Cell Division Flashcards by Andrew Speciale

Mitosis and meiosis can both occur in which of the following cell types?
A. Skin cells
B. Muscle cells
C. Bone cells
D. Germ cells
E. Organ cells

Germ cells

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Which of the following lays outside of the animal cell nucleus in pairs to aid with cell division?
A. Actin filaments
B. Centromere
C. Centrioles
D. Spindle fibers
E. Kinetochores

Centrioles

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In order, what are the steps of mitosis?
A. Prophase, telophase, metaphase, anaphase, and cytokinesis
B. Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, and cytokinesis
C. Prophase, metaphase, telophase, anaphase, and cytokinesis
D. Prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase, and cytokinesis
E. Prophase, anaphase, telophase, metaphase, and cytokinesis

Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, and cytokinesis

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During which step of mitosis does the nucleus disassemble?
A. Metaphase
B. Telophase
C. Cytokinesis
D. Prophase
E. Anaphase I

Prophase

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During mitosis, chromatin first condenses into chromosomes during __________.
A. Anaphase II
B. Telophase
C. Prophase
D. Cytokinesis
E. Metaphase II

Prophase

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The breakdown of the nucleus in mitosis occurs during the __________.
A. Anaphase step
B. Metaphase step
C. Prophase step
D. Telophase step
E. Cytokinesis step

Prophase step

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When does the mitotic spindle of mitosis begin to develop?
A. Anaphase
B. Prophase
C. Metaphase
D. Telophase
E. Cytokinesis

Prophase

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During mitosis, microtubules start binding to kinetochores during __________.
A. Prophase I
B. Prophase II
C. Prophase
D. Anaphase I
E. Telophase

. Prophase

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Prophase is characterized by all the following changes EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Chromosomes condense and are visible
B. Nucleolus disappears
C. Nucleus disassembles
D. Centrosomes are at opposite sides of the cell
E. Spindle fibers form from the centrosomes

Centrosomes are at opposite sides of the cell

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Which step of mitosis is characterized by the lining of chromosomes at the centre of the somatic cell?
A. Prophase I
B. Prophase II
C. Metaphase
D. Anaphase
E. Telophase

Metaphase

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During the prophase of mitosis, chromatin condenses into __________.
A. Euchromatin
B. Heterochromatin
C. Sister chromatids
D. Chromosomes
E. Histones

Chromosomes

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Which region of the chromatid do spindle fibers bind to during mitosis?
A. Gene
B. Allele
C. Kinetochore
D. DNA
E. Synaptonemal complex

C. Kinetochore

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A geneticist would like to produce an image of a patient’s chromosomes. Which step of mitosis should they inspect for the best observation of the individual chromosomes?
A. Prophase
B. Metaphase
C. Anaphase
D. Telophase
E. Cytokinesis

B. Metaphase

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Imaging of a complete set of a persons’ chromosomes is known as __________.
A. Gel electrophoresis
B. Western blot
C. Southern blot
D. Karyotyping
E. ELISA

D. Karyotyping

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Metaphase of mitosis involves the following characteristics EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Full development of mitotic spindle
B. Centrosomes are at opposite ends of the pole
C. Chromosomes are lined at the middle of the cell
D. Chromosomes are pulled towards opposite ends of the pole
E. Sister chromatids are bound to spindle fibers

Chromosomes are pulled towards opposite ends of the pole

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In somatic cells, spindle fibers used during mitosis are created by the __________.
A. Nucleolus
B. Cytoplasm
C. Centrioles
D. Chromatin
E. Kinetochore

C. Centrioles

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At which point of somatic cell mitosis do chromosome numbers first multiply?
A. Prophase
B. Anaphase
C. Metaphase
D. Telophase
E. Binary fission

B. Anaphase

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Which of the following occurs during anaphase of mitosis?
A. Chromosomes line up along the center of the cell
B. Chromosomes are pulled towards opposite ends of the pole
C. Nucleolus disappears
D. Mitotic spindle develops
E. Chromosomes begin to decondense

