Cells, Organelles, & Transport Flashcards

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1
Q

The basic component of the phospholipid membrane is made up of (a) __________.
A. Steroids
B. Glycerol backbone and three fatty acid chains
C. Saturated triglycerides
D. Unsaturated triglycerides
E. Phosphate head and two fatty acids

A

Phosphate head and two fatty acids

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2
Q

The phospholipid membrane is __________

A

Amphipathic

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3
Q

The term “amphipathic” regarding the phospholipid bilayer means __________.
A. It only has a hydrophobic component
B. It only has a hydrophilic component
C. It has both a hydrophobic and hydrophilic component
D. It is made up of carotenoids
E. It is made up of waxes

A

It has both a hydrophobic and hydrophilic component

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4
Q

Which component of the phospholipid bilayer is hydrophilic?
A. Phosphate head
B. Fatty acid tails
C. Glycerol backbone
D. Carotenoid
E. Wax

A

Phosphate head

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5
Q

Which component of the phospholipid bilayer is hydrophobic?
A. Wax
B. Carotenoid
C. Lanolin
D. Phosphate head
E. Fatty acid tails

A

Fatty acid tails

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6
Q

Which of the following most easily diffuses through the phospholipid bilayer?
A. Hydrophilic molecules
B. Hydrophobic molecules
C. Large polar molecules
D. Glucose
E. Ions

A

Hydrophobic molecules

The hierarchy of membrane permeability is as follows, from most to least permeable:

(MOST) Small, Hydrophobic Molecules: O2, CO2, N2, Steroid Hormones
Small, Uncharged, Polar Molecules: H2O, Urea, Glycerol, NH3
Large, Uncharged, Polar Molecules: Glucose, Sucrose
(LEAST) Ions: H+, Na+, HCO3–, K+, Ca2+, Cl–, Mg2+
Thus, we know that hydrophobic molecules will most easily diffuse through the phospholipid bilayer (shown below). This is because they can pass through the non-polar, inner portion of the bilayer, whereas polar and charged molecules do not easily diffuse through this inner, nonpolar portion, as they are not very soluble in it.

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7
Q

Which of the following cannot diffuse through the phospholipid bilayer?
A. Steriods
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Nitrogen
D. Calcium
E. Oxygen

A

Calcium

The hierarchy of membrane permeability is as follows, from most to least permeable:

(MOST) Small, Hydrophobic Molecules: O2, CO2, N2, Steroid Hormones
Small, Uncharged, Polar Molecules: H2O, Urea, Glycerol, NH3
Large, Uncharged, Polar Molecules: Glucose, Sucrose
(LEAST) Ions: H+, Na+, HCO3–, K+, Ca2+, Cl–, Mg2+
Thus, we know that ions (charged molecules) are least able to passively diffuse through the phospholipid bilayer (shown below). An ion’s charge makes it highly polar and thus is unable to solvate in the non-polar, inner portion of the bilayer, making ions unable to diffuse through the membrane. To transport ions across the membrane, dedicated transmembrane protein channels are needed, such as the sodium-potassium pump or proton pump.

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8
Q

Polar molecules pass through the phospholipid membrane if they are __________.
A. Large
B. Charged
C. Hydrophilic
D. Ions
E. Uncharged

A

Uncharged

The hierarchy of membrane permeability is as follows, from most to least permeable:

(MOST) Small, Hydrophobic Molecules: O2, CO2, N2, Steroid Hormones
Small, Uncharged, Polar Molecules: H2O, Urea, Glycerol, NH3
Large, Uncharged, Polar Molecules: Glucose, Sucrose
(LEAST) Ions: H+, Na+, HCO3–, K+, Ca2+, Cl–, Mg2+
While polar, if the molecule is both small enough and uncharged, then it still experiences some membrane permeability. The passive diffusion of small, uncharged, polar molecules is still possible, however, it is less energetically favorable than the passive diffusion of small, hydrophobic molecules. Therefore, given the same amount of time, less polar, uncharged molecules can cross a membrane (shown below) than small, non-polar molecules.

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9
Q

What is the function of cholesterol in the animal cell membrane?
A. Marker for cell recognition
B. Viral defense
C. Organizes DNA
D. Contains chromatin
E. Structural support

A

Structural support

Cholesterol is an amphipathic molecule—it has a single hydroxyl group, which interacts with the polar heads of surrounding phospholipids, and 4 hydrocarbon rings, which make up the non-polar portion. Cholesterol’s job is to alter membrane fluidity. Under normal to high temperatures, cholesterol stiffens the membrane, making it less fluid, providing structural support to the cell. If the membrane was too fluid and phospholipids moved too much, it would decrease the integrity of the membrane. At low temperatures, cholesterol increases membrane fluidity by preventing phospholipids from getting too close to each other, impairing cellular functions. Shown below is an image of the cell membrane and where cholesterol is located:

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10
Q

Which of the following is used as structural support in the membrane of prokaryotes?
A. Cholesterol
B. Hopanoids
C. Glycocalyx
D. Carotenoids
E. Sterols

A

Hopanoids

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11
Q

The glycocalyx is made up of __________.
A. Carbohydrates
B. Peptidoglycan
C. Lipopolysaccharides
D. Bacteria
E. Nucleic acids

A

Carbohydrates
Analyzing the word glycocalyx can help us remember what it means. The first part of the word, gylco–, should make us think “sugar,” and we know that sugar is a carbohydrate. We define the glycocalyx as a carbohydrate coat which covers the cell membrane of some animal cells and the outer face of the cell wall of some bacteria. It consists of both glycolipids and glycoproteins. In the TEM image below, the “furry” fringe around the cell are the carbohydrates protruding from their lipid or protein anchors.

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12
Q

The glycocalyx is present in some __________.
A. Animal cell plasma membrane
B. Bacterial cell wall
C. Gram-positive bacterial cell wall
D. Plant cell wall
E. Animal plasma membrane and bacterial cell wall

A

Animal plasma membrane and bacterial cell wall

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13
Q

The glycocalyx can do all the following except __________.
A. Adhere to the cell
B. Protect the cell from infection
C. Cover the plasma membrane of some animal cells
D. Act as a marker for cell-cell recognition
E. Structural support

A

Structural support

The glycocalyx (shown below) directly adheres to the cell because both glycolipids and glycoproteins are integrated into the membrane. It is found in both some animal and some bacterial cells. Different kinds of cells have unique sugar signatures from the glycocalyx, allowing for cell-cell recognition. The glycocalyx can also help mask adhesion points for potential cell invaders, thus preventing infection. On the other hand, especially in bacteria, the glycocalyx helps form a slime layer, which is mucus-like and sticky, promoting adhesion. Because the glycocalyx anchors to the exterior of the cell, it does not provide structural support.

