Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Veterinary Nursing VN02 > Cellular microscopy 1: cell structure, division and repair > Flashcards

Cellular microscopy 1: cell structure, division and repair Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Nursing Pharmacology flashcards NCLEX-RN® flashcards Nursing Mental Health flashcards Nursing Fundamentals flashcards Nursing Safety & Infection flashcards Nursing Adult Health flashcards NCLEX-PN® flashcards Nursing Management of Care flashcards Nursing Pediatrics flashcards Nursing Maternity flashcards
1
Q

Define ANATOMY

A

The branch of science concerned with the bodily structure of humans, animals and other living organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define HISTOLOGY

A

The study of the microscopic structure of tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define PHYSIOLOGY

A

The branch of biology concerned with the normal functions and mechanisms of living organisms and their parts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define PATHOLOGY

A

The science of the cause and effects of diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define HISTOPATHLOGY

A

The study of the change in tissue as a result of disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What type of cell are plant cells?

A

Prokaryotic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What type of cell are animal cells?

A

Eukaryotic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is an example of a prokaryotic cell?

A

Bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define EUKARYOTIC

A

A cell that possesses a clearly defined nucleus and lots of organelles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define PROKARYOTIC

A

A single cell organism whose cell lacks a nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles. They have a flagella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define FLAGELLA

A

A hairlike appendage that protrudes from the cell that provides motility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the cytoskeleton of a cell?

A

Provides the cell with structure and shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the three types of cytoskeletal filaments found in eukaryotic cells?

A

Microfilaments, intermediate filaments, and microtubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Define the MITOCHONDRIA

A

The powerhouse of the cell. Produces energy (ATP) for the cell through aerobic respiration . Contains two layers of membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Define the NUCLEUS

A

The largest cell organelle, it is the control centre of the cell and controls cell activities. Contains chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Define CHROMOSOMES

A

A thread like structure found in the nucleus of cells. Made of DNA, and contains the blue print for making up more cells. Can be seen under a microscope but only when replicating or otherwise active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Define NUCLEOLUS

A

A sub-organelle of the nucleus. A main function of the nucleolus is the production and assembly of ribosome components.
Is roughly spherical, is surrounded by a layer of condensed chromatin and contains RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Define RIBOSOMES

A

Responsible for protein synthesis. Often found attached to the rough endoplasmic reticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Define CHROMATIN

A

The material of which the chromosomes of organisms other than bacteria are composed. Consists of RNA, DNA and protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Define the GOLGI APPARATUS/BODY

A

A series of flattened sacs that are involved in the modification, transport and storage of substances such as glycoproteins and enzymes. Its main job is to produce lysosomes (digestive enzymes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Define NUCLEAR MEMBRANE

A

Surrounds the nucleus and regulates the exchange of material between the nucleus and the cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Define the ROUGH ENDOPLASMIC RETICULUM

A

Branching membranes, with ribosomes on their surface. Concerned with the production and transport of protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Define the SMOOTH ENDOPLASMIC RETICULUM

A

A branching membranous network without ribosomes present. It produces and transports lipids, phospholipids and steroids.
Cells that produce a lot of these substances (such as the ovaries, testes and skin oil glands) have an abundance of smooth endoplasmic reticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Define LYSOSOMES

A

Produces by the Golgi apparatus, they are single wall enzymes that act as the cell’s digestive system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Define VACUOLE

A

A cavity in a cell used to store excess water. Much more important in plant cells than in animal cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Define the CELL MEMBRANES

A

Made up of a phospholipid bilayer, they allow substances in and out of the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the three types of movement for cell substances?

A

Diffusion, osmosis, and active transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Define DIFFUSION

A

The process of oxygen travelling from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. It is passive and does not require energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Define OSMOSIS

A

The process by which water molecules pass through a membrane from a region of low concentration to high concentration. It is passive and does not require energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Define ACTIVE TRANSPORT

A

The movement of molecules across the cell membrane from low concentration to high concentration. Assisted by enzymes and requires energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Define CYTOPLASM

A

The fluid within the cells within which organelles are suspended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Define CENTROSOME

A

An organelle involved in cell replication. Always near the nucleus. Composed of two centrioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Define MELANOSOMES

A

Intracellular organelles that cause pigmentation. Found in pigment cells in the skin and the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Define HAEMOSIDERIN

A

A form of storage iron derived from the breakdown or erythrocytes or haemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Define HAEMOGLOBIN

A

A protein containing iron that facilitates the transport of oxygen in red blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the average animal cell size?

