis.

76
Q

What are the 3 stages of gout

A

Symptomatic hyperuricemia
acute
tophaceous

77
Q

Electric shock sensation is a sing of which condition?

A

Trigeminal neuralgia

78
Q

Hearing loss, and loss of sensation of one side of the mouth

A

TEMPORAL ARTERITIS

79
Q

Collection of purulent material around the tonsils consistent with

A

Peritonsillar abscess

80
Q

There are 3 types of bone cell, which one is responsible for BUILDING NEW BONES>

A

osteoBLASTS

81
Q

The bone cell responsible for MAINTAINING BONE TISSUE

A

osteoCYTES

82
Q

The bone cell responsible for MAINTAINING BONE RESORPTION

A

osteoCLASTS

83
Q

Group I Laryngeal trauma
Group II laryngeal trauma
Group III laryngeal trauma
Group IV laryngeal trauma

A

no fracture, simple hematomas and lacerations
Minor mucosal disruption, hematoma, swelling
Exposed cartilage, vocal cord immobility, massive swelling
Disruption of anterior larynx, unstable fracture, severe mucosal injuries.

84
Q

What does the cornea relies on for nourishment_______. Does it contain blood vessels?

A

TEARS
AQUEOUS HUMOR
No it doesn’t

85
Q

What is the eye first and most powerful lens

A

CORNEA

86
Q

Inflammation of the CORNEA is called______

A

KERATITIS

87
Q

2 things that increases the risk of Keratitis

A

Use of contact lenses

Exposure to UV light.

88
Q

what should be considered for complex facial wounds

A

Plastic surgery consultation

89
Q

For face, wound closure can be delayed for up to

and Laceration should be closed within

A

20 hours

4-6 hours

90
Q

Inflammation of a rib and sternal junction

A

Costochondritis.

91
Q

Sinus pressure around the forehead , sinuses most likely responsible are

A

Frontal sinuses.

92
Q

Where are the ETHMOID sinuses located__________

Where are the SPHENOID sinuses located

A

Bridge of the nose

behind the nose

93
Q

A second degree sprain is when a patient has a partial

A first degree sprain is when a patient little

A

LIGAMENT TEAR

Tearing with good stability

94
Q

Where are the Maxillary sinuses located

A

around the cheeks.

95
Q

Aching and throbbing pain is

tinging and burning sensation pain

A

NOCICEPTIVE pain

NEUROPATHIC

96
Q

When removing a stinger (bee stinger) from a patient, you should do so by _________and it should be done by scrapping in the _____________ of the angle of the penetration

A

Scraping the skin; opposite direction of the angle of the penetration.

97
Q

Fluid buildup in the inner ear in an area known as the labyrinth

A

Meniere’s disease

98
Q

What is the most disabling symptom of Meniere’s disease

A

Vertigo

99
Q

____________ examination is used to evaluate cornea
_________Examine intraocular structures of the eye
________Examination is to magnified eyes structure

A

fluorescein examination
Ocular sonography
SLIT LAMP

100
Q

Which nerves controls the act of swallowing_____

Which nerve control the tongue’s MOTOR function

A

VAGUS

Hypoglossal

101
Q

Scaphoid injury patient should be fitted for _____
Severe wrist injury patient should be fitter for ______
Carpal fracture or dislocation for ______

A

SPICA splint
COAPTATION splint
radial gutter splint.

102
Q

Create a high pressure wound_____

Causes a projective missing wound_______

A

Paint gun

Nail gun

103
Q

Ocular emergency characterized by increased intraocular pressure leading the COMPRESSION of the OPTIC NERVE

A

Acute angle closure glaucoma

104
Q

wound that is 5 centimeters deep and 2 cm wide

A

PUNCTURE WOUND , not a laceration

105
Q

__________linked to equilibrium , balance and hearing

A

ACOUSTIC NERVE

106
Q

_________Links to One’s face and taste of the anterior 2/3 of tonge

A

FACIAL nerve

107
Q

Patient wearing only _________would have bladder rupture, bowel perforation, lower thoracic fracture

A

LAB BELTS.

108
Q

Which of the medications should NOT BE RECOMMENDED for gout?________Recommended meds ______and _____

A

ASPIRIN; Ibuprofen, prednisone.

109
Q

Pupil allow for__________

Optic nerve responsible for _______

A

light to enter the eye

transfer for visual information

110
Q

The VOCAL CORD are contained in which part of the pharynx?

A

LARYNX

111
Q

Prevents food and irritants from entering lung

A

EPIGLOTTIS

112
Q

If an infant’s cry cannot be explained,_______Could be a result

A

CORNEAL ABRASION

113
Q

Has three lateral processes medial, inferior, posterior?

A

ZYGOMA

114
Q

Responsible for mastication and speech

A

MASSETER muscle

115
Q

Muscle to bone connection

Bone to bone connection

A

TENDONS

Ligaments

116
Q

The only mobile bone in the facial skeleton

A

MANDIBLE

117
Q

Tetanus infection managed with

A

Antitoxins
ABT
Vaccination

118
Q

Patient with tetanus presents with

A

lock JAW

hypertonia, painful muscle contractions of jaw and neck

119
Q

In regards to using CRUTCHES the patient should NOT

A

rest weight on axillary area.

120
Q

The crutches should be ______inches in front of the body walking. There should be ___ to ___- inches between the axilla and the top of the crutches. The crutch’s hand rests should b positioned so that the user’s elbow are bent at a ____degree angle

A

12; 1-1/2 inch ; 30

121
Q

The BIGGEST concern with nasal foreign bodies in pediatric patients

A

ASPIRATION

122
Q

What are the four Rs of fractures
The six Ps of neurovascular assessment
Ortho management RICE

A

Reduction
Recognition
Retention
Rehabilitation

Pain, pallor, paresthesia, paralysis, pulses, polar

Rest Ice Compression elevation

123
Q

Which parts of the INNER EAR contains balance receptors

A

Vestibule

Semicircular canal

124
Q

Where does the auditory transduction, the conversion of acoustic energy to electrochemical energy takes place______
which one contains the hearing nerve________

A

Labirynthine cavity

Cochlea

125
Q

To look for calcific deposits in tendinitis, what tests should be used______sensitivity ______

A

Xray; 90%

126
Q

Seeing FLOATERS and LIGHT FLASHES in the visual fields__________

A

RETINAL DETACHMENT

127
Q

Abnormal high fluid pressure causing the patient to experience headaches, eye redness, decreased vision or HALOS or excessive TEARING

A

Glaucoma

128
Q

Patient cannot move MUSCLES on one side (Paralysis of one side of face) of his face it is _________and it is caused by trauma to which nerve

A

BELL’S PALSY; 7th

129
Q

Facial nerve disorder in which the face experiences excruciating pain that recurs and increases its frequency and severity

A

Trigeminal Neuralgia

130
Q

Common systemic vasculitis of the facial area is known as

A

Temporal arteritis.

131
Q

What are the 2 sets of sinuses that are present at birth

A

Ethnoid and maxillary sinuses

132
Q

Frontal sinus develops before the age of

A

seven

133
Q

Patient on ciprofloxacin, or any fluroquinolones should be watch for _________also if they are receiving direct steroid injections to tendons

A

Achilles tendon rupture.

134
Q

When a clot becomes dislodged following tooth extraction, it is known as_______and it is the result of _________ appears about 3-4_______after tooth extraction.

A

ALVEOLAR OSTEITIS or

Dry socket ; osteomyelitis.

135
Q

During bicycle collision, the handlebars generally causes _______and_______injuries generally occur due to straddling the bike during a collision

A

Blunt trauma; perineal

136
Q

The frontal facial bone forms_________and also the roof of the ______, the orbit and the ________sinuses

A

Cranium’s anterior portion; nose, ethnoid.

137
Q

Tennis elbow aka _______ _______ is an elbow tendinitis, and is caused by _______

A

Lateral Epicondylitis; overuse of elbow

138
Q

Shoulder tendinitis aka_________ Patellar tendinitis aka ________is also referred to as ___________

A

Rotator cuff tendinitis; knee tendinitis ; Jumper’s knee

139
Q

Le FORTE II FRACTURE is characterized by

A

facial elongation
anterior cheek paresthesia
CSF leakage
Diminished EOM

140
Q

Le FORTE I FRACTURE is characterized by

A
Upper lip numbness
Epistaxis
bruising
malocclusion
Crepitus
141
Q

Le FORTE III FRACTURE is characterized by

A
Facial elongation and flattening with MASSIVE EDEMA
An anterior open bite
Free floating SEGMENT
RHINORRHEA
Epistaxis
142
Q

Why is visual acuity done before manual examination________________ and chart should be _____Ft away and for non-english patient use the _____chart

A

Because manipulation increase blurring and decrease acuity;20; E chart

143
Q

A patient with MENIERE’S Disease, to decrease the inner ear volume , which medication most likely give to the patient_____
For VESTIBULAR REPRESSION use ________
And to suppress conduction in the vestibular cerebellar pathways use________

A

DIURETICS; antihistamines; ANTICHOLINERGIC

144
Q

Compartment syndrome is the result of ______ ______within a ______body space. Most often occurs following

A

Excessive pressure; closed

fractures, soft tissue injury, snake envenomation, vascular injury , external compression

145
Q

If an infant/small child is admitted with an eye injury which of the following MOST likely occur

A

the infant/child was shaken

146
Q

STRAIGHT-leg raise test is an accurate predictors of ________and if the patients pain increased when you move the patient’s knee back in a full extension during a straight leg raises, it indicates

A

Herniated disc; Nerve root or Sciatic nerve irritation

147
Q

Ice should not be placed on a patient with compartment syndrome because it causes_______We should remove______ and arm should not be

A

VASOCONSTRICTION; constrictive clothes; elevated

148
Q

Patient with HYPOGONADISM, or decreased__________levels are at risk for developing ________

A

Testosterone; osteoporosis

149
Q

Precipitation of calcium sets on the corneal surface, may indicates________ and blue sclera indicate that may have________

A

Hyperparathyroidism: OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA

150
Q

Caused by cellulitis, osteomyelitis, or pleuritis is ________ _____
Caused by crush injury or major trauma ________
Caused by hx of minor trauma or intestinal or gallbladder surgery_______

A

Pasteurella Multocida
Wound botulism
Gas gangrene

151
Q

_______provides pathway for afferent and efferent impulses to travel

A

White matter