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Cellular Respiration Flashcards

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1
Q

Which of the following best describes cellular respiration?
A. Gas exchange between the alveoli and blood
B. Gas exchange between the cells and the blood
C. The breakup of glucose to form energy
D. Endergonic reaction
E. Reductive process

A

The breakup of glucose to form energy

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2
Q

Which of the following is the universal energy source for cells?
A. NADH
B. FADH2
C. ATP
D. Glucose
E. Sunlight

A

ATP

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3
Q

Which of the following is the correct chemical equation for cellular respiration?
A. C6H12O6 + 5O2 → 5CO2 + 5H20 + energy
B. C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 3H20 + energy
C. C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H20 + energy
D. C6H12O6 + 6O2 + energy → 6CO2 + 6H20
E. 6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 3O

A

C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H20 + energy

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4
Q

Which of the following most likely is true concerning the Gibbs free energy of cellular respiration?
A. ∆H must be positive
B. ∆H must be negative
C. ∆S must be positive
D. ∆S must be negative
E. ∆H-T∆S has a negative value

A

E. ∆H-T∆S has a negative value

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5
Q

The following characteristics are true concerning cellular respiration EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Aerobic
B. Dehydrogenation occurs
C. Entropy increasing
D. Endergonic
E. Oxidative

A

. Endergonic

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6
Q

Which of the following terms correctly defines NAD+?
A. High energy molecule
B. Coenzyme
C. Enzyme
D. Fatty acid
E. Carbohydrate

A

B. Coenzyme

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7
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of an exergonic reaction?
A. The reactants have less free energy than the products.
B. The reactants have more free energy than the products.
C. There is a greater number of product molecules than reactant molecules.
D. There is a greater number of reactant molecules than product molecules.
E. The term exergonic is synonymous with the term exothermic.

A

The reactants have more free energy than the products

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8
Q

Which of the following describes a catabolic process?
A. Energy requiring
B. Endergonic
C. Thermodynamically unfavorable
D. Break down of molecules
E. Synthesis of molecules

A

Break down of molecules

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9
Q

Anabolism is a(n)__________.
A. Energy requiring process
B. Process of breaking down molecules
C. Exergonic reaction
D. Oxidative reaction
E. Process used in glycolysis

A

A. Energy requiring process

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10
Q

Cellular respiration is a(n) __________.
A. Reductive process
B. Oxidative process
C. Anabolic process
D. Endergonic process
E. Rare biological process

A

B. Oxidative process

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11
Q

Cellular respiration needs to occur in the presence of __________.
A. Bicarbonate
B. Chloride
C. Water
D. Oxygen
E. Sunlight

A

D. Oxygen

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12
Q

Which of the following occurs during cellular respiration to remove protons from carbon-based molecules?
A. Oxidative deamination
B. Beta oxidation
C. Dehydrogenation
D. Lactic acid fermentation
E. Ethanol fermentation

A

Dehydrogenation

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13
Q

Which of the following are the reactants of cellular respiration?
A. Glucose and oxygen gas
B. Glucose and carbon dioxide
C. Glucose and sunlight
D. Glucose and water
E. Carbon dioxide and water

A

A. Glucose and oxygen gas

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14
Q

Which of the following are the products of cellular respiration?
A. Carbon dioxide, glucose, and ATP
B. Carbon dioxide, water, and ATP
C. Oxygen gas, water, and ATP
D. Oxygen gas, glucose, and NADPH
E. Oxygen gas, water, and FADH

A

Carbon dioxide, water, and ATP

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15
Q

Which of the following steps acts as a regulator for the rate of glycolysis?
A. Hexokinase phosphorylation
B. Phosphofructokinase phosphorylation
C. Oxygen levels
D. Acetyl CoA formation
E. Carbon dioxide formation

A

Phosphofructokinase phosphorylation

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16
Q

Where does eukaryotic glycolysis occur?
A. Cytoplasm
B. Inner mitochondrial matrix
C. Outer mitochondrial matrix
D. Mitochondrial cristae
E. Cell membrane

A

Cytoplasm

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17
Q

Which of the following is the final product of glycolysis?
A. NADH
B. Acetyl-CoA
C. Lactic acid
D. Pyruvate
E. Ethanol

A

. Pyruvate

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18
Q

The following steps make up cellular respiration EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Glycolysis
B. Pyruvate decarboxylation
C. Carbon fixation
D. Electron transport chain
E. Krebs cycle

A

Carbon fixation

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19
Q

In order, list the steps of cellular respiration __________.
A. Krebs cycle, pyruvate decarboxylation, electron transport chain, and glycolysis
B. Pyruvate decarboxylation, glycolysis, Krebs cycle, and electron transport chain
C. Glycolysis, Krebs cycle, electron transport chain, pyruvate decarboxylation
D. Glycolysis, electron transport chain, pyruvate decarboxylation, and Krebs cycle
E. Glycolysis, pyruvate decarboxylation, Krebs cycle, and electron transport chain

A

E. Glycolysis, pyruvate decarboxylation, Krebs cycle, and electron transport chain

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20
Q

Which of the following lists the correct products of glycolysis?
A. 2 NADH, 4 ATP, 1 pyruvate
B. 2 NADH, 2 ATP, 2 pyruvate
C. 2 NADH, 4 ATP, 2 pyruvate
D. 2 FADH, 4 ATP, 2 pyruvate
E. 3 NADH, 4 ATP, 2 pyruvate

A

2 NADH, 4 ATP, 2 pyruvate

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21
Q

Which of the following is true concerning the phosphorylation of glucose during glycolysis?
A. Glycogen is formed as a byproduct
B. FAD is reduced to FADH2
C. Glucose becomes trapped inside the cell
D. An acetyl group is added to glucose
E. Cell membrane becomes positively charged

A

Glucose becomes trapped inside the cell

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22
Q

The first enzyme to work on glucose in glycolysis is __________.
A. G3P Dehydrogenase
B. Hexokinase
C. Phosphofructokinase
D. Phosphoglucoisomerase
E. Aldolase

A

Hexokinase

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23
Q

Correctly list the number of ATP molecules invested and the number of ATP molecules produced in eukaryotic glycolysis.
A. 2,2
B. 2,4
C. 4,2
D. 2,6
E. 3,3