A

10-12 micrometers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How is haemoglobin measured?

A

Using a pulse-oximeter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Define PHAGOCYTOSIS

A

Ingestion of large particles (larger than 0.5 nanometres) such as protein or bacteria into the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Define PINOCYTOSIS

A

The intake of fluid through the cell membrane (the same method for phagocytosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Define ENDOCYTOSIS

A

The taking in of matter by a living cell by invagination of its membrane to form a vacuole. Both phagocytosis and pinocytosis are examples of endocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Define EXOCYTOSIS

A

The expulsion of particles such as waste products through the cell membrane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the two types of cell division?

A

Mitosis and meiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Define MITOSIS

A

The process by which most somatic cells divide. One parent cell divides into two identical daughter cells. The daughter cells have exactly the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell - they are copies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the 5 stages of mitosis?

A

Interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Describe interphase

A

The cell is at rest; no division occurring. This stage precedes both mitosis and meiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Describe prophase of mitosis

A

The second stage of mitosis. The first significant stage - the chromosomes on the cell condense. The nuclear envelope around the nucleus breaks down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Describe metaphase of mitosis

A

The third phase of mitosis. Chromosomes line up along the middle of the cell. Chromatids are pulled away from the centromere. The mitotic spindle forms to separate duplicated chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Describe the anaphase of mitosis

A

The fourth stage of mitosis. The chromatids separate. They are pulled completely away from the centromere to the other side of the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Describe the telophase of mitosis

A

The cell is split down the middle to form two new cells. The chromatids become the new chromosomes of the new daughter cells

50
Q

Define CYTOKINESIS

A

The part of the cell division process during which the cytoplasm of a cell divides into two daughter cells

51
Q

What percentage of a cell’s total life cycle is comprised of mitosis?

A

10% of the cell’s total life cycle

52
Q

How many chromosomes does a human have?

A

46 chromosomes; 23 pairs

53
Q

Define DIPLOID CELLS

A

Cells that contain two complete sets of chromosomes, one from each parent. Mitosis results in diploid cells

54
Q

What are the three stages of interphase?

A
  1. G1 - growth 1 phase. The cells intended for mitosis start to grow
  2. S phase - DNA synthesis. A complete copy of the DNA is created in the nucleus
  3. G2 phase - growth 2 phase. The second growth phase. The cell doubles in size.
    Mitosis then follows the G2 phase
55
Q

When does meiosis occur?

A

In reproduction, specifically in the gonads to produce ova or to produce sperm

56
Q

How many cells are produced during meiosis?

A

4 cells are eventually produced. They are haploid cells, each with a single chromosome

57
Q

What are the stages of meiosis?

A

It occurs in two phases, meiosis 1 and meiosis 2. It follows the same steps as mitosis

58
Q

Describe the prophase of meiosis

A

Homologous pairs come together and genetic material cross overs can occur. This only happens in meiosis and aims to increase genetic variation.

59
Q

Describe the interphase of meiosis

A

DNA replication occurs during the S phase (the same as mitosis). Each cell has a double diploid number of chromosomes

60
Q

Describe the metaphase of meiosis

A

Homologous pairs arrange at the equator of the cell attached to spindle fibres produced by the centrioles. There are two rows, unlike mitosis, where there is only one

61
Q

Describe the anaphase of meiosis

A

The spindle fibres contract and homologous chromosomes separate to opposite ends of the cell. The centromeres do not divide like they would in mitosis

62
Q

Describe the telophase and cytokinesis of meiosis

A

Division of the cytoplasm results in two new cells which have a diploid number of chromosomes but are different from the parent cells (they may have a novel arrangement of alleles)

63
Q

Describe meiosis 2

A

Has prophase 2, metaphase 2, anaphase 2 and telophase 2
Prophase 2 - the chromosomes remain contracted and genetic material is not replicated
Metaphase 2 - the chromosomes line up at the equator of the cell
Anaphase 2 - the spindle fibres contract the centromere divides and the chromatids are pulled apart and moved to opposite ends of the cell
Telophase 2 - Cytokinesis occurs. In the female this forms the ova and the second polar body, and in the male it forms the spermatids

64
Q

What is the result of uncontrolled mitosis?