Chromosomes are pulled towards opposite ends of the pole

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Which of the following are the overall steps of cell division?
A. Karyokinesis and nuclear division
B. Karyokinesis and binary fission
C. Karyokinesis and cytokinesis
D. Prophase and cytokinesis
E. Prophase and metaphase

Karyokinesis and cytokinesis

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Which of the following is the correct number of chromosomes in a healthy human?
A. 21
B. 23
C. 42
D. 46
E. 92

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How many homologous pairs are in a healthy diploid cell?
A. 21
B. 23
C. 24
D. 46
E. 92

B. 23

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How many chromatids are in a human somatic cell right before it enters cell division?
A. 23 chromatids
B. 42 chromatids
C. 46 chromatids
D. 52 chromatids
E. 92 chromatids

92 chromatids

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Which of the following best describes a diploid cell?
A. Cell with one copy of chromosomes
B. Cell with two copies of chromosomes
C. Cells that undergo meiosis
D. Cells that are incapable of mitotic division
E. Germ cells

Cell with two copies of chromosomes

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Which of the following changes during the anaphase step of mitosis?
A. Chromatin begins to condense
B. Chromosome numbers decrease
C. Sister chromatids are separated
D. Mitotic spindle begins to form
E. Nucleus reforms

Sister chromatids are separated

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The pulling of chromosomes to opposite ends during mitotic anaphase is known as __________. A. Crossing over B. Nondisjunction C. Disjunction D. Aneuploidy E. Binary fission

Disjunction

Mitotic anaphase involves all the following steps EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Cohesion proteins bound to sister chromatids degrade B. Sister chromatids form into chromosomes C. Non-kinetochore spindle fibers shorten D. Disjunction occurs E. Chromosome number doubles

Non-kinetochore spindle fibers shorten

During which step of mitosis does nuclear division occur? A. Cytokinesis B. Prophase C. Anaphase D. Metaphase E. Telophase

Telophase

The nuclear envelope of the somatic cell reforms during which step of mitosis? A. Cytokinesis B. Metaphase C. Telophase D. Anaphase E. Prophase

C. Telophase

Which step of mitosis involves the reformation of the nucleus? A. Telophase B. Anaphase C. Metaphase D. Prophase E. Cytokinesis

A. Telophase

The telophase step of mitosis involves all the following changes EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Decondensing of chromosomes B. Nuclear envelope reforms C. Nucleoli reforms D. Mitotic spindle binds to sister chromatids E. Nuclear division occurs

Mitotic spindle binds to sister chromatids

Which of the following best defines cytokinesis during mitosis? A. Duplication of chromosomes B. Formation of nucleus C. Crossing over of chromosomes D. Decondensing of chromatids E. Physical dividing of cytoplasm

Physical dividing of cytoplasm

Which of the following occurs in animal cells during mitotic cytokinesis? A. Lengthening of actin and myosin filaments B. Pulling of cytoplasm to opposite ends of the cell C. Cleavage furrow formation D. Cell plate formation E. Middle lamella cementation

Cleavage furrow formation

Which of the following must occur for a cleavage furrow to develop during cytokinesis? A. Shortening of tubulin microfilaments B. Shortening of actin and tubulin microfilaments C. Shortening of actin and myosin microfilaments D. Shortening of microtubules connected to chromatid E. Development of middle lamella

Shortening of actin and myosin microfilaments

Which of the following occurs in plant cells during mitotic cytokinesis? A. Cleavage furrow forms B. Actin and myosin microfilaments shorten C. Plasma membrane is pulled into the cell center D. Cell plate forms E. Two plant cells fuse together

Cell plate forms

Which of the following organelles is essential for creating the plant cell plate? A. Mitochondria B. Lysosomes C. Golgi apparatus D. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum E. Rough endoplasmic reticulum

Golgi apparatus

Prophase

Metaphase

. Anaphase step of mitosis

Telophase

Animal cell cleavage furrow formation

D. Plant cell

Which region on the chromosome connects sister chromatids together? A. Centrosomes B. Centromere C. Kinetochore D. Chiasmata E. Synaptonemal complex

B. Centromere

A mutated chromosome is unable to be separated into sister chromatids during mitosis. Which of the following is most likely absent from its chromosomal structure? A. Chiasmata B. Ribosomes C. Kinetochore D. Actin filaments E. Hormone receptors

. Kinetochore

A scientist would like to detect Down's Syndrome, a disorder caused by an extra chromosome on chromosome 21, in his patient. During which phase of cell division should his patient’s chromosomes be imaged? A. Prophase I of meiosis B. Telophase I of meiosis C. Metaphase of mitosis D. Prophase of mitosis E. Anaphase of mitosis

Metaphase of mitosis

The primary role of mitosis is to __________. A. Provide a means of sexual reproduction B. Introduce genetic variability into the population C. Produce many cells for growth, and repair D. Produce gametes E. Produce spores

Produce many cells for growth, and repair

The following are crucial parts of mitosis EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Chromosome condensation B. Separation of MTOCS C. Spindle formation D. Synapsis E. Disjunction

Synapsis

Which of the following needs to occur in order to see chromosomes during karyotyping? A. Disjunction B. Cleavage furrow formation C. Condensation of chromosomes D. Crossing over E. Disintegration of chromatin

Condensation of chromosomes

Which of the following is the shortest step of mitosis? A. Prophase B. Telophase C. Metaphase D. Anaphase E. Cytokinesis

Anaphase

Which of the following stages of the cell cycle varies the most in duration depending on the cell type? A. G0 B. G1 C. S D. M E. Cytokinesis

B. G1

Which of the following makes up the mitotic phase of the cell cycle? A. G1 and G2 B. G1 and S C. G2 and S D. S and Mitosis E. Mitosis and cytokinesis

Mitosis and cytokinesis

During which phases of the cell cycle does cell growth usually occur? A. G1 and G0 phase B. G1, S, and G2 phase C. G1 and G2 phase D. G2 and S phase E. S and M phase

G1, S, and G2 phase

DNA synthesis or replication of DNA molecules occurs in the __________. A. G0 phase of the cell cycle B. G1 phase of the cell cycle C. G2 phase of the cell cycle D. S phase of the cell cycle E. M phase of the cell cycle

S phase of the cell cycle

Which phase of the cell cycle allows for the creation of sister chromatids? A. Prophase B. Metaphase C. G1 D. G2 E. S

E. S

The organelles of the cell are replicated during which phase of the cycle? A. G1 B. G2 C. G0 D. S E. M

B. G2

When does the first checkpoint of the cell cycle occur? A. At the start of the G1 phase B. At the end of the G1 phase C. At the end of the G2 phase D. At the end of the S phase E. At the end of cytokinesis

. At the end of the G1 phase

Which of the following cannot be induced out of the G0 phase of the cell cycle? A. Liver and nerve cells B. Nerve and muscle cells C. Nerve and kidney cells D. Liver and kidney cells E. Liver and muscle cells

. Nerve and muscle cells

Which of the following is true concerning the G0 phase of the cell cycle? A. Triggers the cell to be in a dividing state B. Cells in this phase cannot be induced out C. Some cells in this phase can be induced out D. Cells are placed here if conditions are favorable after the G1 phase E. Cells are placed here if conditions are not favorable after the G2 phase

Some cells in this phase can be induced out

During which phase of the cell cycle is DNA replication accuracy and completion examined? A. G1 checkpoint B. Cytokinesis C. G2 checkpoint D. M checkpoint E. G0