A

B. 2,4

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24
Q

In which locations can NADH be produced during eukaryotic cellular respiration?
A. The cytosol
B. The mitochondrial matrix
C. The mitochondrial intermembrane space
D. The inner mitochondrial membrane
E. The cytosol and mitochondrial matrix

A

The cytosol and mitochondrial matrix

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25
Q

Which of the following occurs in glycolysis?
A. Glucose is turned into GTP
B. Glucose is turned into ATP
C. Glucose is turned into pyruvate
D. Pyruvate is turned into glucose
E. Pyruvate is turned into ATP

A

Glucose is turned into pyruvate

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26
Q

How much net ATP is formed in glycolysis?
A. 1 ATP
B. 2 ATP
C. 3 ATP
D. 4 ATP
E. 10 ATP

A

B. 2 ATP

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27
Q

How is ATP formed in glycolysis?
A. Oxidative phosphorylation
B. Substrate level phosphorylation
C. Aerobic metabolism
D. Protein phosphorylation
E. Photosynthesis

A

B. Substrate level phosphorylation

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28
Q

Which of the following aids in the initial phosphorylation of glucose during glycolysis?
A. Hexokinase
B. Phosphofructokinase
C. Acetyl-CoA
D. PDC enzyme
E. Oxaloacetate

A

A. Hexokinase

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29
Q

The rate of glycolysis is uncontrolled and unable to be managed. Which of the following enzymes is most likely malfunctioning?
A. Chymotrypsin
B. Amylase
C. Lipase
D. Phosphofructokinase
E. Nuclease

A

D. Phosphofructokinase

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30
Q

Which of the following is the correct function of phosphofructokinase in cellular respiration?
A. Adds the first phosphate to glucose
B. Adds the second phosphate to glucose
C. Adds the third phosphate to glucose
D. Removes the phosphate groups from glucose
E. Transforms glucose into acetyl CoA

A

Adds the second phosphate to glucose

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31
Q

Which of the following is the most stable molecule?
A. Adenosine tetraphosphate
B. Adenosine triphosphate
C. Adenosine diphosphate
D. Guanosine triphosphate
E. Guanosine tetraphosphate

A

Adenosine diphosphate

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32
Q

Which of the following best describes glycolysis?
A. Conversion of glucose into acetyl CoA
B. Conversion of glucose into pyruvate
C. Conversion of pyruvate into glucose
D. Conversion of glucose into glycogen
E. Aerobic process

A

B. Conversion of glucose into pyruvate

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33
Q

Which of the following adds the second phosphate to glucose?
A. Phosphofructokinase
B. Hexokinase
C. ATP synthase
D. NADH2
E. FADH2

A

Phosphofructokinase

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34
Q

After glucose is phosphorylated for the second time during glycolysis, it becomes __________.
A. Citrate
B. Cytochrome C
C. Fructose 1,6-Bisphosphate
D. Acetyl CoA
E. Oxaloacetate

A

Fructose 1,6-Bisphosphate

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35
Q

Which of the following is the correct amount produced from one glucose molecule?
A. 1 acetyl CoA, 1 NADH and 1CO2
B. 1 acetyl CoA, 3 NADH, and 2CO2
C. 2 acetyl CoA, 1 NADH, and 2CO2
D. 2 acetyl CoA, 2 NADH, and 2CO2
E. 3 acetyl CoA, 1 NADH, and 2CO2

A

D. 2 acetyl CoA, 2 NADH, and 2CO2

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36
Q

Which of the following is the correct equation that demonstrates the decarboxylation of pyruvate?
A. Pyruvate + NADH → Acetyl CoA + CO2 + NAD+
B. Pyruvate + NAD+ → Acetyl CoA + O2 + NADH
C. Pyruvate + NAD+ → Acetyl CoA + H2O + NADH
D. Pyruvate + NAD+ → Acetyl CoA + CO2 + NADH
E. Pyruvate + NADPH → Acetyl CoA + CO2 + NADP+

A

Pyruvate + NAD+ → Acetyl CoA + CO2 + NADH

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37
Q

Which step of cellular respiration transforms pyruvate to acetyl CoA?
A. Glycolysis
B. Beta oxidation
C. Pyruvate decarboxylation
D. Kreb cycle
E. Citric acid cycle

A

C. Pyruvate decarboxylation

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38
Q

Which process is most similar to pyruvate decarboxylation?
A. Oxidative deamination
B. Glycolysis
C. Beta oxidation
D. Tricarboxylic acid cycle
E. Electron transport chain

A

Beta oxidation

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39
Q

Which processes produce NADH?
A. Glycolysis, Krebs cycle, electron transport chain
B. Glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation, electron transport chain
C. Glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation, Krebs cycle
D. Glycolysis and electron transport chain
E. Pyruvate oxidation and electron transport chain

A

C. Glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation, Krebs cycle

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40
Q

Where does pyruvate decarboxylation take place?
A. Cytoplasm
B. Cell membrane
C. Mitochondrial matrix
D. Mitochondrial cristae
E. Mitochondrial inner membrane space

A

C. Mitochondrial matrix

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41
Q

During pyruvate decarboxylation, pyruvate forms into __________.
A. Glucose
B. ATP
C. Acetyl CoA
D. Malate
E. Citrate

A

Acetyl CoA

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42
Q

Which product of pyruvate decarboxylation is used in the Krebs Cycle?
A. Citrate
B. Oxaloacetate
C. Acetyl CoA
D. Glucose
E. NADPH

A

C. Acetyl CoA

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43
Q

In prokaryotes, where does the Krebs cycle take place?
A. Mitochondrial inner membrane space
B. Cell membrane
C. Nucleus
D. Mitochondrial matrix
E. Cytosol

A

E. Cytosol

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44
Q

Which of the following does acetyl-CoA combine with to form citrate?
A. Glucose
B. Pyruvate
C. Oxaloacetate
D. Malate
E. Carbon dioxide

A

Oxaloacetate

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45
Q

How many intermediates are present in the Krebs Cycle?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 8
E. 10

A

8

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46
Q

Which of the following lists the correct products from each pyruvate molecule in the citric acid cycle?
A. 3 NADH, 1 ATP, 1 CO2
B. 2 NADH, 2 ATP, 2 CO2
C. 3 NADH, 1 FADH2, 1 GTP, 2 CO2
D. 2 NADH, 2 FADH, 1 GTP, 1 CO2
E. 4 NADH, 1 FADH, 3 GTP, 2 CO2