A

Mutations and neoplasia/tumours. The cell replicates too much and causes problems

65
Q

Define HOMOLOGOUS GENES

A

Paired chromosomes that have the same gene sequence

66
Q

Define ALLELES

A

Each of two or more alternative forms of a gene that arise by mutation and are found at the same place on a chromosome

67
Q

What is Von Willebrand’s disease and what breed is it most prevalent in?

A

An inherited bleeding disorder. Most common in Doberman Pinschers

68
Q

What are some examples of inherited diseases that can be tested for?

A

Hip and elbow scoring to determine likelihood of dysplasia
Progressive retinal atrophy
Von Willebrand’s disease

69
Q

How are genetic conditions inherited?

A

Through the crossing over of genetic material

70
Q

What does the effectiveness of healing depend on?

A

The site of the wound and the degree of damage

71
Q

What are the three types of wound healing?

A

Resolution, regeneration and organisation

72
Q

Describe resolution in relation to wound healing

A

Occurs in superficial grazes
No tissue destruction, and the tissue is able to return to its original state before the injury. Any damage will be very mild

73
Q

Describe regeneration in relation to wound healing

A

The damaged tissue is completely replaced by proliferation of remaining cells. Effectiveness of regeneration depends on the cells involved, their ability to repair and human interventions such as dressing and cleaning. A good supply is essential at this stage or the wound could become necrotic
e.g. a granulating wound that involves mitosis

74
Q

Describe organisation in relation to wound healing

A

The formation of scar tissue. Occurs when the tissue cannot regenerate, so the tissue heals through scar formation which is organised fibrous tissue with a large number of collagen fibres.
Tissue loses function and may be more susceptible to damage when it has scarred

75
Q

What are the three types of cells that can be identified during wound healing?

A

Permanent cells, labile cells and stable cells

76
Q

Define LABILE CELLS

A

Can divide and proliferate throughout life. They are continuously dividing tissues that can easily regenerate e.g. blood, lymph, epithelial

77
Q

Define STABLE CELLS

A

Do not normally divide but can do in response to certain stimuli, and may divide following injury to the tissue. e.g. the kidney, liver, endocrine glands, bone and fibrous tissue

78
Q

Define PERMANENT CELLS

A

Only divide during fetal growth and are incapable of regeneration. e.g. neurons, cardiac muscle/tissue and skeletal muscle ends

79
Q

What are the phases of wound healing?

A

The inflammatory phase
The proliferative phase
The remodelling phase

80
Q

Define PLATELETS

A

Thrombocytes. Small, colourless cell fragments in blood that form clots when vessels are damaged

81
Q

Define FIBRIN

A

An insoluble protein produced in response to bleeding. A major component of the blood clot

82
Q

Define NEUTROPHILS

A

A major type of white blood cell; the most abundant type of granulocyte

83
Q

Define MACROPHAGES

A

Specialised cells involved in the detection, phagocytosis and destruction of bacteria and other harmful organisms. They initiate inflammation by releases cytokines which activate other cells

84
Q

Define EXUDATE

A

Fluid that leaks out of blood vessels into nearby tissues. Often from areas of inflammation.

85
Q

What are the cardinal signs of inflammation?

A
  • redness (rubor)
  • swelling (turgor)
  • heat (calor)
  • pain (dolar)
  • loss of function (laesa)
86
Q

Describe the inflammatory phase

A

The initial inflammation. Platelets and fibrin are activated, and neutrophils (clear up bacteria and foreign material) and macrophages are attracted to the site.
A short inflammatory phase is key

87
Q

Describe the proliferative phase

A

Triggered by macrophages and involves fibroblasts (the coordinators of wound healing), endothelial cells, and epithelial cells. The classic appearance of this stage is granulation tissue, which is highly resistant to infection due to the great blood supply.

88
Q

What are the nurse’s responsibilities at the proliferative stage of wound healing?

