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NBDE PART I > Cell/Organelles > Flashcards

Cell/Organelles Flashcards

1
Q

In the human body, flagella are only present where?

A

Spermatozoa

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2
Q

Flagella and cilia have similar basic structure and resemble centrioles, how do they differ?

A

They all have 9 sets of microtubules arranged in a cylinder but the cilia and flagella have doublets rather than triplets of microtubules.

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3
Q

What is at the base of the cylinders of the cilia and flagella?

A

Basal body - help anchor to cell

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4
Q

How do prokaryotic and eukaryotic flagella differ?

A

Prokaryotic flagella are much thinner and lack the 9 +2 arrangement of microtubules

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5
Q

How do cilia move?

A

In coordinated waves by the contraction of the tubular proteins contained within them

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6
Q

What is the hereditary syndrome characterized by recurrent respiratory tract infections due to a defect in the action of the cilia

A

Kartageners syndrome

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7
Q

The inactive X chromosome in a female cell is called the _____ which is an example of _______

A

Barr body

heterochromatin (highly condensed and transcriptionally inactive form of DNA)

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8
Q

In an amniocentesis, what is the basis of the sex determination?

A

The presence of barr bodies (possible at 8 weeks)

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9
Q

Name for the extended and transcriptionally active form of DNA

A

Euchromatin

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10
Q

Why does one X chromosome become a Barr body?

A

After the 8th week of development, only one X is needed so the other is inactivated and becomes a dense chromatin mass called a Barr body. (only seen in males with Kleinfelters)
Females have 45 active chromosomes and 1 inactive Barr body

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11
Q

In which cellular component are glycoproteins (can be exported or made into lysosomes for the cells own use) assembled for extracellular use?

A

Golgi apparatus

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12
Q

What are the 2 functions of the golgi apparatus?

A
  1. Modification of lipids and proteins

2. Storage and packaging of materials that will be exported

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13
Q

Where does O-linked and N-linked glycosylation occur?

A

N-linked -> ER

O-linked -> Golgi

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14
Q

Which ends of the golgi receive and which send for export?

A

The convex cis face receives and the concave trans face is oriented to the cell membrane for transport

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15
Q

_____ filaments aggregate in the cisternae of the golgi. It is formed in the lumen of the ____ by binding sugars with the _____ that were previously polymerized on the _______.

A

Procollagen
ER
AA
Ribosomes

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16
Q

What is the specific protein that coats the vesicles derived from the RER which targets them for fusion with the golgi?

A

COP II

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17
Q

_____ is the core scaffold of the eukaryotic cilia and flagella, which are projections from the cell made up of microtubules.

A

Axoneme ( serves are the “skeleton” of these organelles)

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18
Q

What are the motor complexes that allow the axoneme to bend and are anchored to the microtubules?

A

Dynein arms

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19
Q

In cillia and flagella, the interactions between the ciliary _____ _____ and outer doublet microtubules generates force by sliding the doublets parallel to each other, which bends the cilium and enables it to beat.

A

Dynein proteins

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20
Q

The ____ ____, a protein complex important in regulating the motion of the axoneme, is also housed in the anxoneme; it projects from each set of outer doublets towards the central microtubules.

A

Radial spoke

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21
Q

____ is a proteinous inter-doublet linkage that prevents microtubules in the outer layer of axonemes from movement with respect to each other

A

Nexin

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22
Q

Inside a cilium, the nine outer doublet tubules are made of ____, whereas arms composed of dynein occur every __ nm down the length of the cilium and interact with adjacent doublets as a “ _____ ____” to produce bending. Links composed of another protein ____ are more widely spaced, every ___ nm and hold the microtubules in place. Radial spokes extend from each of the 9 outer doublets toward a central pair of tubules at __ nm intervals, and the cental sheath projections are present every __ nm.

A 
Tubulin
24nm
Molecular motor
Nexin
86nm
29nm
14nm
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23
Q

Name 2 double membraned structures

A
  1. Micochondria

2. Nucleus

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24
Q

Name 3 non membranous structures

A
  1. Ribosomes
  2. Cytoskeleton
  3. Nucleolus
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25
Q

Reticuloendothelial macrophages which line the sinusoids of the liver

A

Kupffer cells (remove bacteria and toxins, have cytologic characteristics)

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26
Q

Specialized macrophages located in the bone

A

osteoclasts

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27
Q

Specialized macrophages located in the nervous system

A

Microglial

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28
Q

Primary function of plasma cells

A

Antibody synthesis (immunoglobulins)

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29
Q

Type of cell that produces collagen and reticular fibers

A

Fibroblasts

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30
Q

What cell lines the lumen of the seminiferous tubules and secretes hormones, androgen binding proteins and other proteins that facilitate spermatogenesis?

A

Sertoli cells

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31
Q

What cells are located in the loose vascular CT surrounding the seminiferous tubules and are responsible for secreting testerone?

A

Interstitial cells of Leydig

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32
Q

What type of cell is found in the inner ear, taste buds and in olfactory epithelium?

A

Sustentacular

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33
Q

What type of cell lines the brain ventricles and spinal cord?

A

Ependymal

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34
Q

What type of cell is in transitional epithelium?

A

Globular

35
Q

What type of cell is in the stratum spinosusm of the epidermis?

A

Prickle

36
Q

Which cells are found in the cerebrum and which are in the cerebellum?

A

Cerebrum - Pyramidal

Cerebellum - Purkinje

37
Q

What cells are found in the adrenal medulla and the paravertebral ganglia of the SANS?

A

Chromaffin

38
Q

Which phase of the cell cycle is there no protein synthesis?

A

M phase - mitosis just splitting, no growth (G1 and G2) or replication (S phase)

39
Q

What cell in the dental papilla adjacent to the inner enamel epithelium differentiates into odontoblasts (which produce predentin that calcifies to become dentin)?

A

Mesenchymal AKA mesoblastic cells (can differentiate into fibroblasts, chondroblasts, odontoblasts, and osteoblasts)

40
Q

What is the loosely woven tissue called that mesenchymal cells form?

A

Mesenchyme or embryonic CT

41
Q

Name for mesenchyme derived from ectoderm, especially from the neural crest in the very young embryo.

A

Mesectoderm (ectomesenchyme)

42
Q

What 2 cells, when bound by IgE, are responsible for anaphylactic reaction?

A
  1. Mast cells
  2. Basophils
    Contain heparin, histamine, SRS-A, lysosomal enzymes, bradykinin, and serotonin - mediators of inflammation, Normally NOT found in circulation
43
Q

What are the 2 forms that chromatin occurs in?

A
  1. Euchromatin - extended

2. Heterochromatin - condensed (preparing to divide)

44
Q

____ are positively charged basic protein, they carry a highly positively charged N-terminus with many lysine and arginine residues, their charge is positive because they need to interact with DNA, with is negatively charged.

A

Histones

45
Q

Plasma cells are immediate derivation of which cell type?

A

B Lymphocyte (B cells can also become memory B cells)

46
Q

Where are plasma cells primarily found?

A

Bone marrow and CT

47
Q

T cells account for 70-80% of circulating lymphocytes, what tissues are they most associated with?

A

Lymph nodes and spleen

48
Q

What cells does the HIV virus selectively infect?

A

T-helper cells or the CD4+ T cells

49
Q

In the liver separating the hepatocyte plates each other are _____, the livers capillary system.

A

Sinusoids

50
Q

What organelle in a hepatocyte produces bile salts and detoxifies poisons?

A

Smooth ER (Peroxisomes also detoxify poisons)

51
Q

What hepatocyte organelle manufactures membranes and secretory proteins?

A

RER

52
Q

What is the site of synthesis of rRNA?

A

nucleolus

53
Q

What is the difference in function of the SER and the RER?

A

Smooth - steroid sysnthesis, intercellular transport, detox

Rough - Synthesis of proteins for use outside a cell

54
Q

The SER is smooth and striated muscle is known as what?

A

Sarcoplasmic reticulum (storage and release of Ca2+)

55
Q

The cytoplasm of osteoblasts appears to be basophilic via normal H&E stain due to the presence of large amounts of what?

A

RER

56
Q

RNA and DNA can be distinguished from one another by what reaction?

A

Feulgen reaction

57
Q

What organelles stain blue and which stain pink?

A

Blue - nucleus and RER

Pink - mitochondria and lysosomes

58
Q

In which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes condense and become visible, the nuclear membrane breaks down, and the mitotic spindle apparatus forms at opposite poles of the cell?

A

Prophase

59
Q

In the cell cycle, what is interphase broken into?

A

G1
S
G2

60
Q

What stage of mitosis does cytokinesis occur?