A

C. 3 NADH, 1 FADH2, 1 GTP, 2 CO2

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47
Q

How is GTP produced in the Krebs Cycle?
A. Substrate level phosphorylation
B. Aerobic metabolism
C. Protein phosphorylation
D. Photosynthesis
E. Oxidative phosphorylation

A

A. Substrate level phosphorylation

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48
Q

Which of the following is the net production in the Krebs Cycle after two pyruvates are introduced?
A. 3 NADH, 1 FADH2, 1 GTP, and 3 CO2
B. 2 NADH, 1 FADH2, 1 GTP, 2 CO2
C. 4 NADH, 2 FADH2, 2 GTP, and 4 CO2
D. 6 NADH, 2 FADH2, 2 GTP, and 4 CO2
E. 7 NADH, 2 FADH2, 3 GTP, and 4 CO2

A

6 NADH, 2 FADH2, 2 GTP, and 4 CO2

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49
Q

All of the following are produced in the Krebs Cycle EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. ATP
B. CO2
C. FADH2
D. NADH
E. NADPH

A

NADPH

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50
Q

Which of the following processes produce FADH2?
A. Glycolysis
B. Pyruvate oxidation
C. Krebs cycle
D. Electron transport chain
E. Lactic acid fermentation

A

C. Krebs cycle

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51
Q

Where does the Krebs cycle occur in eukaryotes?
A. Mitochondrial matrix
B. Mitochondrial intermembrane space
C. Cytosol
D. Inner mitochondrial membrane
E. Cell membrane

A

A. Mitochondrial matrix

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52
Q

In the Krebs cycle, how many NADH are produced per one molecule of pyruvate?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
E. Five

A

C. Three

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53
Q

What is the main function of oxidative phosphorylation during cellular respiration?
A. To harness exergonic reactions to produce ATP
B. To convert glucose into pyruvate
C. To remove waste products from the cell
D. To transport oxygen and nutrients into the cell
E. To convert ATP back to ADP

A

To harness exergonic reactions to produce ATP

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54
Q

Which of the following is the product of the first step of the citric acid cycle?
A. Glucose
B. Oxaloacetate
C. Acetyl CoA
D. Citrate
E. GTP

A

Citrate

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55
Q

Which of the following is regenerated at the end of the Krebs Cycle?
A. Pyruvate
B. Acetyl CoA
C. Oxaloacetate
D. Citrate
E. Fatty acids

A

Oxaloacetate

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56
Q

In the Krebs cycle, how many molecules of CO2 are generated by one molecule of pyruvate?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
E. Six

A

B. Two

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57
Q

In the Krebs cycle, how many molecules of GTP are produced per one molecule of glucose?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
E. Six

A

B. Two

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58
Q

In the Krebs cycle, how many FADH2 are produced per one molecule of pyruvate?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
E. Five

A

One

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59
Q

Which of the following is produced from one pyruvate during pyruvate oxidation?
A. 1 acetyl CoA, 2 NADH, and 2 CO2
B. 1 acetyl CoA, 1 NADH, and 1 CO2
C. 2 acetyl CoA, 1 NADH, and 1 glucose
D. 1 acetyl CoA, 1 NADH, and 1 FADH
E. 1 acetyl CoA, 1 NADH, and 2 CO2

A

B. 1 acetyl CoA, 1 NADH, and 1 CO2 [

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60
Q

Which enzyme catalyzes pyruvate decarboxylation?
A. Hexokinase
B. Phosphofructokinase
C. Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex
D. Maltase dehydrogenase
E. ATP synthase

A

Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex

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61
Q

Coenzyme Q and cytochrome C are __________.
A. Electron carriers in the Krebs cycle
B. Electron carriers in the electron transport chain
C. Electron carriers in the cytosol
D. Electron carriers in glycolysis
E. Protein carriers in lactic acid fermentation

A

Electron carriers in the electron transport chain

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62
Q

Which of the following best describes the main purpose of the electron transport chain?
A. Water formation
B. Oxygen formation
C. Electrochemical gradient formation to power ATP synthase
D. Provide electrolytes to the circulatory system
E. Form ATP via substrate-level phosphorylation

A

Electrochemical gradient formation to power ATP synthase

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63
Q

The ATP synthase of the eukaryotic transport chain is powered by the flow of __________.
A. Electrons
B. Protons
C. Oxygen gas
D. Phosphate
E. ADP

A

B. Protons

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64
Q

ATP is a __________.
A. RNA nucleotide
B. DNA nucleotide
C. Protein
D. Virus
E. Microbe

A

RNA nucleotide

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65
Q

The oxidation of which Krebs Cycle products form the hydrogen ions that are used in chemiosmosis?
A. NADH and H2O
B. FADH and O2
C. NADH and FADH2
D. ATP and NADH
E. ATP and GTP

A

NADH and FADH2

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66
Q

The electrical charge gradient caused by the chemical gradient in cellular respiration is converted into which of the following by ATP synthase?
A. Potential energy
B. Kinetic energy
C. Thermal energy
D. Electrical energy
E. Chemical energy

A

B. Kinetic energy

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67
Q

Which of the following most likely has a lower pH at the onset of chemiosmosis?
A. Intermembrane space
B. Mitochondrial matrix
C. Cristae
D. Cytosol
E. Cytoplasm

A

. Intermembrane space

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68
Q

Which of the following most likely has a higher pH at the onset of chemiosmosis?
A. Cytosol
B. Cytoplasm
C. Inner mitochondrial membrane
D. Intermembrane space
E. Mitochondrial matrix

A

Mitochondrial matrix

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69
Q

How do hydrogen ions flow in chemiosmosis?
A. Mitochondrial matrix to intermembrane space
B. Mitochondrial matrix to cristae
C. Intermembrane space to the mitochondrial matrix
D. Intermembrane space to cytosol
E. Mitochondrial matrix to cell wall

A

Intermembrane space to the mitochondrial matrix

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70
Q

Which of the following best describes why ATP is an unstable molecule?
A. Has a deoxyribose sugar
B. Lacks one oxygen atom
C. Has three negatively charged phosphate groups
D. Inability to hydrolyze
E. Protein derived

A

Has three negatively charged phosphate groups

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71
Q

Which of the following describes an exergonic reaction?
A. Dehydration reaction
B. Photosynthesis
C. Formation of ADP molecule
D. Formation of ATP molecule
E. Formation of GTP molecule

A

Formation of ADP molecule

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72
Q

Which of the following best describes how ATP provides energy to cells?
A. Attaches to the cytoplasm of cells
B. Transfers phosphate group to other molecules
C. Removes phosphate group from other molecules
D. Donates oxygen from ribose sugars to other molecules
E. Acts as an enzyme to reactants

A

Transfers phosphate group to other molecules

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73
Q

Which of the following steps in cellular respiration produces the largest amount of ATP?
A. Glycolysis
B. Fermentation
C. Chemiosmosis
D. Krebs cycle
E. Substrate level phosphorylation

A

Chemiosmosis

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74
Q

Where is the eukaryotic electron transport chain located?
A. Mitochondrial matrix
B. Mitochondrial intermembrane space
C. Outer mitochondrial membrane
D. Inner mitochondrial membrane
E. Plasma membrane

A

Inner mitochondrial membrane

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75
Q

Which of the following best describes ATP?
A. Triplet of linked lipid molecules
B. Peptide attached to three nucleotides
C. Carbohydrate of three sugar molecules
D. Nucleotide that contains three phosphate molecules
E. Amino acid with a high energy R-group

A

Nucleotide that contains three phosphate molecules

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76
Q

Which of the following is true concerning ATP?
A. ATP hydrolysis is endergonic
B. ATP hydrolysis is nonspontaneous
C. ATP hydrolysis is positive Gibbs energy
D. ATP hydrolysis is exergonic
E. ATP hydrolysis is energy requiring

A

ATP hydrolysis is exergonic

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77
Q

Which of the following pumps the protons into the intermembrane space in the electron transport chain?
A. Complex I, II, III
B. Complex I, III, IV
C. Complex II, III, IV
D. Complex I, IV

A

Complex I, III, IV

78
Q

Which of the following is the location of water formation in the electron transport chain?
A. Cytochrome C
B. Complex I
C. Complex II
D. Complex III
E. Complex IV

A

Complex IV

79
Q

ADP + P converts back to ATP via __________.
A. Complex I of the ETC
B. Complex II of the ETC
C. Complex III of the ETC
D. Complex IV of the ETC
E. ATP Synthase

A

ATP Synthase

80
Q

How do the cristae of the mitochondria aid the electron transport chain?
A. Introduces oxygen to the electron transport chain
B. Secretes NADH and FADH2 to the electron transport chain
C. Increases surface area for increased respiration
D. Produces hydrogen ions for the hydrogen gradient
E. Performs beta-oxidation

A

Increases surface area for increased respiration

81
Q

Which of the following is the final electron acceptor in cellular respiration?
A. O2
B. H2O
C. H+
D. H2
E. NAD+

A

A. O2 [

82
Q

Where is the location of the prokaryotic electron transport chain?
A. Mitochondrial matrix
B. Mitochondrial intermembrane space
C. Outer mitochondrial membrane
D. Inner mitochondrial membrane
E. Plasma membrane

A

E. Plasma membrane

83
Q

Where does oxidative phosphorylation take place?
A. Glycolysis
B. Lactic acid fermentation
C. Pyruvate decarboxylation
D. Krebs cycle
E. Electron transport chain

A

E. Electron transport chain

84
Q

Which of the following occurs in oxidative phosphorylation?
A. ATP → ADP
B. ADP → ATP
C. NADH → NADPH
D. NAD+ + H+ → NADH
E. O2 → CO2

A

ADP → ATP

85
Q

Where is energy created in the electron transport chain?
A. K+ gradient
B. H+ gradient
C. Na+ gradient
D. Phosphate groups
E. Sunlight

A

H+ gradient

86
Q

Which of the following catalyzes the conversion of ADP into ATP in the electron transport chain?
A. Hexokinase
B. ATP synthase
C. Phosphofructokinase
D. PDC enzyme
E. Citrate

A

ATP synthase

87
Q

Why are more hydrogen ions pumped across for NADH compared to FADH2?
A. NADH is not a coenzyme
B. FADH2 is not a coenzyme
C. Oxygen prefers NADH
D. NADH enters the ETC earlier than FADH2
E. FADH2 produces more energy

A

NADH enters the ETC earlier than FADH2

88
Q

Which of the following is the relative ratio of NADH to FADH2’s ATP production?
A. 3:2
B. 2:3
C. 1:2
D. 1:1
E. 2:1

A

A. 3:2
NADH makes more energy than FADH2, and more H+ ions per NADH are pumped across mitochondrial inner membrane than per FADH2. The relative ratio of NADH to FADH2’s ATP production is 3:2.

89
Q

Which of the following is produced with the final electron acceptor of the electron transport chain?
A. Hydrogen
B. Potassium
C. Pyruvate
D. Water
E. Carbon dioxide

A

D. Water

90
Q

Which molecule donates electrons to the electron transport chain on a lower energy level?
A. ATP
B. NADPH
C. NADH
D. FADH2
E. H2O

A

. FADH2

91
Q

In electron transport, hydrogen ions flow from the __________.
A. Mitochondrial matrix to the cytosol
B. Mitochondrial matrix to the intermembrane space
C. Mitochondrial outer membrane to the mitochondrial inner membrane
D. Cytosol to the intermembrane space
E. Cytosol to the mitochondrial matrix

A

Mitochondrial matrix to the intermembrane space

92
Q

Which of the following carries electrons from complex I to complex III in the electron transport chain?
A. P680
B. P700
C. Coenzyme Q
D. Cytochrome C
E. ATP synthase

A

Coenzyme Q

93
Q

Which of the following transports electrons from complex III to complex IV in the electron transport chain?
A. Coenzyme Q
B. Cytochrome C
C. Chloroplast
D. ATP Synthase
E. Hexokinase

A

Cytochrome C

94
Q

Cytochrome C can be used for all the following purposes EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Protein carrier
B. Electron donor and acceptor
C. Cell apoptosis
D. Species identification
E. Non-Heme iron protein

A

E. Non-Heme iron protein

95
Q

Which of the following distinguishes prokaryotic and eukaryotic energy production?
A. Eukaryotes make more ATP
B. Only prokaryotes have mitochondria
C. Eukaryotes need to transfer two NADH
D. Cristae in prokaryotic mitochondria have less surface area
E. More H+ ions are present in the matrix of prokaryotic mitochondria

A

Eukaryotes need to transfer two NADH

96
Q

Which of the following is true concerning the electron transport chain?
A. It involves a series of redox reactions along the inner mitochondrial membrane
B. It involves a series of redox reactions along the outer mitochondrial membrane
C. ATP hydrolysis is the driving force
D. It occurs in the inner mitochondrial membrane in prokaryotes and eukaryotes
E. The electron transport chain exists only in eukaryotes

A

A. It involves a series of redox reactions along the inner mitochondrial membrane

97
Q

Where is coenzyme Q of the electron transport chain located?
A. Freely floating in the mitochondrial matrix
B. Freely floating in the cytosol
C. Freely floating in the mitochondrial membrane space
D. Embedded in the mitochondrial inner membrane
E. Embedded in the mitochondria outer membrane

A

Embedded in the mitochondrial inner membrane

98
Q

Which of the following is true concerning coenzyme Q?
A. Involved in anaerobic respiration
B. Lipid-based
C. Can be both oxidized and reduced
D. Used directly in the Krebs cycle
E. Freely floating in the mitochondria

A

Can be both oxidized and reduced

99
Q

Each of the following statements concerning cellular respiration is true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Prokaryotes perform cellular respiration in the cytosol
B. Eukaryotes perform cellular respiration in the mitochondria
C. Cellular respiration in eukaryotes always produces 36 ATP from one glucose molecule
D. Cellular respiration is the conversion of glucose into sugar energy in the form of ATP
E. Oxygen is the last electron acceptor for the electron transport chain

A

Cellular respiration in eukaryotes always produces 36 ATP from one glucose molecule

100
Q

In the eukaryotic electron transport chain, NADH hands-off electrons to __________.
A. Complex I
B. Complex II
C. Complex III
D. Complex IV
E. Cytochrome C

A

A. Complex I

101
Q

In the eukaryotic electron transport chain, FADH2 deposits its electrons to __________.
A. Complex I
B. Complex II
C. Complex III
D. Complex IV
E. Coenzyme Q

A

Complex II

102
Q

Which of the following is considered to be anaerobic respiration?
A. Fermentation and electron transport chain
B. Fermentation and beta-oxidation
C. Glycolysis and fermentation
D. Glycolysis and electron transport chain
E. Glycolysis and Krebs Cycle

A

Glycolysis and fermentation

103
Q

Which of the following is a crucial aspect for the continuation of glycolysis and developed during aerobic respiration with the help of oxygen gas?
A. NADH
B. NAD+
C. NADPH
D. FADH2
E. GTP

A

NAD+

104
Q

An animal cell is unable to convert NADH into NAD+ for glycolysis, which of the following will occur?
A. Glycolysis will still proceed
B. Krebs cycle will create NAD+
C. Electron transport chain will replenish the NAD+
D. Lack of ATP will kill the cell
E. Beta oxidation will occur

A

Lack of ATP will kill the cell

105
Q

Which of the following regenerates NAD+ without the presence of oxygen?
A. Fermentation
B. Glycolysis
C. Krebs cycle
D. Electron transport chain
E. Chemiosmosis

A

Fermentation

106
Q

Which of the following is true concerning alcohol fermentation?
A. Occurs in human myofibrils
B. Occurs in yeast
C. Produces lactate
D. Produces NADH
E. Produces FADH2

A

Occurs in yeast

107
Q

Which of the following most likely can perform alcohol fermentation?
A. Fungi
B. Yogurt bacteria
C. Human muscle cells
D. Obligate anaerobes
E. Lactobacillus bacteria

A

Fungi

108
Q

Which of the following is an intermediate in alcohol fermentation?
A. GTP
B. Glucose
C. Acetaldehyde
D. Ethanol
E. FAD

A

Acetaldehyde

109
Q

Which of the following correctly lists the steps of alcohol fermentation?
A. Pyruvate → acetaldehyde + CO2 + NAD+ → ethanol + NADH
B. Pyruvate → acetyl - CoA + CO2 + NADH → ethanol + NADH
C. Pyruvate → acetaldehyde + CO2 + NADH → ethanol + NAD+
D. Glucose → acetaldehyde + NADH → lactate + NAD+
E. Glucose → GTP + NADH → O2 + NAD+

A

Pyruvate → acetaldehyde + CO2 + NADH → ethanol + NAD+

110
Q

In alcohol fermentation, which of the following is the final electron acceptor?
A. Oxygen
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Acetaldehyde
D. Ethanol
E. Pyruvate

A

Acetaldehyde

111
Q

The final electron acceptors of alcohol fermentation and cellular respiration respectively form which of the following?
A. Ethanol and carbon dioxide
B. Ethanol and water
C. Lactate and water
D. Ethanol
E. Water

A

Ethanol and water

112
Q

Which of the following is most likely occurring to human muscle cells during physically difficult and rapid exercises?
A. Alcohol fermentation
B. Lactic acid fermentation
C. Aerobic respiration
D. Use of alternative energy sources
E. Beta oxidation

A

Lactic acid fermentation

113
Q

Which of the following is the correct product of lactic acid fermentation?
A. Ethanol
B. Pyruvate
C. NADH
D. Lactate
E. Oxygen

A

Lactate

114
Q

Both alcohol and lactic acid fermentation use which of the following as a reactant?
A. Acetaldehyde
B. NAD+
C. Acetyl-CoA
D. Ethanol
E. Pyruvate

A

E. Pyruvate

115
Q

Which of the following correctly lists the steps of lactic acid fermentation?
A. Lactate + NADH → pyruvate + NAD+
B. Pyruvate + NADH → lactate + NAD+
C. Pyruvate + NAD+ → lactate + NADH
D. Glucose + NADH → lactate + NAD+
E. Ethanol + pyruvate → lactate + NADH

A

Pyruvate + NADH → lactate + NAD+

116
Q

Which organ is lactate from lactic acid fermentation transferred to?
A. Stomach
B. Kidney
C. Liver
D. Lungs
E. Heart

A

Liver

117
Q

Which of the following later occurs to the lactate created from lactic acid fermentation in the presence of excess ATP?
A. Converted to glucose
B. Converted to oxygen
C. Converted to ethanol
D. Converted to NADH
E. Converted to proteins

A

A. Converted to glucose

118
Q

Which of the following best describes when fermentation occurs?
A. In absence of oxygen
B. In absence of carbon dioxide
C. In absence of ATP
D. In absence of GTP
E. In need of ethanol

A

In absence of oxygen

119
Q

Which of the following best describes facultative anaerobes?
A. Uses fermentation more efficiently
B. Uses anaerobic respiration more efficiently
C. Cannot live without oxygen
D. Uses oxygen but switches to anaerobic respiration if needed
E. Uses oxygen exclusively

A

Uses oxygen but switches to anaerobic respiration if needed

120
Q

Which of the following is true concerning obligate anaerobes?
A. Can live without metabolism
B. Cannot survive in the presence of oxygen
C. Intermittent use of aerobic respiration
D. Use of fermentation when needed
E. Use of anaerobic respiration when needed

A

Cannot survive in the presence of oxygen

121
Q

An organism that can use fermentation, but not as efficiently as aerobic respiration as an energy source. This organism is most likely a(n) __________.
A. Facultative anaerobe
B. Obligate anaerobe
C. Eukaryote
D. Prokaryote
E. Plant

A

A. Facultative anaerobe

122
Q

An organism immediately dies when placed in a closed container with oxygen. This organism is a(n) __________.
A. Facultative anaerobe
B. Obligate anaerobe
C. Eukaryote
D. Prokaryote
E. Parasite

A

Obligate anaerobe

123
Q

Which step in cellular respiration is crucial for both fermentation and cellular respiration?
A. Glycolysis
B. Pyruvate decarboxylation
C. Krebs Cycle
D. Electron transport chain
E. Chemiosmosis

A

Glycolysis

124
Q

The purpose of fermentation is to regenerate __________.
A. NADH
B. NADPH
C. NAD+
D. ADP
E. ATP

A

NAD+

125
Q

​​Which of the following are the products of yeast fermentation?
A. ATP, CO2, NAD+, ethanol
B. ATP, CO2, NAD+, ethanoic acid
C. ATP, CO2, NADH, ethanol
D. ATP CO2, NAD+, lactate
E. ATP, CO2, NADH, lactate

A

A. ATP, CO2, NAD+, ethanol

126
Q

Which of the following best describes the processes that occur in both alcohol and lactic acid fermentation?
A. The reduction of NAD+ to NADH
B. The oxidation of NADH to NAD+
C. The reduction of FAD to FADH2
D. The oxidation of FADH2 to FAD
E. The hydrolysis of ATP to ADP

A

The oxidation of NADH to NAD+

127
Q

Which molecule gets reduced in lactic acid fermentation?
A. Lactate
B. Pyruvate
C. NADH
D. NAD+
E. H+

A

B. Pyruvate

128
Q

Which of the following aids in NAD+ regeneration for aerobic respiration?
A. CO2
B. O2
C. H+
D. FADH2
E. ATP

A

B. O2

129
Q

Fungi experience ___________.
A. Lactic acid fermentation
B. Alcohol fermentation
C. Oxidative deamination
D. Mitochondrial cellular respiration
E. Exclusively anaerobic respiration

A

Alcohol fermentation

130
Q

Which of the following is anaerobic respiration?
A. Krebs Cycle
B. Electron Transport Chain
C. Fermentation
D. Beta oxidation
E. Photosynthesis

A

C. Fermentation

131
Q

A scientist biopsies muscle regions A, B, and C. Muscle A just performed strenuous exercise, muscle B has been at rest, and muscle C has been used for low-impact exercise. Which muscle would most likely have the highest lactate levels?
A. Muscle A
B. Muscle B
C. Muscle C
D. Each would have the same lactate levels

A

A. Muscle A

132
Q

Which of the following is true concerning unsaturated fatty acids?
A. Requires fewer enzymes during beta-oxidation
B. Has no double bonds
C. Unable to produce any FADH2
D. Produces 1 less FADH2 for every double bond present
E. Produces exact amount of product as saturated fatty acids during beta-oxidation

A

Produces 1 less FADH2 for every double bond present

133
Q

In between meals, healthy humans store lipids of plasma as __________.
A. White adipose tissue
B. Brown adipose tissue
C. Lipoproteins
D. Chylomicrons
E. Triglycerides

A

Lipoproteins

134
Q

Which of the following describes larger lipoproteins?
A. Adipose tissue
B. Triglycerides
C. Fatty acids
D. Cholesterols
E. Chylomicrons

A

Chylomicrons

135
Q

Each of the following is used as a plasma lipid storage EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Lipoproteins
B. LDL
C. HDL
D. Chylomicrons
E. Adipose tissue

A

Adipose tissue

136
Q

Which of the following are the two types of lipoproteins in plasma?
A. White and brown lipoproteins
B. Chylomicrons and LDL lipoproteins
C. Chylomicrons and HDL lipoproteins
D. LDL and HDL lipoproteins
E. White and brown adipose tissue

A

LDL and HDL lipoproteins

137
Q

Which of the following differentiates LDL and HDL lipoproteins?
A. LDL carries cholesterol to the liver
B. HDL carries cholesterol to the bloodstream
C. HDL is considered to be “bad” cholesterol
D. LDL has a low protein density
E. HDL has a low protein density

A

D. LDL has a low protein density

138
Q

Which of the following is the most unfavorable energy source?
A. Carbohydrates
B. Glycerol
C. Glucose
D. Fatty acids
E. Proteins

A

E. Proteins

139
Q

Which organ deaminates the amino acids that enter the human body?
A. Kidney
B. Stomach
C. Liver
D. Small intestine
E. Pancreas

A

C. Liver

140
Q

In humans, proteins can be converted into all the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Pyruvate
B. Acetyl CoA
C. Krebs cycle intermediates
D. Uric acid
E. Ammonia

A

Uric acid

141
Q

Which of the following is used to separate ammonia from amino acid molecules in humans?
A. Beta oxidation
B. Cellular respiration
C. Oxidative deamination
D. Krebs cycle
E. Electron transport chain

A

Oxidative deamination

142
Q

Which of the following is true concerning ammonia?
A. Insects convert ammonia into urea
B. Sharks convert ammonia into uric acid
C. Aquatic organisms can excrete it directly
D. Mammals convert ammonia into uric acid
E. Reptiles cannot excrete uric acid

A

Aquatic organisms can excrete it directly

143
Q

Which of the following releases the greatest amount of energy per gram during oxidation?
A. Sugars
B. Triglycerides
C. Protein
D. Glucose
E. Water

A

. Triglycerides

144
Q

Beta oxidation __________
A. Anabolizes glucose
B. Anabolizes glycogen
C. Catabolizes proteins
D. Catabolizes fatty acids
E. Catabolizes glucose

A

Catabolizes fatty acids

145
Q

Malfunctioning of this organ will affect blood glucose homeostasis in the human body.
A. Stomach
B. Small intestine
C. Liver
D. Large intestine
E. Kidney

A

C. Liver

146
Q

Which of the following can release large amounts of glucose into the bloodstream?
A. Cerebellum
B. Liver
C. Kidney
D. Stomach
E. Pancreas

A

B. Liver

147
Q

Which term describes the catabolism of glycogen into glucose?
A. Glycolysis
B. Gluconeogenesis
C. Glycogenesis
D. Glycogenolysis
E. Beta oxidation

A

Glycogenolysis

148
Q

Which of the following is the correct order of energy sources the body uses from beginning to last?
A. Carbohydrates, proteins, fats
B. Carbohydrates, fats, and proteins
C. Proteins, carbohydrates, and fats
D. Proteins, fats, and carbohydrates
E. Fats, proteins, and carbohydrates

A

Carbohydrates, fats, and proteins
The body uses energy from various sources to meet its energy needs. The order in which it uses these sources depends on the availability and intensity of the activity being performed. During high-intensity activities, the body primarily relies on carbohydrates for energy. Carbohydrates are stored in the body in the form of glycogen and are readily available for use as energy.

When glycogen stores become depleted, the body begins to use fats as an energy source. Fats are stored in the body as triglycerides and can be broken down into smaller molecules called fatty acids to be used for energy.

Finally, during low-intensity or prolonged activities, the body begins to use proteins as an energy source. Proteins can be broken down into their component amino acids and used to produce energy.

149
Q

Which of the following is the first energy source used by the body?
A. Fats
B. Proteins
C. Nucleic acids
D. Lactate
E. Carbohydrates

A

Carbohydrates

150
Q

Which of the following is the process of glucose production from non-carbohydrates in the liver and kidneys?
A. Fermentation
B. Glycogenesis
C. Gluconeogenesis
D. Glycogenolysis
E. Glycolysis

A

C. Gluconeogenesis

151
Q

Which of the following is stored after hefty meals by humans?
A. Insulin
B. Glycogen
C. Glucagon
D. Glucose
E. Pyruvate

A

B. Glycogen

152
Q

Which of the following aids in storing glucose as glycogen?
A. Insulin
B. Glucagon
C. Lactate
D. Hexokinase
E. Pyruvate dehydrogenase

A

A. Insulin

153
Q

Which of the following occurs if blood glucose is low?
A. Insulin stores glucose
B. Glucagon stimulates glycogen breakdown
C. Lactic acid fermentation
D. Islets of Langerhans secrete somatostatin
E. PFK activation

A

Glucagon stimulates glycogen breakdown

154
Q

Which of the following breaks down glycogen?
A. Glucagon
B. G cells
C. Parietal cells
D. Insulin
E. Calcitonin

A

A. Glucagon

155
Q

Which enzyme can be manipulated by both insulin and glucagon?
A. Topoisomerase
B. Salivary amylase
C. Trypsinogen
D. Primase
E. Phosphofructokinase

A

Phosphofructokinase

156
Q

Which of the following is true of insulin?
A. Breaks down glycogen
B. Inhibits the Krebs Cycle
C. Activates phosphofructokinase
D. Inhibits photosynthesis
E. Inhibits beta cells

A

C. Activates phosphofructokinase

157
Q

Which of the following occurs in response to low glucose levels?
A. Insulin inhibits PFK enzymes
B. Glucagon activates PFK enzymes
C. Glycolysis is inhibited
D. Glycolysis is triggered
E. ATP synthase is hyperactive

A

C. Glycolysis is inhibited
In response to low glucose levels, glycolysis is inhibited through the action of enzymes called hexokinases and glucokinases, which catalyze the conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate, the first step in glycolysis. When glucose levels are low, these enzymes become inhibited, preventing the conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate, and thereby halting glycolysis.

158
Q

The PFK enzyme that is influenced by both insulin and glucagon is used in __________.
A. Lactic acid fermentation
B. Ethanol fermentation
C. Glycolysis
D. Krebs cycle
E. Chemiosmosis

A

Glycolysis

159
Q

Which of the following occurs to disaccharides when the human body uses alternative carbohydrate energy sources?
A. Dehydrated into polysaccharides
B. Dehydrated into monosaccharides
C. Hydrolyzed into monosaccharides
D. Hydrolyzed into polysaccharides
E. Forms into proteins

A

C. Hydrolyzed into monosaccharides

160
Q

Which of the following stores glycogen in large amounts?
A. Epithelial cells and liver cells
B. Kidney and liver cells
C. Skeletal muscle and liver cells
D. Skeletal and cardiac muscle cells
E. Skeletal muscle and bone cells

A

C. Skeletal muscle and liver cells

161
Q

Which of the following stores more energy than carbohydrates?
A. Fats
B. DNA
C. RNA
D. Protein
E. Lactate

A

A. Fats

162
Q

Which of the following best describes why fats store more energy than carbohydrates?
A. The carbons in fat are more oxidized
B. The carbon in fat is more reduced
C. More ATP molecules in fat
D. More water molecules in fat
E. Hydrophilic
CHECK

A

B. The carbon in fat is more reduced

163
Q

Which of the following is the general number of calories per gram of fat?
A. 1 calorie/gram
B. 3 calories/gram
C. 4 calories/gram
D. 9 calories/gram
E. 15 calories/gram

A

D. 9 calories/gram

164
Q

Both carbohydrates and proteins are roughly __________.
A. 1 calorie/gram
B. 4 calories/gram
C. 9 calories/gram
D. 20 calories/gram
E. 25 calories/gram

A

B. 4 calories/gram

165
Q

Which of the following best describes where fats are stored?
A. Nervous tissue
B. Epithelial tissue
C. Lymphatic tissue
D. Adipose tissue
E. Muscle tissue

A

D. Adipose tissue [

166
Q

Triglycerides in the small intestine are broken down into __________.
A. Amino and fatty acids
B. Carbohydrates and lipids
C. Monoglycerides and fatty acids
D. Lipocytes and fatty acids
E. Glycerol and glucagon

A

Monoglycerides and fatty acids

167
Q

A long-distance runner has been running for over three hours. He is most likely using which energy source?
A. Carbohydrates
B. Proteins
C. Lipids
D. Ethanol fermentation
E. Anaerobic respiration

A

C. Lipids

168
Q

Due to a genetic condition, a patient has higher levels of free fatty acid chains in his blood due to a deficiency in a specific transporter protein. Which of the following proteins could he be deficient in?
A. Hemoglobin
B. Insulin
C. Glucagon
D. Albumin
E. Lactase

A

D. Albumin

169
Q

A patient experiences organ failure and is no longer able to produce glucose from carbon substrates. Which of the following organs is most likely malfunctioning?
A. Lungs
B. Stomach
C. Heart
D. Liver
E. Pancreas

A

D. Liver

170
Q

A patient has elevated blood glucose levels, especially after large meals. Which of the following organs could be malfunctioning, resulting in her hyperglycemia?
A. Small intestine
B. Kidneys
C. Stomach
D. Pancreas
E. Liver

A

D. Pancreas

171
Q

Which of the following is the correct location of beta-oxidation in prokaryotes?
A. Mitochondrial matrix
B. Mitochondrial cristae
C. Mitochondrial inner membrane space
D. Cytosol
E. Nucleoid

A

D. Cytosol

172
Q

Which of the following will occur if carbohydrates and fats are no longer able to be used as energy sources?
A. Lactic acid fermentation
B. Ethanol fermentation
C. Beta oxidation
D. Oxidative deamination
E. Glycolysis

A

Oxidative deamination

173
Q

Each of the following can be packaged in chylomicron EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Triglycerides
B. Cholesterol
C. Proteins
D. Glucagon
E. Phospholipids

A

D. Glucagon

174
Q

Which of the following is used to break down triglycerides into monoglycerides?
A. Amylase
B. Kinases
C. Lipases
D. Proteases
E. Maltase

A

Lipases

175
Q

Which of the following do fats get converted to in order to enter glycolysis in animal cellular respiration?
A. Pyruvate
B. Glucose
C. Citrate
D. PGAL
E. Acetyl CoA

A

D. PGAL [

176
Q

Which of the following is a precursor to PGAL to enter the glycolytic pathway?
A. Glucagon
B. Glucose
C. Glycerol
D. Protein
E. Amino acids

A

C. Glycerol

177
Q

Which of the following best describes what occurs when fatty acids form into acetyl CoA?
A. 1 carbon from the fatty acid forms an acetyl CoA
B. 2 carbons from the fatty acid form an acetyl CoA
C. 3 carbons from the fatty acid form an acetyl CoA
D. 4 carbons from the fatty acid form an acetyl CoA
E. 5 carbons from the fatty acid form an acetyl CoA

A

B. 2 carbons from the fatty acid form an acetyl CoA

178
Q

Which of the following acts as a fatty acid transporter in the human circulatory system?
A. Bile
B. Albumin
C. Riboflavin
D. Vitamin B12
E. Vitamin A

A

Albumin

179
Q

Which of the following best describes the function of beta-oxidation?
A. Formation of triglycerides
B. Formation of adipose tissue
C. Formation of acetyl CoA for the Krebs cycle
D. Formation of PGAL for glycolysis
E. Formation of proteins for catabolic processes

A

Formation of acetyl CoA for the Krebs cycle

180
Q

Where does beta-oxidation occur in animal cells?
A. Cytosol
B. Golgi apparatus
C. Mitochondrial matrix
D. Mitochondrial inner membrane space
E. Rough endoplasmic reticulum

A

Mitochondrial matrix

181
Q

How many ATP molecules need to be used to trigger the activation of beta-oxidation?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 9
E. 17

A

B. 2

182
Q

A patient is unable to use protein as an energy source. Which organ could possibly be malfunctioning?
A. Heart
B. Lung
C. Liver
D. Pancreas
E. Kidneys

A

C. Liver [

183
Q

In humans, which of the following organs converts ammonia to urea?
A. Stomach
B. Small intestine
C. Large intestine
D. Kidney
E. Liver

A

E. Liver

184
Q

In humans, ammonia gets converted into __________.
A. Uric acid
B. Urea
C. Amino acids
D. Fatty acids
E. Glucose

A

B. Urea

185
Q

Which of the following is a difference between beta-oxidation and glycolysis?
A. Beta-oxidation produces pyruvate, while glycolysis produces acetyl-CoA
B. Beta-oxidation takes place in the cytoplasm, while glycolysis takes place in the mitochondria
C. Beta-oxidation generates ATP through substrate-level phosphorylation, while glycolysis generates ATP through oxidative phosphorylation
D. Beta-oxidation is the process of breaking down fatty acids, while glycolysis is the process of breaking down glucose

A

Beta-oxidation is the process of breaking down fatty acids, while glycolysis is the process of breaking down glucose

186
Q

Which of the following yields the greatest amount of ATP?
A. Carbohydrates
B. Proteins
C. Lipids
D. Urea
E. DNA

A

C. Lipids

187
Q

Which of the following is true concerning metabolism?
A. Isolated sets of multiple reactions
B. The internetwork of multiple reactions
C. Not prevalent in prokaryotes
D. Not prevalent in eukaryotes
E. Unnecessary for cellular life

A

The internetwork of multiple reactions

188
Q

In plants, cellular respiration occurs in the __________.
A. Chloroplast
B. Mitochondria
C. Stroma
D. Thylakoid
E. Lumen

A

Mitochondria

189
Q

Which of the following is a difference between cellular respiration and photosynthesis?
A. Photosynthesis is not an anabolic process
B. Photosynthesis produces carbon dioxide
C. Cellular respiration is a catabolic process
D. Cellular respiration does not occur in green plants
E. Cellular respiration produces oxygen

A

C. Cellular respiration is a catabolic process

190
Q

In humans, every two carbon cuts in saturated fatty acids produce __________.
A. 1 NADPH and 1 FADH2
B. 1 NADH and 1 FADH2
C. 1 NADH and 3 FADH2
D. 2 NADH and 3 FADH2
E. 4 NADH and 5 FADH2

A

B. 1 NADH and 1 FADH2

191
Q

Which of the following differentiates the product amount of unsaturated and saturated fatty acids during beta-oxidation?
A. Number of fatty acids
B. Number of double bonds
C. Length of fatty acid branch
D. The temperature of the cell
E. Location of beta-oxidation

A

Number of double bonds

Cell & Molecular Biology Question Banks (9 decks)

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