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Veterinary Nursing VN02 > Anatomical Landmarks > Flashcards

Anatomical Landmarks Flashcards

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1
Q

Define CRANIAL

A

Towards the head

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2
Q

Define CAUDAL

A

Towards the tail

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3
Q

Define DORSAL

A

Towards the back

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4
Q

Define VENTRAL

A

Towards the underside

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5
Q

Define DISTAL

A

Towards the limbs

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6
Q

Define PROXIMAL

A

Towards the middle

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7
Q

Define LATERAL

A

Towards the side

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8
Q

Define ROSTRAL

A

Towards the nose

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9
Q

Define PALMAR

A

Towards the underside of the forepaw

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10
Q

Define PLANTER

A

Towards the underside of the hindpaw

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11
Q

What are the planes of the body?

A
  1. Median/midsaggital plane
  2. Dorsal plane
  3. Transverse plane
  4. Sagittal/paramedian plane
    They create cross sections in different areas of the body
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12
Q

What are the planes of the body used for?

A

For MRI and CT scanning. They are not as important for x rays but are still useful to know

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13
Q

Where is the median/midsaggital plane?

A

It splits the body into left and right equal portions

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14
Q

Where is the transverse plane?

A

A plane that divides the body into front and back portion. The transverse plane extends down the limbs (think about when the animal is in sternal and the limbs are extended)

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15
Q

Where is the dorsal plane?

A

Perpendicular to the median plane; divides the body into upper and lower portions

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16
Q

Where is the sagittal/paramedian plane?

A

The plane when the median plane deviates from the midline. Also applicable to limbs

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17
Q

What are the functions of bone?

A
  • provide structure to the body
  • protect soft tissue and internal organs
  • allow movement via attachment to muscles
  • aids in the production of white and red blood cells
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18
Q

What is bone?

A

A type of connective tissue. It is the second hardest substance in the body (behind enamel)

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19
Q

Define ERYTHROPOIESIS

A

The production of red blood cells

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20
Q

What arrangements can bone be found in?

A
  1. Compact bone
  2. Cancellous bone
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21
Q

Where is the medullary cavity?

A

Within the spongy bone of long bones

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22
Q

Define BONE MARROW

A

A spongy substance in the centre of bones. It produces white blood cells, red blood cells and platelets

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23
Q

What is compact bone?

A

AKA cortical bone or cortex. Sits on the outside of the bone, is dense and strong. Creates the hard structures of the skeleton

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24
Q

What is cancellous bone?

A

AKA spongy bone. Found beneath the cortical bone in all bones, and at the end of long bones. It has aerated pockets. Some species have more than others.

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25
Q

Define ERYTHROCYTES

A

Red blood cells

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26
Q

What is a young skeleton predominantly made of?

A

Cartilage

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27
Q

What are some of the components of bone?

A

Collagen fibres (provide strength), inorganic materials (such as calcium and phosphorus), osteocytes (mature bone cells), and a ground substance of mucopolysaccharide (basically glucosamine)

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28
Q

Define OSSIFICATION

A

The natural process of bone formation

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29
Q

What are the two ways that ossification can occur?

A
  • intramembranous ossification
  • endochondral ossification
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30
Q

Describe intramembranous ossification

A

The process through which mesenchymal (stem) cells are directly converted into bone. Mesenchymal tissue is present in embryo and may develop into any tissue within the body

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31
Q

Describe endochondral ossification

A

The process through which growing cartilage is systematically replaced by bone

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32
Q

What are the three types of cells involved in bone development?

A

Osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and osteocytes

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33
Q

Describe osteoblasts

A

Builder cells. They are responsible for producing bone, both in embryo and throughout life

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34
Q

Describe osteoclasts

A

The remodeller cells. They help to remodel bone that has already been created. They break old bone down in the process.
At fracture sites, calluses form

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35
Q

Describe osteocytes

A

Mature bone cells that were previously osteoblasts. They are stabilised and have a long life span that can be as long as the organism itself. They maintain the bony matrix
Remember - bone is stable and new bone is only created if needed (e.g. in the case of a fracture

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36
Q

Define COLLAGEN

A

The main structural protein found in skin and other connective tissue, including bone

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37
Q

What is a bone callous?

A

Forms at a fracture site to create a temporary connection during repair. They start soft and harden over time as the injury heals

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38
Q

Where does intramembranous ossification occur primarily?