G2 checkpoint

The attachments of chromosomes to kinetochores is checked for accuracy during the __________. A. G0 phase B. G1 checkpoint C. G2 checkpoint D. M checkpoint E. Cytokinesis

M checkpoint

During which part of the cell cycle is anaphase of cell division triggered? A. M checkpoint B. G0 C. G1 checkpoint D. G2 checkpoint E. Prophase

M checkpoint

A cancerous cell incorrectly replicates its genome, but the cell passes the cellular checkpoint after this phase. Which of the following is not functioning correctly? A. M checkpoint B. G1 checkpoint C. G2 checkpoint D. Cytokinesis E. Telophase

G2 checkpoint

A cell does not pass the G2 checkpoint due to an insufficient amount of a specific protein. Which of the following is most likely to be this protein? A. Cyclin E B. MPF C. Helicase D. Topoisomerase E. Cyclic cAMP

B. MPF

Which of the following lists the correct order of phases of cell division? A. G1, G2, S, and M phase B. G1, G2, M, and S phase C. G1, S, G2, and M phase D. G1, S, M, and G2 phase E. G1, G0, G2, and M phase

C. G1, S, G2, and M phase

During which phase of the cell cycle does the cell increase in size? A. G0 B. G1 C. G2 D. S E. M

B. G1

Interphase of the mitotic cell cycle occurs before __________. A. Anaphase B. Telophase C. Metaphase D. Prophase E. Cytokinesis

D. Prophase

Which of the following is the correct number of chromatids in a chromosome after DNA replication? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

B. 2

Which of the following stages does the cell enter if it fails the G1 checkpoint of the cell cycle? A. G2 B. S C. G0 D. M E. Cytokinesis

C. G0

Which of the following stages does the cell enter if it passes the G1 checkpoint of the cell cycle? A. G2 B. G0 C. S D. M E. Cytokinesis

C. S

Which of the following cell stages is under Interphase? A. G1 and S B. G1 and G2 C. G1, G0, S, and G2 D. G1, S, G0 E. G1, S, G2, and M

C. G1, G0, S, and G2

Which of the following is expressed from the start of the G1 phase to the end of the mitotic phase of the cell cycle? A. Cyclin E B. Cyclin D C. Cyclin A D. Cyclin B E. Cyclin C

B. Cyclin D

Which of the following is on the surface of the cell plasma membrane and triggers cell division? A. T cell receptor B. B cell receptor C. MHC class I receptor D. Growth factor receptor E. Cyclin A

D. Growth factor receptor Growth factors binds to receptors on the cell surface triggering signaling pathways which result in cell division.

At the end of mitosis, the daughter cells will have __________. A. 23 chromosomes B. 23 chromatids C. 46 chromatids D. 92 chromosomes E. 92 chromatids

C. 46 chromatids

Which of the following enzymes is crucial for cell cycle regulation? A. Helicase B. Topoisomerase C. Cyclin-dependent kinase D. Lipid kinase E. Trypsin

Cyclin-dependent kinase

Which of the following regulates CDK enzyme activity? A. Growth factors B. Cyclin C. Cholecystokinin D. Heterochromatin E. Chromoprotein

B. Cyclin

Which of the following is the most expressed at the start of the S phase of the cell cycle? A. Cyclin A B. Cyclin B C. Cyclin D D. Cyclin E E. Cyclin C

Cyclin E

Which of the following has the highest expression during the G2 phase of the cell cycle? A. Cyclin B B. Cyclin D C. Cyclin A D. Cyclin E E. Cyclin C

Cyclin A

Which of the following is expressed at the shift from the G2 phase to the mitotic phase of the cell cycle? A. Cyclin A B. Cyclin B C. Cyclin C D. Cyclin E E. Cyclin D

B. Cyclin B

Proteins and ribosomes are synthesized during the __________. A. G2 phase of the cell cycle B. S phase of the cell cycle C. M phase of the cell cycle D. G0 phase of the cell cycle E. G1 phase of the cell cycle

E. G1 phase of the cell cycle

Which of the following is examined during the G1 checkpoint of the cell cycle? A. If the cell is ready for anaphase B. If the cell is ready for DNA synthesis C. If the cell has enough MPF levels D. If the chromosomes of the cell are attached to kinetochores E. If the cell is a germ cell

B. If the cell is ready for DNA synthesis

Which of the following best describes the phenomenon where cells stop multiplying when the density of adjacent cells reaches a certain amount? A. Anchorage dependence B. Heterochromatin C. Gene silencing D. Density-dependent inhibition E. G0 phase

D. Density-dependent inhibition

Cells undergo cell division when there is an external environment that offers support. Which of the following best describes this condition? A. Density-dependent inhibition B. Cell signaling C. Anchorage dependence D. Signal transduction E. Translation

C. Anchorage dependence

A patient’s cancer cells have only one mutation that allows them to continue to divide despite maximal density levels. Which of the following is absent in these cells? A. Anchorage dependence B. Density-dependent inhibition C. Growth factors D. Cell checkpoints E. CDK enzymes

B. Density-dependent inhibition

Tumor cells can travel and metastasize despite being detached from the extracellular matrix. These cells are not exhibiting __________. A. Growth factor receptors B. Density-dependent inhibition C. Anchorage dependence D. Telomerase activity E. Mutations

. Anchorage dependence

After the Interphase of the cell cycle, the cell will have __________. A. 23 chromatids B. 23 chromosomes C. 46 chromatids D. 46 chromosomes E. 92 chromosomes

46 chromosomes After interphase, the cell has 46 replicated chromosomes. A replicated chromosome consists of 2 sister chromatids, meaning the cell after interphase has 46 chromosomes and 92 chromatids. Chromosomes are replicated during the S phase of interphase.

Which of the following steps of Prophase I does crossing over occur? A. Leptotene B. Zygotene C. Pachytene D. Diplotene E. Diakinesis

C. Pachytene

Which of the following best describes crossing over during meiosis? A. Movement of chromatids from one side of the cell to the other B. Exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes C. Random segregation of chromosomes D. Chromosomal segment moving from one position to another E. Binding of tetrads

B. Exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes

Which of the following occurs during the diplotene step of meiotic Prophase I? A. The synaptonemal complex appears B. The synaptonemal complex degrades C. Chiasma disappears D. Nuclear envelope forms E. Chromosomes condense

B. The synaptonemal complex degrades

During which step of meiotic Prophase I are tetrads prepared for metaphase? A. Zygotene B. Pachytene C. Leptotene D. Diplotene E. Diakinesis

E. Diakinesis

Which of the following occurs during Metaphase I of meiosis? A. Crossing over B. Genetic recombination C. Disjunction D. Homologous pairs line up in the middle of the cell E. Nuclear envelope reforms

. Homologous pairs line up in the middle of the cell

Homologs move to opposite poles

After Telophase I of meiosis, the cell is __________. A. Diploid B. Haploid C. 2n D. Made up of two chromosome sets E. Made up of homologous chromosome pairs

A. Diploid

Which of the following occurs during Telophase I of meiosis? A. Microtubules bind to kinetochores B. Crossing over C. Chromosomes line up D. Disjunction E. Nucleus forms at each pole

E. Nucleus forms at each pole

At the end of Telophase I of meiosis, there are __________. A. 23 chromosomes B. 23 chromatids C. 46 chromosomes D. 99 chromosomes E. 92 chromatids

A. 23 chromosomes At the end of telophase I, the cell is haploid and each newly formed nuclei will contain 23 chromosomes (46 chromatids).

Before the end of Meiosis I, there is consistently __________. A. 23 chromosomes B. 23 chromatids C. 46 chromatids D. 46 chromosomes E. 96 chromosomes

46 chromosomes Concept The dividing cell just before cytokinesis contains a total of 46 chromosomes (23 in each newly formed nuclei). Post cytokinesis I, each daughter cell will contain 23 chromosomes (each chromosome will have two chromatids)

Which of the following occurs during Prophase II of meiosis? A. Crossing over B. Chiasmata formation C. Synaptonemal complex formation D. Nuclear envelope disintegrates E. Genetic recombination

Nuclear envelope disintegrates

Which of the following is true concerning Metaphase II of meiosis? A. More chiasmata are formed B. Homologous pairs are pulled to opposite poles C. Homologous pairs line along with the metaphase plate D. Chromosomes line along with the metaphase plate E. Chromosomes are pulled to opposite poles

Chromosomes line along with the metaphase plate

Chromosomes are pulled into chromatids during __________. A. Prophase I B. Telophase I C. Telophase II D. Anaphase I E. Anaphase II

Anaphase II

Which of the following is the product of Telophase II of meiosis? A. Four identical haploid daughter cells B. Four identical diploid daughter cells C. Four genetically different haploid cells D. Two genetically different haploid cells E. Six genetically different haploid cells

Four genetically different haploid cells

Which of the following is the correct number of chromosomes after Meiosis I? A. 23 chromosomes B. 46 chromosomes C. 48 chromosomes D. 56 chromosomes E. 92 chromosomes

A. 23 chromosomes

At the end of Meiosis I, there should be __________. A. 23 chromatids B. 46 chromatids C. 46 chromosomes D. 92 chromosomes E. 92 chromatids

. 46 chromatids

At the end of Meiosis II, the daughter cells each have __________. A. 23 chromosomes and 46 chromatids B. 23 chromosomes and 23 chromatids C. 46 chromosomes and 46 chromatids D. 46 chromosomes and 92 chromatids E. 92 chromosomes and 92 chromatids

23 chromosomes and 23 chromatids

Which of the following is the difference between mitosis and meiosis? A. Mitosis occurs in pollen B. Mitosis occurs in germ cells C. Meiosis occurs in somatic cells D. Meiosis introduces genetic variation E. Mitosis involves genetic recombination

Meiosis introduces genetic variation

Which of the following describes the summation of two gametes? A. Binary fission B. Mitosis C. Synapsis D. Syngamy E. Polygamy

D. Syngamy \Syngamy is the summation of two gametes. This is synonymous to fertilization, the fusion of a sperm and an egg cell.

B. Propase II of meiosis

Metaphase II of meiosis

Metaphase I of meiosis

Anaphase II of meiosis

D. Telophase II of meiosis

Cytokinesis of meiosis II

Which of the following is most used by germ cells? A. Mitosis B. Meiosis C. Binary fission D. Conjugation E. Transduction

Meiosis [

Which of the following are the correct steps that make up meiosis? A. Interphase and Meiosis I B. Interphase and Meiosis II C. Meiosis I and mitosis D. Meiosis I and meiosis II E. Meiosis II and mitosis

Meiosis I and meiosis II

Which of the following is most similar to mitosis? A. Meiosis I B. Meiosis II C. Mitosis D. Binary fission E. Bacterial transformation

Meiosis II

Difficulty Level: Meiosis I is __________. A. Equational division B. Reduction division C. Tetraploidy division D. Cell fusion E. Budding fusion

Reduction division Meiosis I is referred to as reduction division as it results in the production of daughter cells that have half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell. Meiosis II is equational division and is similar to mitosis. During meiosis II, in each daughter cell from meiosis I, one chromatid from each chromosome is separated into two daughter cells. These daughter cells of meiosis II have the same number of chromosomes as the meiosis II parent cells.

Which of the following occurs in Prophase I of meiosis that does not occur in Prophase of mitosis? A. Nucleus degradation B. Nuclear envelope breakdown C. Chromatin condensation D. Crossing over E. Mitotic spindle formation

Crossing over

Which of the following allows for genetic recombination in meiosis? A. Splitting of sister chromatids in Prophase I B. Splitting of sister chromatids in Metaphase I C. Kinetochore and microtubule attachment during Prophase I D. Crossing over in Metaphase II E. Crossing over in Prophase I

Crossing over in Prophase I

Which of the following defines the pairing of homologous chromosomes to form a tetrad? A. Crossing over B. Genetic recombination C. Synapsis D. Chiasmata E. Synaptonemal complex

. Synapsis

The main purpose of meiosis is to __________. A. Replicate somatic cells B. Repair damaged cells C. Introduce genetic variation in offspring. D. Produce identical daughter cells E. Provide the means to asexually produce

Introduce genetic variation in offspring The main purpose of meiosis is to introduce genetic variation in offspring. Meiosis produces genetic variation via a random assortment of parental homologs and crossing over events between maternal and paternal chromosomes (non-sister chromatids). Meiosis occurs in germ cells and produces four genetically unique haploid daughter cells (gametes).

Which of the following is a characteristic specific to meiosis? A. Condensing of chromatin B. Separation of homologous pairs C. Alignment of chromosomes at the metaphase plate D. Formation of a cleavage furrow E. Formation of a cell plate

Separation of homologous pairs Separation of homologs is a characteristic specific to meiosis. This occurs during anaphase I of meiosis. Events A, C, D, and E are common to both mitosis and meiosis.

In which of the following stages do homologous chromosome pairs separate? A. Metaphase I of meiosis B. Anaphase of mitosis C. Anaphase I of meiosis D. Anaphase II of meiosis E. Telophase of mitosis

Anaphase I of meiosis

The following statements concerning meiosis are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Homologous chromosomes cross over B. Sister chromatids remain together throughout anaphase I C. Chromosomes begin in a diploid state but end in a haploid state D. Produced daughter cells are genetically identical to the parent cell E. DNA replication is suppressed between the two meiotic divisions

. Produced daughter cells are genetically identical to the parent cell

Chiasmata forms between __________. A. Gametes B. Sister chromatids C. Homologous pairs D. Microtubules E. Centrosomes

Homologous pairs [

Which of the following best describes a tetrad? A. Four germ cells B. Four chromatids C. Four chromosomes D. Four bivalents E. Four genes

Four chromatids

The region of chromatid crossing over on a meiotic cell is known as __________. A. Synapsis B. Tetrad C. Chiasmata D. Synaptonemal complex E. Kinetochores

C. Chiasmata

Which transient structure forms between homologous chromosomes to promote crossing over? A. Histone groups B. Synaptonemal complex C. Chiasmata D. Synapsis E. Kinetochores

Synaptonemal complex

In order, list the steps of prophase I of meiosis. A. Zygotene → leptotene → pachytene → diplotene → diakinesis B. Zygotene → leptotene → diplotene → diakinesis → pachytene C. Leptotene → zygotene → diplotene → diakinesis → pachytene D. Leptotene → zygotene → pachytene → diplotene → diakinesis E. Leptotene → zygotene → pachytene → diakinesis → diplotene

Leptotene → zygotene → pachytene → diplotene → diakinesis

Which of the following occurs during the leptotene step of meiotic Prophase I? A. Synapsis B. Crossing over C. Disappearance of the synaptonemal complex D. Chromosome condensing E. Disjunction

Chromosome condensing

During which step of Prophase I does synapsis begin? A. Leptotene B. Zygotene C. Pachytene D. Diplotene E. Diakinesis

B. Zygotene

The synaptonemal complex forms during which step of Prophase I? A. Pachytene B. Diplotene C. Diakinesis D. Leptotene E. Zygotene

Zygotene

Which of the following phases of meiosis allow for genetic variation across cells? A. Prophase I and prophase II B. Prophase I and anaphase I C. Prophase I and Metaphase I D. Anaphase I and Metaphase II E. Anaphase I and telophase I

Prophase I and Metaphase I

Independent assortment of homologs during meiosis occurs during which phase of cell division? A. Prophase I B. Prophase II C. Metaphase I D. Metaphase II E. Anaphase I

Metaphase I

Which of the following best defines independent assortment in meiosis? A. Movement of chromosomes to opposite poles without microtubule guidance B. Random separation of chromosomes to opposite poles C. Random crossing over of homologous chromosomes D. Uneven dividing of the nuclei E. Nondisjunction of homologous chromosomes

Random separation of chromosomes to opposite poles

Which of the following is an event that allows for genetic variation before cell division begins? A. Crossing over during mitosis B. Independent assortment during mitosis C. Random fertilization of somatic cells D. Random fertilization of gametes E. Zona pellucida species-specific fertilization

Random fertilization of gametes

After fertilization of human gametes, the zygote should have __________. A. 23 chromatids B. 23 chromosomes C. 46 chromosomes D. 92 chromatids E. 92 chromosomes

46 chromosome

Which of the following correctly lists haploid forms? A. Gametophyte, sporophyte, and spores B. Gametophyte, sporophyte, and gametes C. Gametophyte, gametes, and spores D. Gametophyte, zygote, and spores E. Sporophyte, spores, and gametes

Gametophyte, gametes, and spores

Which of the following is diploid? A. Zygote and gametophyte B. Zygote and sporophyte C. Zygote, sporophyte, and spores D. Zygote, gametophyte, and spores E. Zygote and spores

Zygote and sporophyte

Which of the following is unfavorable for cell division? A. Large surface area to volume ratio B. Small genome to volume ratio C. Small surface area to volume ratio D. Growth factors E. Cyclins

A. Large surface area to volume ratio Large surface area to volume ratio is unfavorable for cell division. As cells grow larger in size in preparation for cell division this ratio becomes smaller. This reduces the rate of diffusion of nutrients, oxygen, and wastes across the entire volume and plasma membrane of the cell which can be unfavorable for cell survival.

Which of the following remains constant in cells? A. Volume B. Genome size C. Surface area D. Chromosome number E. Telomere length

Genome size

Which of the following occurs in human skeletal muscle cells to compensate for an increased volume? A. Increasing genome size B. Decreasing genome size C. Decreasing surface area D. Having multiple nuclei E. Apoptosis of specific organelles

Having multiple nuclei [

During the anaphase of mitosis, which of the following is the correct number of chromosomes? A. 2 tetrads B. 2 bivalents C. 23 chromosomes D. 46 chromosomes E. 92 chromosomes

92 chromosomes

The following organisms can exist with alternation of generations EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception? A. Green algae B. Plants C. Seaweed D. Frogs E. Protists

D. Frogs

Which of the following best describes the alternation of generation in organisms? A. Ability to produce daughter cells that alternate between haploid and diploid B. Ability to be infertile and fertile depending on the season C. Ability to live in both haploid and diploid forms D. Ability to perform both meiosis and mitosis E. Ability to intermittently perform binary fission

C. Ability to live in both haploid and diploid forms

In plants, zygotes that undergo mitosis become __________ . A. Gametophytes B. Sporophytes C. Spores D. Gametes E. Bryophytes

Sporophytes

Both zygotes and sporophytes are __________. A. 1n B. 2n C. Haploid D. Spores E. Genetically

B. 2n

Once a sporophyte undergoes meiosis, it directly produces __________. A. Gametes B. Germ cells C. Spores D. Gametophytes E. Genetically identical daughter cells

C. Spores

In the alternation of generations, which of the following produces gametes? A. Chloroplasts B. Rhizoids C. Spores D. Sporophyte E. Gametophyte

E. Gametophyte

When spores undergo mitosis, which of the following promptly develops? A. Sporophyte B. Bryophytes C. Gametophyte D. Gametes E. Zygote

C. Gametophyte