A

They must correctly help to manage the wound through proper advice and care. This may be through advice on use of a buster collar, correct bandaging and correct suture material. Proliferation can be slowed by incorrect bandaging, patient interference, sutures that are too tight etc

89
Q

Describe the remodelling phase

A

The final phase of wound healing
The scar remodels and strengthens over a period of day to weeks. The hair regrows, and the fibroblasts arrange the matrix of the scar tissue according to tension during normal function

90
Q

How long should the inflammatory stage of healing last in a clean, surgical wound?

A

24-48 hours

91
Q

When does the remodelling phase occur in a clean surgical wound?

A

at around day 7-10

92
Q

What is the cell wall of bacteria made from?

A

Peptidoglycan

93
Q

What is the purpose of the cell wall of bacteria?

A

To maintain the shape of the cell and prevent it from bursting

94
Q

What is the purpose of a slime layer in bacteria?

A

They act as a barrier between the bacteria and the cell and prevent it from drying out

95
Q

How are traits such as antibiotic resistance passed between bacteria?

A

Bacterial chromosomes are suspended in cytoplasm, and this allows easy passing on of traits

96
Q

What are pili?

A

Straight, hair like appendages that help the bacteria stick to the host cell.
Sex pili pass on genetic material from bacteria to bacteria

97
Q

Define PEPTIDOGLYCAN

A

A rigid envelope that surrounds most bacterial species. It protects again environmental stress and helps to preserve cell morphology. It is also sticky, helping the bacteria to adhere to structure in the body

98
Q

What are the three basic shapes of bacteria?

A

Rod (bacilli)
Sphere (cocci)
Spiral (spirilla)

99
Q

Describe bacilli

A

Cylindrical or rod shape. Very common and often are seen in urine or exudate

100
Q

Describe cocci

A

Spherical cells. Commonly associated with GI disease

101
Q

Describe spirilla

A

Corkscrew/spiral shaped cells. May be small and rigid or large and flexible

102
Q

Describe vibrios

A

Curved rod cells. Associated with campylobacter and general GI disease

103
Q

What is the difference in the streptococcus and staphylococcus bacteria?

A

Streptococcus is cocci formed in chains (e.g. strep throat)
Staphylococcus forms regular grape like structures (MRSA/MRSP)

104
Q

What are some common bacterial diseases of the cat and the dog?

A

Rickettsia
Campylobacter
Salmonella
Leptospira
Bordetella brochisepta
Clostridium (tetani/botulinum)
Staphylococcus

105
Q

Define PYODERMA

A

Literally ‘pus in the skin’. Not always visible pus

106
Q

Describe gram negative bacteria

A

Red/pink coloured when stained. They have a cell wall and two membranes. They have more protection than gram positive bacteria, meaning they are harder to treat with antibiotics

107
Q

Describe gram positive bacteria

A

Stain purple. They have a cell wall with 1 membrane and are generally quite receptive to antibiotics

108
Q

Describe anaerobic bacteria

A

This bacteria will not grow in oxygen and instead grow deep within the body e.g. in the GI tract

109
Q

Describe aerobic bacteria

A

These bacteria grow in oxygen e.g. salmonella or e.coli

110
Q

Describe facultative bacteria

A

These bacteria can live with or without oxygen

111
Q

Give some examples of gram positive diseases

A

Staphylococcus
Streptococcus
Clostridium tetani

112
Q

Give some examples of gram negative diseases

A

Leptospira spp
Salmonella
Campylobacter
Bordetella
mycoplasma haemofelis

113
Q

What is the difference between bacteriostatic and bactericidal antibiotics?

A

Bacteriostatic antibiotics will only prevent the bacteria from reproducing, where bactericidal antibiotics kill the bacteria

114
Q

What are the 4 basic types of body tissue?

A

epithelial tissue, connective tissue, loose connective tissue and cartilage

115
Q

Describe epithelial tissue

A

Provides coverings to the inner and outer surfaces of the body, with the main function of protecting whatever it coats from wear and tear. It also plays an important role in regulating the exchange of materials between parts of the body, as well as the external environment

116
Q

What are the four types of epithelial tissue?

A
  • simple squamous (1 cell thick)
  • stratified squamous (many layered)
  • transitional (can change shape and stretch)
  • ciliated (has tiny hair-like cilia to prevent thing entering)
117
Q

Describe connective tissue

A
118
Q

Describe loose connective tissue

A
119
Q

Describe cartilage

A
120
Q
A

Veterinary Nursing VN02 (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions