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CEN > CEN GI/GU/OB/GYN > Flashcards

CEN GI/GU/OB/GYN Flashcards

1
Q

Ectopic Pregnancy interventions include administering _______if mother is RH _____; therapy with _____ ________and consider __________IM

A

RHOGAM; Negative; IV crystalloids; methotextrate

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2
Q

What color is the discharge that occurs with TRICHOMONAS with a _____odor What color is the discharge in candida vaginal? What color is the discharge of VAGINOSIS

A

Yellow-Green; fishy White Gray

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3
Q

4 Processes of the GI system are ___ ___ ___ __ and assisting the body’s metabolism is a function of the ________system

A

Ingestion Digestion Absorption Elimination Pulmonary

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4
Q

Abdominal pain in RUQ is most likely______ Leukocytosis, fever and diarrhea likely______ the result of the release of digestive pancreatic enzymes into tissue of the pancreas

A

Cholecystitis appendicitis Acute pancreatitis

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5
Q

Somastatin is secreted from the _____cells GLUCAGON is secreted from the ________cells INSULIN is secreted from the ________

A

Delta Alpha Beta

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6
Q

Spastic to dull pain around the abdomen and HYPERACTIVE BS may cause a change in bowel habits an is a sign of

A

EARLY bowel obstruction

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7
Q

What is PHIMOSIS? condition in which the _______ ____ predisposing factors are

A

penis is tight ended and unable to retract over the gland; poor hygiene, congenital condition, scarring and inflammation.

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8
Q

Wearing a lap belt would result in _______; For MVC patient, look for the _______sings which consists of

A

bladder rupture; seat belt: abrasion and contusion.

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9
Q

Possible causes of peritonitis

A

appendicitis pancreatitis trauma from a GSW or knife Peritoneal dialysis

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10
Q

Clay colored stool indicates_________ and it is a blockage of any duct that carries bile from the liver to the gallbladder; Tarry stool is indication of ________; BRIGHT RED BLOOD is indication of ________

A

Biliary obstruction; Upper GIB; lower GIB.

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11
Q

The death of expulsion of the fetus or ______ ______ before the age of viability is_______

A

products of conception; Abortion

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12
Q

A __________spontaneous abortion is one in which the patient experiences moderate cramping with MODERATE vaginal bleeding and her CERVICAL OPEN More than 3CM with a GROSS RUPTURE OF MEMBRANES

A

Inevitable .

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13
Q

A __________spontaneous abortion is one in which the patient experiences moderate cramping with MILD UTERINE CRAMPING with SLIGHT vaginal bleeding and her CERVICAL CLOSED with a SOFT ENLARGED UTERUS

A

THREATENED

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14
Q

A __________spontaneous abortion is one in which the patient visually identified symptoms that signal the LOSS OF THE PRODUCTS OF CONCEPTION

A

IMMINENT

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15
Q

A __________spontaneous abortion is one in which the patient does not experience cramping or contraction, only has SLIGHT VAGINAL BLEEDING< her CERVICAL OS remains CLOSED, and her body RETAINS DEAD PRODUCTS OF CONCEPTION

A

MISSED

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16
Q

When the stomach uses PEPSIN to break down proteins, what do the proteins become?

A

Polypeptides

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17
Q

When the stomach uses PEPSIN to break down proteins, what do the proteins become? _______ They are then broken down into ____ and _____ in the small intestines

A

Polypeptides ; Proteins; amino acids.

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18
Q

In the stomach, Carbohydrates are broken down into __________ and the process begins in the _____

A

Disaccharides; mouth

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19
Q

When you hear TYMPANY percussion tone over an abdomen, what does it normally indicate

A

A gastric bubble or gas

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20
Q

A float percussion tone indicates a ________ A dull percussion indicates the _______, a full ______ or a full _______

A

Bone Liver, sigmoid colon, bladder

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21
Q

Stage I of labor is when the patient is ______

Stage II of labor is when the patient _____

Stage III of labor is when the infant ______

Stage IV of labor is when the ______

A

Experiencing regular contractions and dilating

has full cervical dilation and infant ready to crown

has been delivered but the PLACENTA has not

Placenta has been delivered for four hours.