A

Telophase

61
Q

5 main differences between mitosis and meiosis

A
  1. Mitosis = 1 division, meiosis =2 divisions
  2. Mitosis = all somatic cells, meiosis = germ cells only
  3. Mitosis = daughter cells have same # of chromosomes as parents, Meiosis = daughter cells have half the chromosomes as their parent cell
  4. Mitosis = daughter cells have same info as parent, meiosis = genetically different from parent cell
  5. Mitosis = NO crossing over, meiosis = crossing over occurs
62
Q

In the first meiotic division, the number of cells is ____ but the number of ______ is not. This results in 1/2 as many chromosomes per cell. The second meiotic division is like mitosis; the number of chromosomes does not get ______.

A

Doubled
Chromosomes
Reduced

63
Q

When chromosomes partially separate in late prophase, the areas where crossing over occurred remain attached and are referred to as what?

A

Chiasmata (They hold the chromosomes together until they separate during anaphase)

64
Q

How do interkinesis and interphase differ?

A

Interkinesis is different from interphase bc DNA synthesis does not occur

65
Q

How do RBCs get energy?

A

Anaerobic glycolysis

66
Q

Name for non secretory cells that are known to have contractile properties in sweat glands and mammary glands. They are located between the secretory cells and their basement membrane. They are derived from ectoderm.

A

Myoepithelial cells

67
Q

What are the 2 parts of the peptidoglycan molecule?

A
  1. Peptide portion - short attached, cross-linked peptide chains containing unusual AA
  2. Glycan portion - backbone, composed of alternately repeating units of the amino sugars N-acetylglucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid.
68
Q

How does lysozyme affect the peptidoglycan wall?

A

Cleaves the glycosidic bond between N-acetylglucosamine and N-acetylglucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid

69
Q

2 reasons lysozyme is a component of the innate immune system?

A
  1. Its action of peptidoglycan is immediate and not pathogen specific
  2. Functions as a non-specific innate opsonin by binding to the bacterial cell surface and enhancing pharocytosis
70
Q

Name of cells that have had their cell walls and capsuales removed by enzymatic (lysozyme) or antibiotic (penicillin) treatment.

A

Protoplasts

71
Q

What is the site of mRNA attachment and AA assembly?

A

ribosomes

72
Q

Catalase and other enzymes that break down H2O2 are located in membrane-bound organelles called?

A

Microbodies most commonly peroxisomes

glyoxysomes are common in fat storing tissues of germinating seeds of plants.

73
Q

5 antioxidants found in our bodies

A
  1. superoxide dismutase
  2. catalase
  3. glutathione peroxidase
  4. ceruloplasmin
  5. transferrin
74
Q

How to microbodies and lysosomes differ?

A

Microbodies are smaller and they isolate metabolic reactions that involve H2O2

75
Q

What cell promotes or enhances the function of other cells (B lymphocytes and macrophages). Express a molecule called CD4, recognize the antigenic peptides in conjunction with the so called “MHC Class II” proteins.

A

Helper T-cells or CD4 lymphocytes

76
Q

2 types of helper T-cells

A
  1. Th-1 -> signal CD8 cells to differentiate into cytotoxic T-cells, signal macropahges in type IV delayed hypersensitivity reactions
  2. Th-2 -> Signal B cells to differentiate into plasma cells which produce antibodies
77
Q

Which cells attack and destroy tumor cells and foreign cells. Express a molecule called CD8 (release perforins and induce apoptosis)

A

Cytotoxic T cells or CD8 lymphocytes

78
Q

What cells kill virus infected cells and tumor cells. They lack a CD3 associated TCR and surface IgM or IgD. Are not specific to any antigen, do not need to recognize MCH proteins, they have no memory.

A

NK cells

79
Q

What is the importance of the MHC proteins?

A

They allow T-cells to distinguish self from non self

80
Q

T-cells ____ IgG receptors, but have ____ associated T cell receptors (TCR), which recognize a unique antigen only in conjunction with ____ proteins.

A

Lack
CD3
MHC

81
Q

T/F T-cells are NOT involved in phagocytosis or antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity

A

True

82
Q

Surface membrane immunoglobulin is a marker for what?

A

Mature B lymphocytes (characterized by their surface immunoglobulins, made by the cell itself, they are inserted into the surface membrane where they act as specific antigen receptors)

83
Q

_____ potentiates the growth of NK cells and IgG antibodies enhance their cell effectiveness via antibody dependent cellular toxicity.

A

IL-2

NBDE PART I (10 decks)

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