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14
Q

The glycocalyx is made up of __________.
A. Glycolipids and glycoproteins
B. Glycolipids and cholesterol
C. Glycolipids and ribosomes
D. Glycolipids and glycolipids
E. Glycolipids and DNA

A

Glycolipids and glycoproteins
The glycocalyx is the multifunctional extracellular carbohydrate coat found in both some animal and some bacterial cells. These carbohydrates anchor to the outer leaflet of the cell membrane or cell wall via either a protein or lipid, thus making the glycocalyx consist of glycolipids and glycoproteins, as shown below:

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15
Q

Which of the following are common cell surface markers used regularly for cell-cell recognition?
A. Glycoproteins
B. Glycolipids
C. Glucocorticoids
D. Phospholipids
E. Steroids

A

Glycoproteins

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16
Q

The animal cell membrane is made up of __________.
A. Phospholipid membrane, carotenoids, glycocalyx
B. Phospholipid membrane, waxes, glycocalyx
C. Phospholipid membrane, cholesterol, glycocalyx
D. Phospholipid membrane, sterol, glycocalyx
E. Phospholipid membrane, hopanoid, glycocalyx

A

Phospholipid membrane, cholesterol, glycocalyx

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17
Q

Which of the following is used as structural support in the membrane of plants?
A. Sterols
B. Cholesterol
C. Peptidoglycan
D. Glycocalyx
E. Carotenoids

A

A. Sterols

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18
Q

If an organism has sterols to add structural support to its cellular membrane, then it is most likely a __________.
A. Plant
B. Mammal
C. Prokaryote
D. Bacteria
E. Virus

A

Plant

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19
Q

If an organism has hopanoids to add structural support to its cellular membrane, then it is most likely a __________.
A. Mammal
B. Prokaryote
C. Virus
D. Planet
E. Bird

A

Prokaryote

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20
Q

Which of the following possess centrioles?
A. Plant cells
B. Animal Cells
C. Bacteria
D. Fungi
E. Archaea

A

Animal Cells

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21
Q

Microtubules are made up of __________.
A. Keratin
B. Tubulin
C. Actin
D. Collagen
E. Clathrin

A

Tubulin

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22
Q

Microfilaments are made up of __________.
A. Keratin
B. Tubulin
C. Actin
D. Collagen
E. Intermediate filaments

A

C. Actin

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23
Q

A transmembrane protein is __________.
A. Not attached to the cellular membrane
B. Loosely attachment to the cellular membrane
C. Embedded in the nucleus
D. Embedded in the cellular membrane
E. Embedded from one side to the other side of the cellular membrane

A

Embedded from one side to the other side of the cellular membrane

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24
Q

A transmembrane protein is a type of __________.
A. Peripheral protein
B. Integral protein
C. Glycolipid
D. Glycoprotein
E. Cholesterol

A

Integral protein

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25
Q

Which of the following does the cell use to distinguish between self and foreign pathogens?
A. Channel proteins
B. Recognition proteins
C. Porins
D. Carrier proteins
E. Transport proteins

A

Recognition protein

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26
Q

Glycoproteins in animal cells have an attached __________.
A. Lipid
B. DNA
C. Oligosaccharide
D. Ion
E. Water molecule

A

Oligosaccharide

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27
Q

The major-histocompatibility complex present on macrophages can be detected by __________.
A. Channel proteins
B. Porins
C. Carrier proteins
D. Transport proteins
E. Recognition proteins

A

Recognition proteins

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28
Q

Damage to recognition proteins on animal cells will cause which of the following?
A. Inability for water to pass through the plasma membrane
B. Inability for small ions to pass through the plasma membrane
C. Inability to distinguish self and foreign cells
D. Inability to adhere to other neighboring cells
E. Inability to bind to hormones

A

C. Inability to distinguish self and foreign cells

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29
Q

Due to this membrane protein, the rate of water movement in the kidney can be increased.
A. Channel protein
B. Recognition protein
C. Carrier protein
D. Transport protein
E. Porin

A

Porin

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30
Q

Which of the following is the least specific membrane protein?
A. Recognition protein
B. Carrier protein
C. Transport protein
D. Porin
E. Receptor protein

A

Porin
Porins have two classes—general and specific. General porins (shown below) allow for the passage of other small, polar molecules which solvate in water as they pass through the pore. Specific porins use a selectivity filter to only allow the passage of one specific small, polar molecule, which is facilitated by certain amino acid residues which form the selectivity filter in the pore. Recognition proteins are specific, allowing for the identification of self vs non-self. Carrier proteins transport a specific molecule across the membrane. Transport proteins are the broad class of proteins containing both channel and carrier proteins, and thus can be specific to a certain molecule. Finally, receptor proteins are very specific for certain ligands.

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31
Q

Which of the following changes physical shape after binding to a specific molecule?
A. Channel protein
B. Carrier protein
C. Porin
D. Recognition protein
E. Adhesion protein

A

Carrier protein
Carrier proteins (shown below) impart selectivity on what they are transporting through undergoing a conformational change. The extracellular binding domain only binds a specific ligand. When that ligand binds to the correct binding domain, it causes a conformational change in the intracellular portion of the carrier protein, allowing the ligand to flow through the protein, into the cell, closing the extracellular domain behind it, so that no other molecules can diffuse through the membrane.

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32
Q

Which of the following can use ATP to move molecules?
A. Porin
B. Channel protein
C. Transporter protein
D. Facilitated diffusion
E. Passive diffusion

A

Transporter protein

The term transporter protein is synonymous with carrier protein, as shown below. This class of proteins undergoes a conformational change to port molecules across the membrane. There are two classes of transporter/carrier proteins—the first-class undergoes active transport and moves molecules against their concentration gradient by energy, such as from ATP and the second undergoes passive transport without an input of energy, moving molecules down their concentration gradient.

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33
Q

Which of the following attaches cells to neighboring cells and provides stability with internal filaments and tubules?
A. Porin
B. Channel protein
C. Adhesion protein
D. Receptor protein
E. Recognition protein

A

Adhesion protein

There are four general classes of cell-cell junctions in animal tissues: Anchoring Junctions, Occluding Junctions, Channel-Forming Junctions, and Signal-Relaying Junctions. Anchoring Junctions are those that anchor adjacent cells to one another using adhesion proteins, which include cadherin on the cell surface, which then interface with anchoring proteins B-catenin, p120-catenin, and others on the cadherin’s intracellular domain to link the cadherin to internal actin and intermediate filaments, as shown below:

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34
Q

Which of the following serves to bind to hormones and other chemical trigger molecules?
A. Porin
B. Receptor protein
C. Recognition protein
D. Channel protein
E. Adhesion protein

A

Receptor protein
Receptor proteins are a class of cell surface molecules that receive extracellular ligand signals, from molecules such as hormones, cytokines, short peptides, etc. and propagate the signal intracellularly via a signaling cascade. Examples of these receptor proteins include RTKs (receptor tyrosine kinases) and GPCRs (G-protein coupled receptors). Shown below is the Heterotrimeric G-protein activation/deactivation cycle in the context of GPCR signaling:

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35
Q

Which of the following is found in the kidneys and plant root cells?
A. Porin
B. Sterol
C. Cholesterol
D. Hopanoids
E. Glycocalyx

A

Porin

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36
Q

Due to a genetic disorder, a patient is lacking amelogenin, which allows tooth enamel to stabilize and develop its structure. Which of the following membrane proteins is affected by the genetic disorder?
A. Porin
B. Channel protein
C. Adhesion protein
D. Receptor protein
E. Carrier protein

A

Adhesion protein

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37
Q

Transporter proteins use which of the following to transport material?
A. Active transport
B. Passive diffusion
C. Facilitated diffusion
D. Active transport and facilitated diffusion
E. Facilitated and passive diffusion