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22
Q

What is the defined point of neutrality in the pH scale?

What does it mean when the patient’s urine has a decreased acidity level?

A

Seven

It is indication that the patient’s kidney is retaining acids and SODIUM

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23
Q

An increased in urine acitity means what?

A

That the patient’s body is retaining bicarbonate

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24
Q

A UTI is associated with ________(alkaline or acidic) urine.

Renal tubular acidosis is associated with (acidic or alkaline) urine and serum (alkalinity or acidity)

A

Alkaline

Alkaline; Acidosis

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25
Q

What is the normal pH of the vagina?________

STI with erythema of the cervix is __________

_______causes rash that itches and is reddish in color

______ rash that is reddish in color

Rash red or reddish bronw with PENNY-SIZED SORES

A

3.8 - 4.5

Chlamydia

Gonorrhea

Genital Herpes

Siphillis

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26
Q

When the vagina pH is less ______, there is more chance for infection.

4 Factors that make vagina less acidic

A

acidic

Diabetes, unprotected sex, poor hygiene and Multiple sex partners

Vaginosis, STIs, yeast infection.

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27
Q

Tests used to evaluated renal function:

BUN is affected by _________

  • *BUN and creatinine** are both _________
  • *IVP** is used to rule out what _______
A

BUN and Creatinine

Diet

Waste products of protein metabolism

Obstruction

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28
Q
  • *Not** a symptom of UPPER GI bleed is _______
  • *Symptoms of UPPER GIB**
A

Hematochezia

Hematemesis, melena, coffee-groud emesis, Weakness dizzines, postural hypotension and potentially sx of hypovolemic shock

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29
Q

5 Common causes of Upper GIB

A

Mallory Weiss syndrome, peptic or gastric ulcers, esophagitis, frequent NSAIDs use, ESOPHAGEAL VARICES

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30
Q

Which portion of the male urethra enters the perineum

A

The Membraneous portion

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31
Q

3 Segments of the male urethra are

The male urethra is _____than the femal urethra

The prosthatic portion enters what?_____

The penile portion forms within the ___

A

prostatic, membranous and spongy

Longer

Prostate gland

Shaft of the penis.

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32
Q

Male urethra conducts urine from the bladder and semen from __________

A

Ejaculatory ducts

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33
Q

The MANTRES score is used to help diagnose a patient’s probability of having _______. Each diagnostic test is worth one point except __________ and __________which are worth 2 points

A

Appendicitis; tenderness in the RLQ; Leukocytosis

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34
Q

MANTRES score stands for:

A

(M) Migration of pain to the RLQ

(A) Anorexia

(N) Nausea and vomiting

(T) Tenderness in RLQ

(R) Rebound pain

(E) Elevated Temperature

(S) shift of WBCs to the left.

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35
Q

Used to detect gestational diabetes is _______. It measures glucose level _____hour after administation of a ____gram of oral glucose loads. Blood sugar values over ____mg/DL identifies ____% women with gestational diabetes.

A

Glucose challenge; one; 50; 140; 80

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36
Q

A___________ test is used to determine if there are fetal red cells in the maternal circulation

A

Kleihauer-Betke test

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37
Q

A _______ ___ screen is used to determine if there is a potential incompatibility in the blood type between the mother and the fetus

A

Antibody screen

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38
Q

RLQ pain can be caused by appendicitis, _______, Ovarian torsion and cysts, ___________, ______, Tubo-ovarian abscess, ____________ or_________ diverticulitis

A

inguinal hernia, ruptured ectopic pregnancy, PID, mesenteric adenitis, Meckel’s

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39
Q

Normal chloride is ________mEq/L and when the patient chloride is low it could be a sign of ____ ____ _______

A

96-106; diarrhea, vomiting and intestinal obstruction

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40
Q

When a patient’s chloride is high, suspect ____

_______May be a factors if a patient’s calcium levels are low

_______may be a factor if the patient’s phosphorus levels are low

A

Dehydration

Acute pancreatitis

Malnutrition/ Malabsorption syndrome

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41
Q

Light palpation with large pulsating mass is suggestive of _________and you should _____the palpation because rupture is life threatening. A light palpation is when you use fingers to depress ___ to ___ cm into various areas of the abdomen

A

Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm ; STOP; 1-2

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42
Q

A PERCUSSION tone, drum-like, loud, high pitch quality generally heard in the STOMACH or BOWEL

A

TYMPANY

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43
Q

PERCUSSION tone with a booming quality and is located around the HYPERINFLATED LUNGS.

________is the percussion tone that has a HOLLOW QUALITY located around the normal lung

A

HYPERRESONANT ; RESONANT

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44
Q

________is the percussion tone that has a thud-like quality and is located around the _____, ____ or _____

A

DULL; liver, spleen, heart

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45
Q

The normal phosphorus level is __ to ___ mg/Dl. Pt with elevated phosphorus has ______dsease

A

3.0-4.5 ; Kidney

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46
Q

What does it mean when hernia becomes INCARCERATED? there will be _____ and _____ and the site of herniation with possible signs of _____ ______

A

Its blood supply is compromised; pain and swelling; interstinal obstruction.

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47
Q

A male patient who has priaprism should have a ____________conducted in order to rule out ___________ ________ Leukemia.

A

peripheral blood smear

CHRONIC MYELOID LEUKEMIA

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48
Q

A _____ ___ ____ should be conducted to assess the patient’s glucose concentration level

A

Corpus Cavernosum aspirate

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49
Q

Does a sonogram meausre the bladder volume?’

A sonogram generates a localized ?

A

No;

deep heat to the tissues, monitors a developing fetus, and images an internal body structure

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50
Q

How does the US detect abnormalities?

A

Using high frequency sound waves to detect abnormalities.

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51
Q

_________ is the gold standard for ruling out GIB

A

Endoscopy

52
Q

Term used to indicate that a female has not had any live births________

Term used to indicate that the female’s pregnany is her first ______

Term used to indicate that the female has given birth to more than one live child

A

Nullipara

Primipara

Multipara

53
Q

Most appropriate medication for a patient with H. Pylori infection? ______ or ______x __ days in addition to a ____ ____ -_____ and ____ are absolutely contraindicated

A

Clarithromycin/ AMOXICILLIN; 10; Proton Pump inhibitor. NSAIDs

54
Q

Causes of priaprism :

A

Tumor

sickle cell disease

PHOSPHODIESTERASE TYPE 5 INHIBITOR and pharmacological injections injected directly into the corpus cavenosum in the treament of Erectile dysnfuntion.

55
Q

What is IMPALEMENT? It is an example of ________Trauma as it penetrates the body> Examples are .

A

Penetrating

GSW, projectiles, stab wounds

56
Q

_______ the result of applied force without the creation of an OPEN WOUND

A

BLUNT TRAUMA

57
Q

When a loop of bowel telescopes within itself, a mechanical obstruction known as _________ occurs. 3 symptoms are: ____ ____ _____ most common in children 3 ____ to ____ years of age

A

Intussusception

Currant jelly stools

Sausage-shaped abdominal mass

vomiting

FACIAL GRIMACING WITH LEGS DRAWN TO CHEST

3 months- 5

58
Q

When a loop of intestine completely twists around its mesenteric attachment site? _______

A

VOLVULUS

59
Q
  • *Endocrine function** involves the secretion of _______ and ______
  • *Exocrine function** include the secretion of _______ to neutralize chyme and the secrtion of _______juice for the digestion of _______
A

Insulin; glucagon

Bicarbonate; pancreatic; carbohydrates.

60
Q

What is placenta previa?

What is marginal previa?

A

Placeneta is located abnormally in her lower uterine segment and over the opening

Placenta’s edge os at the Internal Os’s margin typically 2-3 cm of the os

61
Q

________ Previa means that placental tissue is COMPLETELY covering the internal OS.

________Previa means that the placental tissue is partially covering the internal os

A

Total ; Partial ;

62
Q

An appropriate intervention for managing the woman with the BARTHOLIN’S CYSTS Abscess? _______and______compresses. Symptoms include swelling and tenderness of _______

A

Sitz Baths

Warm compresses

Vulva

63
Q

If a patient is having difficulty with INGESTION with which compoent of the GI system is the patient MOST likely having trouble with?

A

OROPHARYNX

64
Q

First and second stage of swallowing , ingestion, salivation, and mastication are functions of the ___________but the third stage of swallowing and vent for extra gastric pressures are function of the___________. Functions of the _______Inlude secretion of gastric enzymes, absorption of water, and reduction of os_malality of food a_nd the ________include r_eceiving biles and pancreatic fluid in order_ to aid digestion and moving chyme by using _______and _________

A

Nasopharynx; Esophagus; stomach; small intestine; peristalsis, segmentation.

65
Q

OUTERMOST layer of the GI tract is the __________ cell layer and it is continuous with the ________. The ________Cell layer is the thin cell layer composes of smooth muscle and that is found betweeb the serosa and the___________ ; the _________ dense cell layer composed of connective tissue that supports the mucosa. the________cell layer is the INNERMOST layer of the GI tract that is exposted to dietary material

A

SEROSA; Muscularis; Submucosa; mucosa

66
Q

For Hepatitis B, interferon agenst are given ______ (route) and other four drugs _____ ,_______,_____,______ are given orally. The drug approved for HIV patients is called _________

A

Injection; lamivudine, adefovir, dipivoxil, entevir, telbivudine; Zidovidine

67
Q

The MOST COMMON type of PEPTIC ULCERS is

Peptic ulcers are due to the disruption of the protective ______Barrier and increased ______secretion

Duodenals are characterized by increased _______Cells

and stress ulcers are the result of _______stress and develop after period of illness, ______or _______

A

DUODENAL ULCERS;mucosal ; acid

Parietal cells

ischemic stres; trauma; injury.

68
Q

A patient test positive for GENITAL HERPES would be started on ______or ______

A patient tested positive for GONORRHEA or CHANCROID would be prescribed

A patient tested positive for CHLAMYDIA would be prescribed_______

A

Acyclovir or FamCYCLOVIR

Ceftriaxone / CefiXime for gonorrhea

Doxycycline

69
Q

Signs of impending delivery:

A

bloody show

mother stating needs to defecate

bulging of vulva membranes

Rupture of amniotic fluid

70
Q

If the patient has UTERUS pain,it is caused by _____and_____

If the patient has fallopian or ovary pain, the pain is caused by ______or _______

If the patient has PERITONEAL PAIN, it is related to _________ accumulation from an _______Cyst

and the pain is causd by _________

A

Contractions and spasms

Distention, inflammation

blood; ovarian; inflammation

71
Q

If the patient experienced a postpartum hemorrhage after delivery , which of the following occured? Blood loss of ______Within____hours after delivery.

Blood loss is severe if it’s more than________within _____ after delivery. It is early hemorrhage if it occurs within _____hours after delivery; It is late hemorrhage if it occurs after ____to ___weeks after delivery.

A

A blood loss GREATER THAN 500ml.; 24

1000; 24 hours

24 hours’; 6 weeks

72
Q

Management of postpartum hemorrhage include:

A

Manual pressure

High flow Oxygen

Large bore IV

blood transfusion

Oxytocic agents OXYTOCIN

73
Q

What is the most common PRIAPRISM? It is caused by ____________blood flow and _______ stasis

A

Ischemic priaprism

decreased venous blood flow

vascular

74
Q

Ischemic priaprism is associated with progressive __________ of the ________ tissues and ___________ ________.

___________priaprism is caused by the fistula between the ________tissue and the _______artery

__________priaprism is caused by clumping of erythrocytes that leads to the venoocclusion. the best describing word is INTERMITTENT

_________ priaprism is caused by the invasion of __________ ______ by malignant neoplasm

A

fibrosis; carvenosal; Erectyle dysfunction.

Nonischemic; corporal tissue ; carvenosal.

Stuttering priaprism

Malignant; Corpora Carvenosa

75
Q

Regulation of bile flow is a function of the _________

Functionof the liver is ___________ of bacteria; conversion of ammonia to ______ and the formation of _______. Conversion of complex sugar to ______sugar, carbs to ______; stored glucose to _______ ; amino acids to ______ and CREATINE to ________

A

GALLBLADDER

Urea

Cholesterol.

Simple; fats; glucose; proteins; creatinine

76
Q

__________should always be considered in a patient with abdominal pain and tachycardia

A

Hypovolemia

77
Q

Through which of the followng do the kidnes excrete urine_________.there are ______ureters , one located in the ______and the bottom half of the _______. They are ____ to ____inches long.Urine excreted from kidneys are stored in the _____ which uses the ______to expel the urine from the body.

A

URETER;

2; abdomen; pelvis

10-12

Bladder; urethra.

78
Q

Basic absorption mechanism that requires an energy and is known to absorb substance such as proteins, glucose, potassium and sodium__________.

Basic absorption mechanism uses a PASSIVE movement to absorb substance such as water and free fatty acids is ________

_________is a basic absorption mechanism that requires a carrier and is known to absorb _______

_______ _______transport is basic absorption mechanism that is known to absorb drugs and _____ _____ _______

A

Active transport

PASSIVE DIFFUSION

Faciliated Diffusion; fructose

Non-ionic ; Unconjugated bile salts.

79
Q

What is the most COMMON cause of GASTROENTERITIS? such as ________ and ________

A

Infectious agents

SALMONELLA and E.COLI

80
Q

Parts of the ALIMENTARY CANAL includes: start with the ______ and ends at the ______

Accessory organs are _____, ______, ______, _____and _____

A

Mouth; anus; Includes to

oropharynx; esophagus; stomach; small intestine; large intestine

tongue; salivary glands; pancreas; gallbladder, liver

81
Q

__________ presents as an abdominal pain that is located in the RUQ and is described as cramping pain

_______ presents as an abdominal pain that is located in the LUQ and is described as boring and worsens when lying down

___________ is inflammation of the lining of the stomach, caused by chronic NSAID use and presents as pain accompanied by N/V

A

cholecystitis. or Peptic ulcer gnawing and burning pain

Pancreatitis

Gastritis

82
Q

The _________ sphincter or upper _______sphincter opens when food enters the _______ so that it can move through the esophagus

The _________ or lower ________sphincter opens so that food can enter the stomach from the _________ this final phase in swallowing is involuntary and takes approximately __to __-seconds to complete

A

HYPOPHARYNGEAL; ESOPHAGUS; ESophagus

Gastroesophageal ; esophageal ; 5-10

83
Q

Drugs used in an acute GI hemorrhage_______ and _______ is used to cause vasoconstriction in a GI hemorrhage. ________acting as a mucosal barrier.

A

Proton Pump inhibitor;(omeprazole, pantoprazole).

Vasopression

Sucralfate.

84
Q

Nausea is not a symptom associated with______but is associated with PID, menstrual syndrom, tubal-ovarian abscesses and torsion of ovary.

A

Endometriosis ; ______,_____,____,_____

85
Q

Syphillis is generally associated with _____lesions; Multiple shallow vesicles are associated with _____ _____

A

Chancre; genital herpes.

86
Q

_________is a STI caused by Neisseria Gonorrhea or Chlamydia Trachomatis: Caused by an infection ________ fromt the urinary tract. Treatment include _____,_____ and _______ .

A

Epididymitis. ASCENDING, cytoscopy, postate surgery, catheterization of the urinary bladder.

87
Q

______Fractures often seen as a results from sitting in a straddling position during a motorcycle collision

A

Pelvic fractures.

88
Q

__________ bacterial infection, often caused by E.Coli that causes inflammation of the kidneys involving the ____, _____ and ______ pelvis.

Symptoms include severe flank of back pain, fever, chills headaches, pyuria, hematuria, and bacteremia

A

PYELONEPHRITIS; tubules, glomeruli, renal pelvis

89
Q

Toxin-mediated systemic response usually caused by a strain of S.aureus is known as

A

Toxic Shock syndrome (TSS).

90
Q

yyyhWhen a child is in a bicycle collision, which type of injury may not be apparent until later ________

A

Abdominal injuries.

91
Q

Saliva consists of Ptyalin and mucus. 3 things that stimulate saliva are _____,_____ and _____

A

Sight, smell, taste and THOUGHTS

92
Q

The _______in saliva started breaking down polysaccharides to disaccharides . ______provides lubricant. Salivary glands secretes _____liter of saliva daily

A

Ptyalin; Mucus; 1 liter

93
Q

Renal response to alkalosis include

Renal response to acidosis include:

A

Decreased hydrogen ion secretion

Decreased production of ammonia

increased bicarbonate excretion

Increased in hydrogen ion secretion

increased in bicarbonate secretion

increased in ammonia production

94
Q

The most common cause of esophageal obstruction in children is

A

Foreign body

95
Q

Crohn’s Disease affect the _______side of the colon, while Ulcerative Colitis

affect the ______ side of the colon. In crohn’s disease, bleeding is_____

A

Right; Left.; rare

96
Q

Hepatitis A takes ___ to ____weeks to incubate and is ____% curable

Hepatitis B causes 15-25 % of people to develop ______

Hepatitis C causes 20-50% people to develop ________and 20 % develop ______ and same number develop _____ _____

A

2 to 6; 99

Liver Cancer

Cirrhosis; liver cancer; liver failure.

97
Q

Medications used to decreased portal pressure by relaxing the ________ vascular smooth muscle is __________; Alternative is a combination of IV _________ and SL or _______ ________

A

Mesenteric; Octreotide or Sandostatin; Vasopressin; SL or Transdermal Nitroglycerin

98
Q

If an individual’s pH is >7, it indicates that the individual is at risk for a _______ stone.

If an individual’s pH is < 5, the individual is at risk for developing a ____ _____stone

A

Struvite

uric acid stone

99
Q

If an individual’s urine appears orange-pink in color, it is an indication of ___ ___ ____

If it is orange colored only, it may indicate ________

A

Uric acid crystals

medications

100
Q

Digestion of carbohydrates started in the ________ and it this breaks down polysaccharides to disaccharides

A

Mouth

101
Q

Renal TRAUMA is considered major if there are ______ ______lacerations and _______lacerations

Critical Renal trauma include ______ _______ or a ____ ____ injury

A

Deep Cortical; CALICEAL laceration

Renal fracture ; Renal Vascular

102
Q

Medication generally prescribed for trichomonas is _______

Benzathine (bicillin) and doxycycline medictations are usually prescribed for______

A

Flagyl

Syphillis

103
Q

What is MITTELSCHMERZ

A

Middle pain, used to refer to pain around the middle of the menstrual cycle.

104
Q

What organs does the left gastric branch of the CELIAC ARTERY supply

The Hepatic to right gastric branch of the celiac artery supplies only the ______

The GASTRODUODENAL BRANCH of the celiar artery supplies in the _______ and the _________

The SPLENIC BRANCH of the Celiac artery supplies the ______, the ______ and the _________

A

Stomach and esophagus

Stomach

Stomach and the Duodenum

Stomach, pancreas and spleen.

105
Q

Which 2 ribs could cause penetration of the kidney if the become fractured?

The ____kidney is lower than the _____ kidney therefore they _____ kidney is more susceptible to injury than the ____ kidney.

When the left kidney is injured, it is often accompanied by _____injury

When the right kidney is injured, it is often accompanied by _____injury

A

Ribs 11 and 12

Left; right; right ; left

Spleen

Liver

106
Q

Fractures of the 1st and 2nd ribs can result in injury to the ______, _____aorta, _____Artery and ______

A

Lungs, ASCENDING, subclavian, brachial plexus

107
Q

Normal amylase is ______ and Normal lipase _______and they are both elevated in _________cancer

A

23-125; ______ 10-180; pancreatic.

108
Q

During pregnancy , HR ______and CO ______

Oxygen consumption

Abdominal injuries and hemorrhage are masked : T/F

A

increases; increases

increases

True

109
Q

HELLP stands for _____ ____ ____ ___ ____ it is an obstetric emergency and varinat of ______ _____

A

Hemolysis, elevated liver Enzyms and low Platelet.

severe preeclampsia

110
Q

Ulcerative coltis is characterized by SBLLQ

A

Severe diarrhea

Bloody stoll

LLQ tenderness

111
Q

Crohn’s Disease is characterized by abdominal pain ______, weight loss, _______, and _______

A

Low grade fever

Intestinal obstruction

Anal fissures or abscess

112
Q

Complications of Gonorrhea are associated with _____ ______ and _____
Vaccinations for HPV is for ages________, and the vaccination is _______

A

Epididymitis, chronic pelvic pain, fallopian tube damage

13-26; Gardasil

113
Q

Bladder pain is caused by _______and ______

Ureteral pain is caused by _______ and ______

A

Overdistention; inflammation.

Obstruction; distention

114
Q

Diverticulitis is inflammation of the ________

may be the result of ______ by ____ or fecal material

Meckel diverticulum is a small buldge that is located in the _____ intestine that was present at _____

Diverticulosis is multiple ______ that are NOT ______

A

Diverticula

obstruction ; food

small ; birth

diverticula; inflamed

115
Q

Testicular Torsion is characterized by twisting of the _________ or the _______ cord and most common occurs in boys between ages ___ and ____

Immediate bedsid______or surgical exploration with ______is performed

A

testicles; spermatic

12-18

Detorsion; ORCHIDOPEXY

116
Q

Inflammation of the bladder cause _______ and ____ pain in the _____

Overdistention in the bladder causes pain in the _____area

Renal inflammation causes pain in the _____area

Prostate inflammation causes pain in the _____ ____

A

burning; sharp; urethra

Suprapubic

FLANK

Lower back

117
Q

Which male genital organs work together to produce semen?

________ and ________

The testes produces ______ and ________

Secretes alkaline component of semen_____

A

Seminal vesicles

Prostate gland

Sperm ; testosterone

bulbourethral gland

118
Q

Blood work not elevated in cirrhosis____
what is normal LDH

A

WBC

90-200

119
Q

MANTRELS score

< 5 appendicitis _____
5-6 appendicitis ______
7-8 appendicitis _____
9-10 appendicitis ______

A

unlikely

likely

possible

highly likely

120
Q

When a patient is diagnosed with epididymoorchitis, one of the things that should be monitored in case of complication is _______which is _____ in sperm

A

Hemospermia

blood

121
Q

Which female genital organ is responsible for protecting a fetus_____

allows passage from fertilization and implantation is ________

Neck of the uterus and leads from the vagina is the _____

A

UTERUS

Fallopian tube

cervix

122
Q

Right UPPER QUADRANT painis best asses with _______

Right or left LOWER QUADRANT PAIN is best assessed with

A

Ultrasound

CT scan

123
Q

Which type of bladder rupture is generally associated with a PELVIC FRACTURE____

Bladder contusion is type ___ and the most ______

  • *INTRAPERITONEAL RUPTURE** generally resulst from _____ _____ trauma and is type ____
  • *INTERSTITIAL INJURY** Type ____ is the most ____ type of bladder injury
A

Type IV: Extraperitoneal

Type I; common

lower abdomen; Type II

III; rare

124
Q

Which male organ store sperm until they become mature _______

A

Epididymis

125
Q

Operation of the large intestine is most likely because the patient is

A

unable to eliminate dignestive wastes effectively.

126
Q

Deliver of the placenta following birth of the baby includes____________

Placental separation is the final stage of labor and generally occurs within minutes of birth but may take up to ____ minutes. the process should not be hurried.

A

Massaging the fundus immediatly after delivery of the placenta.

CEN (9 decks)

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