A

It replaces fibrous connective tissue during development of bones in the skull, the maxilla and mandible, the flat bones of the pelvis, and during fracture repair

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39
Q

Define MAXILLA

A

The upper jaw bone of most vertebrates

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40
Q

Define MANDIBLE

A

The lower jaw bone of most vertebrates

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41
Q

What are the stages of ossification?

A
  • cartilage is formed in the fetus
  • primary centres of ossification form in the diaphysis as osteoblasts start to replace cartilage with bone. This occurs around day 45 of gestation for both cats and dogs
  • secondary centres of ossification occur at the epiphyses, and the medullary cavity is formed in the centre of long bones by osteoclasts remodelling the centre of the shaft
  • a cartilage ‘sheet’ (the epiphyseal plate/growth plate) These allow for elongation as the bone grows
  • the epiphyses are replaced by bone, and eventually fuse after which no further growth is possible - the adult has reached its mature adult size
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42
Q

Define DIAPHYSIS

A

The shaft, or central part of long bones

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43
Q

Define EPIPHYSIS

A

The end of a long bone, initially growing separately

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44
Q

What are some of the requirements of bone?

A

Bones are living tissue - require calcium, vitamin D and protein, phosphorus

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45
Q

Define PARATHYROID HORMONE

A

Released from the parathyroid glands in the neck - controls calcium, phosphorus, and vitamin D levels.

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46
Q

What controls the amount of calcium present in bone?

A

Parathyroid hormone and calcitonin (another hormone). They have opposite effects

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47
Q

What does parathyroid hormone control?

A

Controls calcium, phosphorus, and vitamin D levels. All three work together and are linked

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48
Q

What type of bone has the most erythropoiesis?

A

Long bones > flat bones. This is because flat bones do not have the same medullary cavity as long bones

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49
Q

What are some of the roles of parathyroid hormone?

A
  • increases osteoclast activity, which breaks down bone and release calcium into circulation
  • inhibits the activity of osteoblasts, reducing calcium disposition as a result
  • increases release of inorganic phosphate by the kidneys. This leads to a drop in serum phosphate, and then an increase in calcium and phosphate within bone
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50
Q

What is the role of vitamin D within bones?

A

Helps to regulate body systems. It ensures calcium and phosphorus are usable in the body, stopping them being lost by the patient

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51
Q

Define RICKETTS

A

Caused by a prolonged vitamin D deficiency, it is the softening/weakening of bones

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52
Q

What are some good sources of vitamin D for animals?

A

Marine fish, fish oils, and UV (sunlight), although sunlight is fairly inefficient and good dietary supplementation is essential

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53
Q

What is the axial skeleton?

A

The collection of bones which run dorsal midline from the skull to the tail

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54
Q

What are the components of the axial skeleton?

A

The skull, the maxilla, the mandible, the cervical vertebrae, the thoracic vertebrae, the lumbar vertebrae, the sacral vertebrae, the coccygeal vertebrae, the ribs, the sternum and the sternebrae

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55
Q

What are some specific bones of the skull?

A

The cranium, parietal, frontal, palatine and temporal

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56
Q

What are the portions of the spine called?

A

Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccygeal

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57
Q

How many cervical vertebrae are there?

A

7

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58
Q

How many thoracic vertebrae are there?

A

13 pairs, each corresponding with a respective pair of ribs

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59
Q

How many lumbar vertebrae are there?

A

7

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60
Q

How many sacral vertebrae are there?

A

3, and 4 in rabbits

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61
Q

What is particular about the sacral vertebrae?

A

They are fused on to the pelvis

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62
Q

How many coccygeal vertebrae are there?

A

22 in most species, rabbits have 16

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63
Q

How many ribs are there in cats and dogs?

A

13 pairs, to match each of the thoracic vertebrae

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64
Q

How many sternebrae are there?

A

8

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65
Q

Name the most cranial portion of the sternum

A

The manubrium

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66
Q

What is the xiphoid process?

A

The most caudal portion of the sternum, it gradually ossifies throughout life.

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67
Q

What is the costochondral junction?

A

The point on each rib where the ossified bone meets softer bone/cartilage, joining the ribs to the sternum

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68
Q

What different skull types can be seen in small animals?

A

Mesocephalic, doliocephalic and brachycephalic

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69
Q

What is a mesocephalic skull?

A

A regular shaped and sized skull, intermediate in width and length. Not particularly disposed to any health conditions

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70
Q

What is a doliocephalic skull?

A

Extremely long skulls, with long and slender noses. All the bones of the skull are elongated, especially the ones in the jaw. Breadth of the head is less than three quarters of the length

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71
Q

What is a brachycephalic skull?

A

Short nosed, flat faced, with broad skulls overall. All bones of the skull are shortened

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72
Q

What are some examples of breeds that have a mesocephalic skull?

A

Beagles, german shepherds, husky, labradors

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73
Q

What are some examples of breeds that have a doliocephalic skull?

A

Sighthounds, including greyhounds, whippets etc.
Also daschunds

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74
Q

What are some examples of breeds that have a brachycephalic skull?

A

French bulldogs, pugs, Boston terriers

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75
Q

Describe the cephalic index

A

The scale to determine the degree of flattening in a skull
Low cephalic index = long slender skull and face
High cephalic index = flat, broad skull and face

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76
Q

What are the key functions of the axial skeleton?

A
  • movement via muscle attachment
  • protection of the brain within the skull, spinal cord behind the spine and the thoracic organs within the ribs
  • eating and chewing via the use of the maxilla and mandible
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77
Q

Name some key bones of the skull

A

The nasal bone, the lacrimal bone, the parietal bone, the occipital bone, the temporal bone, the pterygoid bone, the zygomatic bone, the maxilla, the incisive bone

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78
Q

What are some health conditions that brachycephalic breeds are predisposed to?

A

Brachycephalic obstructive airway syndrome, bulbous eyes, eye ulcers, spinal problems, dystocia

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79
Q

What is the appendicular skeleton?

A

Describes the bones of the limbs

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80
Q

Name the bones of the forelimb

A

From top to bottom:
The scapula (shoulder blade - has a large spinous process for muscle attachment)
The humerus
The radius (cranial) and ulna (caudal)
The carpal bones (the wrist)
The metacarpals
The phalanges/digits

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81
Q

What is another name for the forelimb?

A

The thoracic limb

82
Q

What is significant about the connection of the forelimb to the thorax?

A

There is no boney connection - it has a syssarcosis muscle attachment

83
Q

Define THORAX

A

The chest. Contains the lungs, heart and other thoracic organs

84
Q

Define SYSSARCOSIS

A

A union between parts of the skeleton by muscles alone

85
Q

Describe the scapula

A

A flat bone that is roughly triangular, it has a prominent spine separating it into two halves. The distal end has a projection call the acromion and the joint socket is called the glenoid cavity

86
Q

Define the ACROMION

A

A projection at the distal end of the scapula, where it meets the clavicle

87
Q

Define the GLENOID CAVITY

A

A shallow vertically elongate concavity on the scapula that receives the head of the humerus

88
Q

Describe the shoulder joint

A

The articulation between the scapula and the humerus. It is a synovial joint with a ball and socket action

89
Q

Describe the clavicle

A

The collar bone, not found in dogs. Found in cats, rabbits and other small herbivores.

90
Q

What is specific about the clavicle in dogs?

A

They do not have one

91
Q

What muscle is the clavicle found within in the cat?

A

The brachiocephalicus muscle - there is no articulation between the bone and anything else. In cats, the clavicle is said to be vestigial

92
Q

Define VESTIGIAL

A

Something that has no real purpose, like the clavicle in cats

93
Q

Describe the humerus

A

The first long bone of the thoracic limb. It forms an articulation proximally at the shoulder, and the elbow distally

94
Q

Describe the radius and ulna

A

The two bones that form the antebrachium. In the dog and cat they are separate bones, but they are fused in some species such as the rabbit. The radius is the shorter of the two, and articulates with the humerus at the elbow joint, and the carpals at the carpus

95
Q

Describe the elbow joint

A

A composite joint, made up of several parts;
the joint of the condyles of the humerus and the head of the radius, the humerus and the ulna, and the proximal joint between the radius and ulna (a pivot joint)

96
Q

Define CONDYLES

A

A round protuberance at the end of some bones that forms an articulation with another bone

97
Q

Define a SYNOVIAL JOINT

A

A joint characterised by the presence of a fluid filled joint cavity, contained within a fibrous capsule

98
Q

Where does the brachiocephalicus muscle run from and to?

A

From the base of the skull to the humerus

99
Q

What is the antebrachium?

A

The forearm, the area between the elbow and the carpus

100
Q

Where does the cephalic vein run?

A

On the cranial aspect of the forearm

101
Q

What type of joint is the elbow joint?

A

A hinge joint - it can only flex and extend, it cannot rotate

102
Q

What causes the elbow to be a hinge joint?

A

The joint between the humerus and ulna stablises the joint as a whole

103
Q

Define FLEXION

A

To close the angle of a joint

104
Q

Define EXTENSION

A

To open the angle of a joint

105
Q

Describe the carpus and its bones

A

The carpus is the wrist joint, a plane or gliding synovial joint. 7 bones in total make up the carpus

106
Q

Describe the metacarpals

A

Rod shaped bones; 5 in dogs and cats, depending on the presence of a dew claw. Join the carpus to the phalanges

107
Q

Describe the phalanges

A

These are the digits, there are 5 in total. Phalange 2-5 have 3 bones in total (proximal, middle and distal phalanx).
Digit 1 (the dew claw - always medial) has no middle phalanx, and the most distal phalange is modified to allow nail growth at the ungual process

108
Q

How many bones are in the carpus?

A

7 in total, arranged in two rows

109
Q

How are the phalanges arranged in a rabbit?

A

The radius and ulna are distally fused and rabbits only have 4 digits on their hind limb

110
Q

What is another name for the hind limb?

A

The pelvic limb

111
Q

What bones make up the pelvic limb?

A

The femur, the tibia and fibula, the tarsus, the metatarsals, and the phalanges

112
Q

How many bones make up the pelvis?

A

3, they are fused at the articulation of the pelvis (the acetabulum)

113
Q

What is the acetabulum?

A

The cup shaped hole in the pelvis to which the hind limb attaches. Also called the cotyloid cavity. The head of the femur meets the pelvis here, forming the hip joint

114
Q

What is the name of the ligament that stabilises the hip joint?

A

The Tares ligament

115
Q

What are the components of the pelvis?

A

The sacral vertebrae, which are fused to the pelvis
The wings of ileum
The acetabulum
The pubic symphysis (the centre line of the pubis)
The icschiac tuberosities

116
Q

Define the PUBIC SYMPHYSIS

A

A cartilaginous joint that connects the two halves of the pelvic bone. It provides stability to the pelvis, ensuring the two halves stay connected and correctly aligned.

117
Q

What is specific about the pubic symphysis in guinea pigs?

A

It fuses when the guinea pig reaches maturity, which is only around 1 year old. Mating after this point is not advised due to the likelihood of pups getting stuck in the birth canal

118
Q

Describe the ichschiac tuberosities

A

The thickened, caudolateral part of the ischiac table. In domestic animals they are visible landmarks. Colloquially called the sitting bones.

119
Q

Describe the femur

A

The first long bone of the hind limb, with many sites for muscle attachment. It articulates with the acetabulum of the pelvis proximally and the tibia distally

120
Q

Define the GREATER TROCHANTER

A

A tubercle of the femur near its joint with the hip bone

121
Q

Define the LESSER TOCHANTER

A

A conical bony projection from the shaft of the femur

122
Q

Define FABELLAE

A

Small sesamoid bones found at the distal end of the femur, specifically in the tendons of the gastrocnemius muscle

123
Q

Define the SESAMOID BONES

A

A bone embedded in tissue; tendon or muscle

124
Q

Give some examples of sesamoid bones

A

The fabellae of the femur and the patella (kneecap)

125
Q

Describe the tibia and fibula

A

Form the mid hind limb, they are fused at the distal end. The fibula is lateral to the tibia, but both articulate distally with the tarsus (hock)

126
Q

Describe the tarsus

A

The mid joint of the hind limb, bends backwards.
Made up of 7 bones arranged in 3 rows

127
Q

What is another name for the tarsus?

A

The suffrago, although this is a term usually used for birds

128
Q

How many bones in total are in the tarsus?

A

7 in total, arranged in 3 rows

128
Q

What are the three types of locomotion?

A

plantigrade, digitigrade, unguligrade

129
Q

Define PLANTIGRADE LOCOMOTION

A

Locomotion in which the whole surface of the foot is placed on the ground when walking

130
Q

Define DIGITIGRADE LOCOMOTION

A

Locomotion where an animal walks on their toes

131
Q

Define UNGULIGRADE LOCOMOTION

A

Locomotion involving walking on ‘toenails’ or hooves

132
Q

What are some examples of species that use plantigrade locomotion?

A

Humans, bears, the hindlimbs of rabbits

133
Q

What are some examples of species that use digitigrade locomotion?

A

Cats and dogs

134
Q

What are some examples of species that use unguligrade locomotion?

A

Pigs and horses

135
Q

What is the lateral malleolus?

A

A bony projection on the lateral aspect of the distal end of the fibula

136
Q

What is the medial malleolus?

A

A bony projection on the medial aspect of the distal tibia

137
Q

What is the talus?

A

The medial bone of the the tarsus. Extends caudally to meet the calcaneus to form the hock joint

138
Q

What is the calcaneus?

A

The lateral bone of the tarsus Extends caudally to meet the talus to form the hock joint

139
Q

Define ABDUCTION

A

To move a limb away from the midline

140
Q

Define ADDUCTION

A

To move a limb towards the midline

141
Q

Define PRONATION

A

Describes a normal limb in a normal position on a surface

142
Q

Define SUPINATION

A

Rotation of the paw/limb inwards

143
Q

Define CIRCUMDUCTION

A

Circular movement at the end of the limb only

144
Q

Define PROTRACTION

A

The limb is moved away cranially

145
Q

Define RETRACTION

A

The protracted limb is moved back to its original position, or further back

146
Q

Describe a joint

A

The point at which two bones meet

147
Q

What is another name for a joint?

A

An arthrosis

148
Q

How many classes of joint are there?

A

Three

149
Q

What are the three classes of joint?

A

Fibrous, cartilaginous, synovial

150
Q

Describe a fibrous joint

A

These joints have no movement and are found between the bones of the skull

151
Q

What is a synovial membrane?

A

The inner layer of the joint capsule, it lines the joint cavity and secretes synovial fluid to lubricate the joint

151
Q

Describe a cartilaginous joint

A

Has slight movement. Found at the mandibular symphysis, the pubis, vertebrae, and the costochondral junction

151
Q

Describe a synovial joint

A

Freely moving joints found in the appendicular skeleton. The surfaces of the bones are covered in cartilage, and there is a capsular surrounding the joint filled with synovial fluid to reduce friction

151
Q

Define OSTEOARTHRITIS

A

Degeneration of joint cartilage and the underlying bone, resulting in pain and stiffness. Common as the animal ages.

152
Q

Define HYALURONIC ACID

A

One of the main components of connective tissue, forming a gelatinous matrix that surrounds cells. It acts as a lubricant and a protective cushion. It is found in synovial fluid

153
Q

What is the function of ligaments?

A

They can help to stabilise synovial joints, for example the collateral ligaments of the stifle

154
Q

Define HYALINE CARTILAGE

A

Glass like cartilage that is found on many joint surfaces. It is smooth and slippery and aids with bones moving smoothly

155
Q

Define MENISCI

A

Crescent shaped fibrocartilaginous structures that divide the joint, add concavity and help to stabilize movement

156
Q

What are the three different types of joint movement?

A

Synarthrosis (non moving), amphiarthrosis (some, limited movement), diarthrosis (freely moving)

157
Q

What are intracapsular ligaments?

A

Ligaments that exist within the joint capsule to stabilise it (as opposed to outside it)

158
Q

How many different types of synovial joint are there?

A

5

159
Q

What are the different types of synovial joint and how are they classified?

A

Plane/gliding joints, pivot joints, conyloid/ellipsoid joints, hinge joints, spheroidal (ball and socket joints)
They are classified by the shape of the articular surface

160
Q

Describe a plane/gliding joint

A

Have limited movement; involve two flat surfaces gliding over each other

Examples: carpus, vertebrae

161
Q

Describe a pivot joint

A

Where one bone slots into another and allows rotation
Example: C1 and C2 (atlas and axis)

162
Q

Describe a conyloid/ellipsoid joint

A

Where the curved surface of a bone fits into the cupped surface of another
Example: the skull articulating with the first vertebrae

163
Q

Describe a hinge joint

A

Allows only one type/direction of movement, but can be wide ranging
Example: the elbow

164
Q

Describe a spheroidal joint

A

A ball and socket joint. Movement in all directions is possible.
Examples: the femur and the acetabulum of the pelvis, and the shoulder joint

165
Q

Define BULLA

A

A hollow, boney structure on the ventral posterior portion of the skull that encloses parts of the middle and inner ear

166
Q

Define the TYMPANIC MEMBRANE

A

The eardrum

167
Q

How many cavities can the mammalian body be divided into?

A

Three - thoracic, abdominal and pelvic

168
Q

Describe the thoracic cavity and its boundaries

A

The cranial boundary is the thoracic inlet
The caudal boundary is the diaphragm
The lateral boundaries are the ribs
The dorsal boundary is the thoracic vertebrae
The ventral boundary is the sternebrae

169
Q

Define STERNEBRAE

A

The unpaired segments of bone which form the sternum. There are 8 in total

170
Q

What are the contents of the thoracic cavity?

A

The heart, lungs, trachea, oesophagus, the thymus gland (young animals only), and blood and lymph

171
Q

Describe the abdominal cavity and its boundaries

A

The cranial boundary is the diaphragm
The caudal boundary is indiscrete
The dorsal boundary is the lumbar vertebrae
The ventral boundary is the linea alba
The lateral boundary would be skin edges

172
Q

Define LINEA ALBA

A

Latin for ‘white line’ - a thin band of connective tissue that runs down the front of the abdomen separating the two sides of the abdominal walls

172
Q

What are the contents of the abdominal cavity?

A

The stomach, kidneys, liver, gall bladder, spleen, small and large intestines, the pancreas, nerves and vasculature.
In females it also includes the ovaries and the uterine horns

173
Q

Describe the pelvic cavity and its boundaries

A

The cranial boundary is indiscrete
The caudal boundary is the pelvis outlet
The dorsal boundary is the sacral vertebrae
The ventral boundary is the pubic bone

174
Q

What are the contents of the pelvic cavity?

A

The bladder, the colon (including the sigmoid colon just before the rectum) and the rectum
In females, the urethra is located in the pelvic cavity (it is externalised in males) and so is the body of the uterus

175
Q

Define the CRANIUM

A

The portion of the skull that encloses the brain

176
Q

Define OCCIPITAL

A

Refers to the bone that covers the back of the head or skull

177
Q

Define the FRONTAL REGION

A

The most superior portion of the face, spreads from the hairline to the eyebrows

177
Q

Define the PARIETAL REGION

A

Forms much of the dorsal and lateral walls of the cranium

178
Q

Define the TEMPORAL REGION

A

Lies below the parietal bone on the caudolateral aspect of the skull. The most ventral part of the temporal bone forms a rounded prominence called the tympanic bulla, which houses the structures of the middle ear

179
Q

Define the FORAMEN MAGNUM

A

A large, oval shaped opening in the occipital bone of the skull through which the spinal cord passes as it exits the cranial cavity

180
Q

Define the ZYGOMATIC ARCH

A

An arch of bone that projects laterally from the skull on each side, forming the cheekbone

181
Q

Define the JUGULAR PROCESS

A

A bony prominence on the temporal bone - they are good sites for muscle attachment

182
Q

Define the CORONOID PROCESS

A

A rounded process in the skull to which the temporalis muscle attaches

183
Q

Define the PREMAXILLA

A

A pair of small bones in the very tip of the upper jaw. Also called the incisive bone, it can sometimes bare teeth.
One of the three bones that make up the hard palate

184
Q

Define the TEMPEROMANDIBULAR JOINT

A

The joint that connects the mandible to the rest of the skull, allowing the opening and closing of the jaw

185
Q

Define the MANDIBULAR SYMPHYSIS

A

The point at which the two halves of the mandible meet - a common fracture site in cats and dogs

186
Q

Define SYMPHYSIS

A

A fibrocartilaginous attachment between two bones

187
Q

Define the OLECRANON

A

A curved bony protrusion extending the proximal ulna beyond the distal extremity of the humerus. Forms the prominent point of the elbow

188
Q

Define the ANCONEAL PROCESS

A

A small projection of the bone on the ulna, it forms the back surface of the elbow joint

189
Q

Define the LUMBOSACRAL JUNCTION

A

The point at which the lumbar and sacral vertebrae meet. Injury to this joint can result in cauda equina

190
Q

Define the SACROILIAC JOINT

A

The point at which the sacral vertebrae attaches to the pelvis

191
Q

Define the OBTURATOR FORAMEN

A

The large, bilaterally paired opening of the pelvis, just below the acetabulum

192
Q

Define TROCHANTER

A

Both greater and lesser - tubercles of the femur.
Both sit on the proximal extremity of the femur, the greater lateral, and the lesser medial

193
Q

Define the PATELLA

A

The kneecap. A large sesamoid bone

194
Q

Define the TIBIAL CREST

A

The top front part of the tibia (the shin)

Veterinary Nursing VN02 (11 decks)

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