A

Active transport and facilitated diffusion

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38
Q

Which of the following can use ATP?
A. Facilitated diffusion
B. Simple diffusion
C. Osmosis
D. Transporter/Carrier proteins
E. Porins

A

Transporter/Carrier proteins

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39
Q

Channel proteins create a passage for which of the following substances?
A. Nonpolar
B. Polar
C. Hydrophobic
D. Small molecules
E. Non-charged molecules

A

Polar

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40
Q

A peripheral protein is attached by __________.
A. Loose attachment to the cellular membrane
B. Embedded in the cellular membrane
C. Embedded from one side to the other side to the cellular membrane
D. Not attached to the cellular membrane
E. Cooperativity of cellular membrane

A
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41
Q

An integral protein is __________.
A. Embedded in the cellular membrane
B. Embedded from one side to the other side of the cellular membrane
C. Loosely attached to the cellular membrane
D. Not attached to the cellular membrane
E. Cooperativity of the cellular membrane

A

Embedded in the cellular membrane

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42
Q

Which of the following is used to store and protect the DNA in the eukaryotic cell?
A. Nucleus
B. Nucleoid
C. Histone
D. Nucleolus
E. Ribosome

A

Nucleus

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43
Q

Which of the following aids in organizing DNA into chromatin?
A. Histones
B. Glycocalyx
C. RNA
D. Ribosomes
E. Nucleolus

A

Histones

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44
Q

When DNA is wrapped into a bundle with eight histone proteins, it is a __________.
A. Nucleosome
B. Chromatid
C. Chromosome
D. Nucleus
E. Nucleoid

A

Nucleosome

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45
Q

Which of the following is used for ribosome synthesis in the animal cell?
A. Nucleoid
B. Nuclear envelope
C. Nuclear pores
D. Nucleolus
E. Nucleoplasm

A

Nucleolus

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46
Q

Which of the following is used to synthesize ribosomes in the eukaryotic cell?
A. mRNA
B. rRNA
C. tRNA
D. DNA
E. Protein

A

rRNA

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47
Q

A toxin inhibits the nucleolus from functioning in the eukaryotic cell. Which processes will be directly affected by this?
A. RNA synthesis
B. DNA synthesis
C. DNA organization
D. Ribosome synthesis
E. mRNA synthesis

A

Ribosome synthesis

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48
Q

Which of the following best describes the difference between mRNA and rRNA?
A. mRNA is used in the nucleolus
B. mRNA is used to carry specific amino acids
C. rRNA is not used in the nucleolus
D. rRNA is the code used to create a protein
E. rRNA is used to create ribosomes

A

rRNA is used to create ribosomes

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49
Q

Which of the following covers the outside of the eukaryotic nucleus?
A. Nuclear lamina
B. Nucleolus
C. Chromatin
D. Nuclear envelope
E. Nucleoid

A

Nuclear envelope

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50
Q

The eukaryotic nuclear envelope contains __________.
A. Nuclear pores
B. Nuclear lamina
C. Nucleolus
D. Nucleoid
E. Chromatin

A

A. Nuclear pores
Remember: the terms nuclear membrane and nuclear envelope are synonymous. This question can be tricky because it is asking what is contained within the nuclear envelope, rather than just closely associated structures. The nuclear lamina consists of intermediate filaments (IFs) called lamins, which closely associate to the nuclear membrane’s inner leaflet via the anchoring protein emerin. IFs are highly flexible and provide the nucleus with structural support. The nucleolus is a region within the nucleus responsible for rRNA production/ribosomal biogenesis. The nucleoid region is present in prokaryotes which do not have a proper nucleus. Chromatin is the complex of DNA and proteins (histones, which organize DNA) and is the uncondensed (not a chromosome) form in the nucleus during interphase. Nuclear pores are found in the nuclear envelope, as shown below, and allow for the transport of proteins into and out of the nucleus—proteins often require transporter chaperones to pass through the pores.

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51
Q

To transport mRNA and some proteins out of the nucleus, the nucleus has __________.
A. Nuclear lamina
B. Nuclear pores
C. Nucleoid
D. rRNA
E. Nucleolus

A

Nuclear pores
Nuclear pores are found in the nuclear envelope (shown below) and allow for the transport of proteins into and out of the nucleus—proteins often require transporter chaperones to pass through the pores. These proteins are called importins and exportins, respectively.

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52
Q

When there are multiple nucleosomes coiled together, they are a __________.
A. Chromosome
B. Chromatin
C. Histone
D. Nucleus
E. Nucleoid

A

Chromatin

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53
Q

Which of the following functions structurally support the eukaryotic nucleus and regulate DNA replication?
A. Nuclear lamina
B. Nuclear envelope
C. Nucleoid
D. Histones
E. Chromosomes

A

Nuclear lamina

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54
Q

Which of the following makes up the nuclear lamina of eukaryotic cells?
A. RNA and protein
B. Intermediate filaments and proteins
C. Microtubules and proteins
D. Actin filaments and proteins
E. Microfilaments and proteins

A

Intermediate filaments and proteins

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55
Q

Eukaryotic cells have a nucleus and prokaryotic cells have a __________.
A. Nuclear lamina
B. Nucleoid
C. Nucleosome
D. Chromatin
E. Chromosome

A

Nucleoid

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56
Q

Which of the following aids in chromatin organization?
A. Gills
B. Chromosomes
C. Histones
D. Nuclear envelope
E. Nucleolus

A

Histones

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57
Q

Similar to the cellular cytoplasm, the nucleus has (a) __________.
A. Nucleoid
B. Nucleolus
C. Nucleoplasm
D. Nuclear envelope
E. Histones

A

Nucleoplasm

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58
Q

All of the following can possess a cell wall EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Bacteria
B. Plant cells
C. Fungal cells
D. Archaea
E. Animal cells

A

Animal cells

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59
Q

A majority of the genetic information of prokaryotes are contained by the __________.
A. Nucleus
B. Nucleoid
C. Nuclear lamina
D. Nucleolus
E. Nucleoplasm

A

Nucleoid

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60
Q

All the following are cell structures EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Mitochondria
B. Chloroplast
C. Cell membrane
D. Nucleus
E. Cytoplasm

A

Cytoplasm

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61
Q

The metabolic and transportation activity occurs in which area of the cell?
A. Mitochondria
B. Golgi apparatus
C. Nucleus
D. Cytosol
E. Cytoplasm

A

Cytoplasm

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62
Q

What is the difference between the cytoplasm and the cytosol?
A. The cytoplasm is the gel-like substance in the eukaryotic cell
B. The cytoplasm includes the organelles
C. The cytosol includes the organelles
D. The cytosol includes only the nucleus
E. The cytosol includes only the free-floating ribosomes

A

The cytoplasm includes the organelles

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63
Q

Ribosomes are physically made up of __________.
A. mRNA and protein
B. DNA and protein
C. tRNA and protein
D. rRNA and protein
E. Chromatin and protein

A

rRNA and protein

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64
Q

For eukaryotic cells, the subunits that make up ribosomes are __________.
A. mRNA + tRNA
B. rRNA + tRNA
C. 60S + 40S
D. 50S + 30S
E. 70S

A

60S + 40S

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65
Q

For prokaryotic cells, the subunits that make up ribosomes are __________.
A. mRNA + rRNA
B. tRNA + rRNA
C. 80S
D. 60S + 40S
E. 50S + 30S

A

50S + 30S

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66
Q

If a cell has a larger Svedberg unit value, then it generally is __________.
A. Lighter
B. Larger
C. Bacteria
D. A protist
E. A prokaryote

A

Larger

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67
Q

The movement within the cytoplasm is called __________.
A. Cytoplasmic streaming
B. Power stroke
C. Systolic number
D. Diastolic number
E. Svedberg unit

A

Cytoplasmic streaming

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68
Q

The organelle that assembles glycoproteins is called the __________.
A. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
B. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C. Mitochondria
D. Lysosome
E. Golgi apparatus

A

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

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69
Q

If an endoplasmic reticulum has ribosomes embedded on its surface, then it most likely __________.
A. Produces mRNA
B. Produces DNA
C. Produces glycoproteins
D. Produces lipids
E. Produces hydrogen peroxide

A

Produces glycoproteins

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70
Q

The organelle that produces lipids and steroid hormones is called the __________.
A. Lysosome
B. Peroxisome
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
E. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

A

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

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71
Q

If liver cells are severely damaged and unable to function, then the smooth endoplasmic reticulum is unable to:
A. Produce glycoproteins
B. Break down toxins
C. Transport substances
D. Produce hydrogen peroxide
E. Provide cell structure support

A

B. Break down toxins

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72
Q

The sarcoplasmic reticulum is located in __________.
A. Cardiac muscle
B. Smooth muscle
C. Cardiac and smooth muscle
D. Striated muscle
E. Striated and smooth muscle

A

Striated and smooth muscle

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73
Q

Which of the following is released by the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
A. Chloride ions
B. Calcium ions
C. Phosphorus ions
D. Hydrogen ions
E. Bicarbonate ions

A

Calcium ions
The sarcoplasmic reticulum is a specialized form of the endoplasmic reticulum found in striated and smooth muscle. It serves as a reservoir for Ca2+ cations which are released to help expose myosin-binding sites on actin filaments during muscle contraction. Troponin is the molecule to which Ca2+ binds, which then causes the tropomyosin fiber to be moved out of the major groove of actin, exposing myosin binding sites. Shown below is an image of excitation-contraction coupling in a skeletal muscle contraction:

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74
Q

Which of the following organelles produces lysosomes?
A. Peroxisome
B. Golgi apparatus
C. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
E. Nucleus

A

Golgi apparatus
The lysosome forms when vesicles filled with proteins bud off from the Trans Golgi Network of the Golgi apparatus (shown below) and fuse together. These vesicles are filled with enzymes to degrade proteins, lipids, carbohydrates, and nucleic acids. Also important are the H+ pump proteins which are sent from the Golgi to acidify the lysosome. This slightly acidic environment inside of the lysosome is important to ensuring the pH-sensitive enzymes do not become active before reaching the slightly acidic environment of the lysosome, as well as serving as a signaling device for receptors to release their cargo once they fuse with the lysosome.

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75
Q

This organelle has digestive enzymes that break down molecules.
A. Golgi apparatus
B. Lysosome
C. Peroxisome
D. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
E. Rough endoplasmic reticulum

A

Lysosome
The lysosome forms when vesicles filled with proteins bud off from the Trans Golgi Network of the Golgi apparatus and fuse together. These vesicles are filled with enzymes to degrade proteins, lipids, carbohydrates, and nucleic acids. Also important are the H+ pump proteins which are sent from the Golgi to acidify the lysosome. This slightly acidic environment inside of the lysosome is important to ensuring the pH-sensitive enzymes do not become active before reaching the slightly acidic environment of the lysosome, as well as serving as a signaling device for receptors to release their cargo once they fuse with the lysosome. The image below shows lysosomes digesting materials taken into the cell and recycling intracellular materials:

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76
Q

Which of the following organelles functions by packaging and transporting substances in vesicles?
A. Peroxisome
B. Golgi apparatus
C. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
E. Vacuole

A

Golgi apparatus

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77
Q

The flattened sacs in the Golgi apparatus are called __________.
A. Vacuoles
B. Vesicles
C. Cristae
D. Cisternae
E. Matrix

A

Cisternae

78
Q

What is the difference between the cis and trans faces of the Golgi apparatus?
A. The cis face is for secretory vesicles
B. The cis face is for secretory vacuoles
C. The trans face is for secretory vacuoles
D. The trans face is for secretory vesicles
E. The trans face is for incoming vesicles

A

The trans face is for secretory vesicles

79
Q

Which of the following organelles is common in liver and kidney cells?
A. Vacuole
B. Peroxisome
C. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
D. Mitochondria
E. Plastid

A

Peroxisome

80
Q

Which of the following organelles breaks down substances like amino acids in eukaryotic cells?
A. Golgi body
B. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
C. Vacuole
D. Plastid
E. Peroxisome

A

Peroxisome

81
Q

Which of the following is used by peroxisomes to oxidize substances?
A. Hydrogen
B. Oxygen
C. Nitrogen
D. Carbon dioxide
E. Hydrogen peroxide

A

Hydrogen peroxide

82
Q

What is the function of peroxisomes in plant cells?
A. Alter the by-products of the Calvin Cycle
B. Alter the by-products of the Kreb Cycle
C. Alter the by-products of glycolysis
D. Alter the by-products of photorespiration
E. Alter the by-product of fermentation

A

Alter the by-products of photorespiration

83
Q

Microtubules are made up of __________.
A. Microfilaments
B. Intermediate filaments
C. Tubulin
D. Actin
E. Cilia

A

Tubulin

84
Q

Which of the following forms the spindle apparatus during cellular division?
A. Microfilaments
B. Microtubules
C. Intermediate filaments
D. Transport vacuoles
E. Cell walls

A

Microtubules

85
Q

The digestive enzymes inside lysosomes function at (a) __________.
A. Low pH
B. High pH
C. Neutral pH
D. pH equilibrated to the cytosol
E. pH that is more basic than the cytosol

A

Low pH
H+ pump proteins are sent from the *Golgi to acidify the lysosome, resulting in a lower pH than the cytosol. This slightly acidic environment inside of the lysosome is important to ensure the pH-sensitive enzymes do not become active before reaching the slightly acidic environment of the lysosome, as well as serving as a signaling device for receptors to release their cargo once they fuse with the lysosome. Shown below are the pathways that intersect endosomes in the endocytic pathway:

86
Q

The digestive enzymes that move out of the lysosome will be __________.
A. Hyperactive in the cytosol
B. Inactive in the cytosol
C. Develop a low pH
D. Develop a high pH
E. Hyperactive with a low pH

A

Inactive in the cytosol
H+ pump proteins are sent from the Golgi to acidify the lysosome, resulting in a lower pH than the cytosol. This slightly acidic environment inside of the lysosome is important to ensure the pH-sensitive enzymes do not become active before reaching the lysosome, as well as serving as a signaling device for receptors to release their cargo once they fuse with the lysosome. If a lysosome were to burst, and lysosome enzymes were active at neutral pH, then the enzymes would be able to degrade the cell from the inside, which would be detrimental to the cell’s survival. Therefore, the enzymes are pH-sensitive as a safety measure for the cell. Shown below are the pathways that intersect endosomes in the endocytic pathway:

87
Q

Which organelle makes lysosomes?
A. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
B. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Peroxisome
E. Ribosomes

A

Golgi apparatus

88
Q

In germinating cells, glyoxysomes __________.
A. Create fatty acids
B. Break down fatty acids
C. Modify by-products of photorespiration
D. Serve as structural support
E. Maintain dormancy of the seed

A

Break down fatty acids

89
Q

Intermediate filaments __________.
A. Act as the spindle apparatus during cellular division
B. Provide support to maintain cellular structure
C. Allow for cellular mobility
D. Are found in flagella and cilia
E. Are found in cleavage furrows in animal cells

A

Provide support to maintain cellular structure

90
Q

Microtubule Organization Centers are found everywhere besides __________.
A. Animal cells
B. Plant cells
C. Bacterial cells
D. Centrosome
E. Basal bodies

A

Bacterial cells
Both plant and animal cells (eukaryotes) divide mitotically/meiotically, processes which require the organization of microtubules to pull replicated chromosomes to each pole of the dividing cell. Bacterial cells have one, circular chromosome and divide via binary fission—a process independent of microtubules. Thus, MTOCs are not required by bacteria. The other function of MTOCs in eukaryotes is to serve as the nucleation site for building cilia and flagella. However, in bacteria, flagella are constructed from a protein called flagellin, not a microtubule, thus an MTOC is not required. Centrosomes (shown below) are the MTOC for microtubules involved in cell division while basal bodies are the MTOC for flagella and cilia.

91
Q

Microtubules that are part of cilia/flagella are found as __________.
A. 80S
B. 60S
C. 70S
D. 9 + 2 array
E. 9 x 3 array

A

9 + 2 array

92
Q

Which of the following best describes the function of transport vacuoles?
A. Holds nutrients to later break down food
B. Moves substances to different parts of the cell
C. Expresses turgor to maintain cellular structure
D. Stores molecules and toxic substances
E. Pumps and collects water using active transport

A

Moves substances to different parts of the cell

93
Q

Which of the following best describes the function of food vacuoles?
A. Pumps and collects water using active transport
B. Moves substances to different parts of the cell
C. Holds nutrients to later break down food
D. Expresses turgor to maintain cellular structure
E. Stores molecules and toxic substances

A
94
Q

Which of the following best describes the function of the central vacuole?
A. Maintains cellular structure in animal cells
B. Expresses turgor to maintain cellular structure
C. Stores pigments and starch
D. Pumps and collects water using active transport
E. Moves substances to different parts of cells

A

Expresses turgor to maintain cellular structure

95
Q

Which of the following best describes the function of storage vacuoles?
A. Stores pigments and starch
B. Expresses turgor to maintain cellular structure
C. Pumps and collects water using active transport
D. Moves substances to different parts of cells
E. Hold nutrients to later break down food

A

Stores pigments and starch

96
Q

Which of the following best describes the function of contractile vacuoles?
A. Moves substances to different parts of cells
B. Maintain osmosis in plant cells
C. Pumps and collects water using active transport in plant cells
D. Pumps and collects water using active transport in some protozoa organisms
E. Store pigments and starch

A

Pumps and collects water using active transport in some protozoa organisms

97
Q

All the following are in plant cells EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Glyoxysomes
B. Cell wall
C. Contractile vacuoles
D. Storage vacuoles
E. Central vacuoles

A

Contractile vacuoles

98
Q

Cell walls are found in all the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Plant cells
B. Animal cells
C. Fungal cells
D. Protist cells
E. Bacterial cells

A

Animal cells

99
Q

Microtubule Organizing Centers are found as __________.
A. 9 + 2 array
B. 9 x 3 array
C. 60S
D. 70S
E. 80S

A

9 x 3 array

100
Q

Which of the following best describes the development of mitochondria in cells?
A. Endosymbiotic Theory
B. RNA World Hypothesis
C. Central Dogma
D. Modern Cell Theory
E. Big Bang theory

A

Endosymbiotic Theory

101
Q

Which of the following best describes the function of plastids?
A. Site of energy creation in both animal and plant cells
B. Site of photosynthesis in animal cells
C. Site of photosynthesis in plant cells
D. Site of beta-oxidation in plant cells
E. Site of beta-oxidation in animal cells

A

Site of photosynthesis in plant cells

102
Q

Which of the following best describes the function of mitochondria?
A. Fatty acid anabolism
B. Fatty acid catabolism
C. Beta reduction
D. Anaerobic respiration
E. Fermentation

A

Fatty acid catabolism

103
Q

Which of the following organelles is not found in both animal and plant cells?
A. Mitochondria
B. Golgi apparatus
C. Peroxisome
D. Plastid
E. Ribosomes

A

Plastid [

104
Q

If a mutation in animal cells causes mitochondria to be defective, then which of the following will occur?
A. Cells will die due to increased aerobic respiration
B. Cells will die due to increased by-products of photorespiration
C. Cells will die due to a lack of energy to drive basic functions
D. Cells will survive but will be unable to produce lipids
E. Cells will survive but will be unable to produce glycoproteins

A

Cells will die due to a lack of energy to drive basic functions

105
Q

All the following are part of the endomembrane system EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
B. Mitochondria
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Vacuoles
E. Vesicles

A

Mitochondria

106
Q

All the following are part of the endomembrane system of either animal or plant cells EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
B. Lysosomes
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Chloroplast
E. Nuclear envelope

A

Chloroplast

107
Q

Which of the following organelles holds the genetic material of a eukaryotic cell?
A. Nucleosome
B. Nucleoid
C. Nucleolus
D. Nucleus
E. Nuclear lamina

A

Nucleus

108
Q

Which of the following best describes tightly wound chromatin in the eukaryotic cell?
A. Chromosome
B. Histone
C. Nucleus
D. Nucleolus
E. Nuclear lamina

A

Chromosome
During different stages of the *cell cycle, the condensation state of DNA changes. The complex between DNA and protein is called *chromatin. When the cell is in interphase (G1, S, and G2), the chromatin remains in its uncondensed state. However, in *M phase, specifically during prophase, chromatin condenses into chromosomes, as shown below, which is the highly condensed form of DNA, allowing the DNA to be evenly separated into two daughter cells when the cell divides.

109
Q

Lysosomes are formed from __________.
A. Budding from the Golgi apparatus
B. Budding from the rough endoplasmic reticulum
C. Budding from the smooth endoplasmic reticulum
D. Budding from the nucleus
E. Endocytic internalization

A

Budding from the Golgi apparatus
*Lysosomes (shown below) form from vesicles which bud off the *Trans Golgi network and then fuse in the cytoplasm. These vesicles contain digestive enzymes for many different macromolecules, which are also pH-sensitive—just like the lumen of the Golgi, the lysosome has a slightly acidic pH, which means the digestive enzymes are only active at this specific pH, so if the lysosome were to burst, the enzymes would be inactive in the cytosol and wouldn’t pose harm to the cell.

110
Q

Eukaryotic flagella obtain energy using __________.
A. ATP hydrolysis
B. Proton motive force

A

ATP hydrolysis
*Prokaryotic and *eukaryotic flagella are different in a few ways. Generally, prokaryotic flagella are more simple and smaller in structure than those of eukaryotes. Prokaryotic flagella are made of the protein flagellin, whereas in eukaryotes, flagella are made of tubulin arranged in a 9 + 2 array. The way the flagella move is also different. In prokaryotes, it undergoes a rotary movement, whereas in eukaryotes it moves in a bending fashion. Finally, the energy which drives the movement is different between the two classes of flagella. In prokaryotes, flagellar movement is driven by energy from proton pumps, whereas in eukaryotes, flagellar movement is driven by *ATP hydrolysis. Shown below is an image of the characteristics of eukaryotic flagella:

111
Q

Prokaryotic flagella obtain energy using __________.
A. ATP hydrolysis
B. Proton motive force

A

B. Proton motive force
Prokaryotic and eukaryotic flagella are different in a few ways. Generally, prokaryotic flagella are more simple and smaller in structure than those of eukaryotes. Prokaryotic flagella are made of the protein flagellin, whereas in eukaryotes, flagella are made of tubulin arranged in a 9 + 2 array. The way the flagella move is also different. In prokaryotes, it undergoes a rotary movement, whereas in eukaryotes it moves in a bending fashion. Finally, the energy which drives the movement is different between the two classes of flagella. In prokaryotes, flagellar movement is driven by energy from *proton pumps, whereas in eukaryotes, flagellar movement is driven by ATP hydrolysis. Shown below is an image of the characteristics of eukaryotic flagella:

112
Q

Which of the following is not a part of the endomembrane system?
A. Peroxisomes
B. Lysosomes
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Endoplasmic reticulum
E. Nuclear envelope

A

Peroxisomes

113
Q

Which of the following is not a membrane-bound organelle?
A. Endoplasmic reticulum
B. Nucleus
C. Lysosome
D. Ribosome
E. Mitochondria

A

Ribosome

114
Q

A lack of water can cause a plant to appear wilted due to a(n) __________.
A. Increase in cell membrane fluidity
B. Decrease in cell membrane fluidity
C. Reduction in turgor pressure
D. Increase in turgor pressure
E. Transpiration

A

Reduction in turgor pressure

115
Q

Smooth endoplasmic reticulumThe specialized membrane of central vacuoles is the __________.
A. Central membrane
B. Turgor membrane
C. Tonoplast
D. Membranoid
E. Plastid

A

Tonoplast

116
Q

A human disease results in an inability to synthesize enough steroid hormones. Which organelle is likely affected?
A. Nucleus
B. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
D. Mitochondria
E. Golgi apparatus

A

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

117
Q

A human disease results in an inability to efficiently detoxify drugs. Which organelle is likely affected?
A. Nucleus
B. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
D. Golgi apparatus
E. Central vacuole Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

A

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

118
Q

If cells bind using focal adhesions, then __________.
A. Actin filaments of the cell are bound
B. Intermediate filaments of the cell are bound
C. The keratin of the cell is bound
D. Both actin and intermediate filaments of the cell are bound
E. Microtubules of the cell are bound

A

Actin filaments of the cell are bound

119
Q

If cells bind using hemidesmosomes, then __________.
A. Microtubules of the cell are bound
B. Gap junctions of the cell are bound
C. Adherens junctions of the cell are bound
D. Actin filaments of the cell are bound
E. Intermediate filaments of the cell are bound

A

Intermediate filaments of the cell are bound

120
Q

Which of the following creates collagen and other tissue elements used for connectivity?
A. Erythroblast
B. Fibroblast
C. Osteoblast
D. Monocyte
E. Chondroblast

A

Fibroblast

121
Q

Which of the following is used to bind adjacent animal cells to each other?
A. Plasma membrane
B. Glycocalyx
C. Extracellular matrix
D. Nucleus
E. Cytoskeleton

A

Extracellular matrix

122
Q

The most common protein that binds adjacent animal cells together is __________.
A. Integrin
B. Fibronectin
C. Collagen
D. Intermediate filaments
E. Microtubules

A

Collagen

123
Q

Which of the following best describes the endomembrane system?
A. All the organelles in the eukaryotic cell
B. All the membranes in the eukaryotic cell
C. All the organelles and membranes in the eukaryotic cell
D. The organelles that work in the transport of molecules in the cell
E. The organelles and membranes that work in the transport of molecules in the cell

A

E. The organelles and membranes that work in the transport of molecules in the cell

124
Q

Cells can bind to the extracellular matrix with __________.
A. Desmosomes
B. Hemidesmosomes
C. Adherens junctions
D. Gap junctions
E. Tight junctions

A

B. Hemidesmosomes

125
Q

Cells can bind to the extracellular matrix with __________.
A. Adherens junctions
B. Gap junctions
C. Tight junctions
D. Focal Adhesions
E. Desmosomes

A

Focal Adhesions

126
Q

Which of the following best describes intracellular circulation via the endoplasmic reticulum?
A. Random particle movement due to kinetic energy intracellularly
B. The circular motion of the cytoplasm around cell transport molecules
C. Channel to provide passage from the plasma to the nuclear membrane
D. Diffusion for the transport of materials
E. Movement of interstitial fluid through the body

A

Channel to provide passage from the plasma to the nuclear membrane

127
Q

Which of the following is an example of extracellular circulation?
A. Brownian movement
B. Cyclosis
C. Cytoplasmic streaming
D. Endoplasmic reticulum
E. Diffusion

A

Diffusion

128
Q

The circulatory system of many complex animals is __________.
A. Cytoplasmic streaming
B. Brownian movement
C. Diffusion
D. Extracellular circulation
E. Intracellular circulation

A

Extracellular circulation

129
Q

Brownian movement results from __________.
A. Thermal energy
B. Kinetic energy
C. Potential energy
D. Nuclear energy
E. Gravitational energy

A

Kinetic energy

130
Q

The circular movement of the cytoplasm around cell transport molecules Which of the following best describes the Brownian movement?
A. Random particle movement due to kinetic energy extracellularly
B. Random particle movement due to kinetic energy intracellularly
C. The circular movement of the cytoplasm around cell transport molecules
D. Diffusion for the transport of materials
E. Channel to provide passage from the plasma to the nuclear membrane

A

Random particle movement due to kinetic energy intracellularly

131
Q

Which of the following best describes cyclosis or cytoplasmic streaming?
A. Random particle movement due to kinetic energy intracellularly
B. Channel to provide passage from the plasma to the nuclear membrane
C. The circular movement of the cytoplasm around cell transport molecules
D. Diffusion for the transport of materials
E. Movement of blood through the body

A

The circular movement of the cytoplasm around cell transport molecules

132
Q

Animal cells that experience mechanical stress like the skin tend to have __________.
A. Anchoring junctions
B. Gap junctions
C. Plasmodesmata
D. Tight junctions
E. Connexins

A

Anchoring junctions

133
Q

Which cell junction produces a seal to prevent the movement of molecules between cells?
A. Anchoring junctions
B. Gap junctions
C. Plasmodesmata
D. Tight junctions
E. Adhesion protein

A

Tight junctions

134
Q

Which of the following is the function of tight junctions?
A. Aids the cervix with mechanical stress
B. Creates a junction to allow substances to move from one cell to another
C. Forms a seal preventing substances from traveling between cells
D. Inhibits the movement of the phospholipid membrane
E. Tightly draws in electrolytes to the cell’s interior

A

Forms a seal preventing substances from traveling between cells

135
Q

Animal cells that line the digestive tract in regions where substances need to go through the cells into the blood tend to have __________.
A. Anchoring junctions
B. Gap junctions
C. Tight junctions
D. Plasmodesmata
E. Desmotubules

A

Tight junctions

136
Q

Which animal cell junction provides tunnels that allow the movement of small molecules or ions?
A. Tight junctions
B. Plasmodesmata
C. Desmotubules
D. Gap junctions
E. Anchoring junctions

A

Gap junctions
*Gap junctions (shown below) function as narrow tunnels between adjacent animal cells and form through proteins called *connexins. Connexins also prevent the cytoplasms of the interfacing cells from mixing but do allow for the transport of ions and small molecules. Gap junctions are found in the heart muscle which requires the passing of ions quickly to propagate an electrical potential across a wide surface. A circular arrangement of 6 connexin proteins in the plasma membrane of each cell forms the tunnel which we call a connexon, through which solutes travel.

137
Q

Gap junctions __________.
A. Allow cytoplasm of cells to mix
B. Prevent cytoplasm of cells to mix
C. Allow large molecules to pass through
D. Allow small molecules to pass through plant cells
E. Provide mechanical support to skin cells

A

Prevent cytoplasm of cells to mix

138
Q

Cardiac tissue needs to quickly pass electrical impulses. The best cellular junction for this will be __________.
A. Anchoring junctions
B. Tight junctions
C. Gap junctions
D. Plasmodesmata
E. Hemidesmosomes

A

Gap junctions

139
Q

The proteins that make up gap junctions are called __________.
A. Hemidesmosomes
B. Desmosomes
C. Desmotubule
D. Connexins
E. Microtubules

A

Connexins

140
Q

Plasmodesmata in plant cells are analogous to which of the following in animal cells?
A. Gap junctions
B. Anchoring junctions
C. Tight junctions
D. Plasmodesmata
E. Plastids

A

Gap junctions

141
Q

Which cellular junctions consist of narrow tubes called desmotubules that allow the transfer of material from one cytoplasm to another in an adjacent cell?
A. Gap junctions
B. Anchoring junctions
C. Tight junctions
D. Plasmodesmata
E. Mitochondria

A

. Plasmodesmata

142
Q

The narrow tubes of endoplasmic reticulum in plant cells are called __________.
A. Desmosomes
B. Desmotubules
C. Connexins
D. Gap junctions
E. Channel proteins

A

Desmotubules

143
Q

If the movement of molecules between plant cells is favored, which cellular junction should be used?
A. Plasmodesmata
B. Gap junctions
C. Tight junctions
D. Anchoring junctions
E. Connexins

A

Plasmodesmata

144
Q

Cadherin proteins are linked to adherens junctions via __________.
A. Microtubules
B. Intermediate filaments
C. Actin
D. Myosin
E. Integrin

A

Actin

145
Q

The function of cell junctions is to __________.
A. Connect cells to the extracellular matrix
B. Connect cells to neighboring cells
C. Connect organelles to the cytoplasm
D. Connect organelles to each other
E. Connect organelles to the nucleus

A

Connect cells to neighboring cells

146
Q

Which cell junction binds using adhesion proteins and keratin filaments?
A. Gap junctions
B. Desmosomes
C. Plasmodesmata
D. Tight junctions
E. Hemidesmosomes

A

Desmosomes

147
Q

If a mutated cell leaks substances between neighboring cells, then there is most likely an issue with its __________.
A. Gap junctions
B. Anchoring junctions
C. Plasmodesmata
D. Tight junctions
E. Hemidesmosomes

A

Tight junctions

148
Q

If a mutated cell causes frequent breakage within an epithelial tissue, then there is most likely an issue with its __________.
A. Plasmodesmata
B. Tight junctions
C. Hemidesmosomes
D. Gap junctions
E. Anchoring junctions

A

Anchoring junctions

149
Q

The heart tissue is unable to receive electrical impulses in time, causing an abnormal heartbeat. Damage to which of the following cellular junctions can cause this?
A. Plasmodesmata
B. Anchoring junctions
C. Hemidesmosomes
D. Gap junctions
E. Tight junctions

A

Gap junctions

150
Q

Which of the following is a difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
A. Prokaryotes have flagella made of microtubules
B. Prokaryotes have flagella made of flagellin
C. Eukaryotes have flagella made of flagellin
D. Eukaryotic cell walls are made of peptidoglycan
E. Eukaryotes have 70S ribosomes

A

Prokaryotes have flagella made of flagellin

151
Q

Prokaryotes have __________.
A. A nucleus
B. Chromatin
C. 80S ribosomes
D. No cell wall
E. Flagella made from flagellin

A

Flagella made from flagellin

152
Q

All the following are not eukaryotes EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Bacteria
B. Cyanobacteria
C. Archaebacteria
D. Prokaryotes
E. Protists

A

Protists

153
Q

Unlike prokaryotes, eukaryotes have __________.
A. Smaller cell size
B. Larger cell size
C. One chromosome
D. Faster growth rate
E. No organelles

A

Larger cell size

154
Q

Which of the following do both prokaryotes and eukaryotes have?
A. Plasma membrane
B. Nucleus
C. Nucleoid
D. Peptidoglycan cell walls
E. Microtubule flagella

A

Plasma membrane

155
Q

Which of the following appears in all eukaryotes?
A. Cell wall
B. Chloroplast
C. Plastid
D. Nucleus
E. Nucleoid

A

Nucleus

156
Q

Which of the following appears in all prokaryotes?
A. Peptidoglycan cell wall
B. Mitochondria
C. Chloroplast
D. Ribosomes
E. Nucleus

A

Ribosomes

157
Q

All the following concerning the genetic information of prokaryotic cells are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Single strand
B. Circular
C. Double-stranded DNA
D. Contains chromatin
E. In the nucleoid

A

Contains chromatin

158
Q

The cell walls of most bacteria contain __________.
A. Peptidoglycan
B. Polysaccharides
C. Cellulose
D. Chitin
E. Flagella

A

Peptidoglycan
The *cell wall is a crucial part of plant, fungal, protist, and some bacterial cells. The cell wall provides rigidity and structural support for these organisms. However, animal cells do not have a cell wall. Another important fact to remember is that plant cell walls are made of cellulose, chitin makes up the cell walls of fungi, *peptidoglycan makes up bacterial cell walls, and polysaccharides make up archaeal cell walls. Shown below is an image of the structure of gram-positive cell wall:

159
Q

The cell walls of most archaea contain __________.
A. Cellulose
B. Chitin
C. Cilia
D. Peptidoglycan
E. Polysaccharides

A

Polysaccharides
The *cell wall is a crucial part of plant, fungal, protist, and some bacterial cells. The cell wall provides rigidity and structural support for these organisms. However, animal cells do not have a cell wall. Another important fact to remember is that plant cell walls are made of cellulose, chitin makes up the cell walls of fungi, peptidoglycan makes up bacterial cell walls, and *polysaccharides make up archaeal cell walls. Shown below is an image of prokaryotic cell envelopes containing surface (S) layers:

160
Q

If a solution has a lower solute concentration than the solute concentration in the cell, then it is __________.
A. Hypertonic
B. Hypotonic
C. Isotonic

A

Hypotonic

161
Q

If a solute is the same concentration in solution as in the cell, then it is __________.
A. Hypertonic
B. Hypotonic
C. Isotonic

A

Isotonic

162
Q

A researcher places red blood cells in a solution of unknown concentration. The red blood cells swelled and lysed. The solution was most likely __________.
A. Hypertonic
B. Hypotonic
C. Isotonic

A

Hypotonic

163
Q

A researcher places red blood cells in a solution of unknown concentration. The red blood cells shriveled. The solution was most likely __________.
A. Hypotonic
B. Hypertonic
C. Isotonic

A

B. Hypertonic

164
Q

A researcher places red blood cells in a solution of unknown concentration. The red blood cells remained the same volume. The solution was most likely __________.
A. Hypertonic
B. Hypotonic
C. Isotonic

A

Isotonic

165
Q

If a plant cell is in a hypertonic solution, then the central vacuole will become __________.
A. Plasmolyzed
B. Flaccid
C. Turgid

A

Plasmolyzed

166
Q

If a plant cell is in a hypotonic solution, then the central vacuole will become __________.
A. Plasmolyzed
B. Flaccid
C. Turgid

A

Turgid

167
Q

If a plant cell is in an isotonic solution, then the central vacuole will become __________.
A. Plasmolyzed
B. Flaccid
C. Turgid

A

B. Flaccid

168
Q

If a solution has a higher solute concentration than a cell, then it is __________.
A. Hypertonic
B. Hypotonic
C. Isotonic

A

Hypertonic

169
Q

If the immune system cannot perform this well, the human body is at higher risk of pathogen attack.
A. Pinocytosis
B. Phagocytosis
C. Diffusion
D. Group translocation
E. Passive transport

A

Phagocytosis

170
Q

Secondary active transport can use __________.
A. The energy of a molecule moving down its concentration gradient
B. The energy of a molecule moving against its concentration gradient
C. ATP directly
D. Passive transport.
E. Endocytosis.

A

A. The energy of a molecule moving down its concentration gradient

171
Q

All the following are forms of passive transport EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Osmosis
B. Simple diffusion
C. Dialysis
D. Plasmolysis
E. Endocytosis

A

Endocytosis

172
Q

Which of the following best describes diffusion?
A. Random movement of molecules from low to high concentrations
B. Random movement of molecules from high to low concentrations
C. Non-random movement of molecules from high to low concentrations
D. Non-random movement of molecules against the gradient
E. Non-random movement of molecules following the concentration gradient

A

Random movement of molecules from high to low concentrations

173
Q

Which of the following best describes active transport?
A. Uses energy to move particles with their concentration gradient
B. Uses energy to move particles against their concentration gradient
C. Uses diffusion to move particles with their concentration gradient
D. Uses diffusion to move particles against their concentration gradient
E. Uses collective transfer of molecules in the same direction

A

Uses energy to move particles against their concentration gradient

174
Q

hich of the following best describes primary active transport?
A. Use of ATP to directly move particles against concentration gradients
B. Use of ATP to directly move particles with concentration gradients
C. Use of indirect energy to move particles with concentration gradients
D. Use of indirect energy to move particles against concentration gradients
E. Use of chemical alteration to move particles

A

Use of ATP to directly move particles against concentration gradients

175
Q

Which of the following best describes secondary active transport?
A. Use of indirect energy to move particles with concentration gradients
B. Use of indirect energy to move particles against concentration gradients
C. Use of ATP to directly move particles against concentration gradients
D. Use of ATP to directly move particles with concentration gradients
E. Use of chemical alteration to move particles

A

B. Use of indirect energy to move particles against concentration gradients

176
Q

The chemical alteration of a substance to prevent back diffusion is called __________.
A. Group translocation
B. Cyclosis
C. Brownian movement
D. Exocytosis
E. Endocytosis

A

Group translocation [

177
Q

The ability to drive secondary active transport can be explained by __________.
A. Gibbs free energy
B. Basal metabolic rate
C. Passive transport
D. Temperature
E. Volume

A

Gibbs free energy

178
Q

The coupling with which of the following will drive a +G unfavorable reaction to completion?
A. -G
B. +G
C. +H
D. -H
E. -T

A

-G

179
Q

If a primary reaction has a +G value and the next secondary reaction has a higher +G value, then __________.
A. The reaction is spontaneous
B. The reaction is favorable
C. The reaction is exergonic
D. The reaction is endergonic
E. The reaction gives off energy

A

The reaction is endergonic

180
Q

As a child grows physically, their basal metabolic rate __________.
A. Decreases with size
B. Increases with size
C. Stays constant
D. Requires less energy
E. Increases per kilogram

A

Increases with size

181
Q

An increased temperature will __________.
A. Decrease metabolism
B. Increase metabolism

A

B. Increase metabolism

182
Q

Compared to a teenager, a geriatric patient most likely has (a) __________.
A. Higher body temperature
B. Lower body temperature
C. Higher basal metabolic rate
D. Decreased metabolism
E. Increased metabolism

A

Decreased metabolism

183
Q

If a reaction is spontaneous, then which of the following holds true?
A. Positive Gibbs free energy
B. Decreases thermodynamic stability
C. Increased thermodynamic stability
D. Work capacity increases
E. Energy is needed to drive the reaction

A

Increased thermodynamic stability

184
Q

Why does a squirrel have a higher BMR per kg when compared with an elephant’s BMR?
A. BMR is dependent on presence or absence of leather and fur
B. BMR decreases per kg as size increases
C. BMR increases per kg and size increases
D. BMR decreases per kg as size decreases
E. Squirrels have a larger surface area

A

BMR decreases per kg as size increases

185
Q

The equation for Gibbs Free Energy is __________.
A. G = HT - S
B. G = H - S
C. G = H + S
D. G = H + TS
E. G = H - TS

A

G = H - TS

186
Q

All the following are forms of active transport EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Endocytosis
B. Phagocytosis
C. Pinocytosis
D. Receptor-mediated endocytosis
E. Plasmolysis

A

Plasmolysis

187
Q

Engulfing solid material using a white blood cell is __________.
A. Phagocytosis
B. Pinocytosis
C. Receptor-mediated endocytosis
D. Dialysis
E. Plasmolysis

A

Phagocytosis

188
Q

The invagination of the plasma membrane around liquid or dissolved material is concerned to be __________.
A. Dialysis
B. Phasmolysis
C. Phagocytosis
D. Pinocytosis
E. Receptor-mediated endocytosis

A

Pinocytosis

189
Q

The specific binding of ligands to receptors is concerned to be __________.
A. Receptor-mediated endocytosis
B. Plasmolysis
C. Pinocytosis
D. Dialysis
E. Phagocytosis

A

Receptor-mediated endocytosis [

190
Q

The transportation of cholesterol and hormones by proteins is a form of __________.
A. Phagocytosis
B. Plasmolysis
C. Receptor-mediated endocytosis
D. Dialysis
E. Plasmolysis

A

Receptor-mediated endocytosis

191
Q

Receptor-mediated endocytosis is a form of __________.
A. Dialysis
B. Plasmolysis
C. Pinocytosis
D. Phagocytosis
E. Exocytosis

A

Pinocytosis

192
Q

Reactions in biology can only be coupled if they share __________.
A. Enzymes
B. Similar temperature
C. Reactants
D. Product
E. Intermediates

A

Intermediates