Case 9 SBA Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the structure of the thyroid gland

A

A butterfly shaped endocrine gland. Has a left and right lobe connected by a central isthmus. Anterior to and wrapping partially around the trachea. Surrounded by the pretracheal fascia. Not visible or palpable unless pathology is present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe the parathyroid glands

A

usually two pairs of small glands, one superior and one inferior in the left and right lobes. Some people, however, have more pairs. Share a similar blood supply and lymphatic drainage to the thyroid gland. Produces parathyroid hormone in response to low blood calcium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Embryology of thyroid

A

descends through thyroglossal duct which then closes over time. If it does not close, a thyroglossal cyst can form which is a differential diagnosis for a midline neck lump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Perfusion of thyroid gland

A

superior thyroid artery (external carotid) and inferior thyroid artery (thyrocervical trunk from subclavian artery)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Drainage of thyroid gland

A

superior, middle, and inferior (superior and middle to internal jugular and inferior to brachiocephalic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Innervation of thyroid gland

A

sympathetic: fibres from superior, middle, inferior cervical ganglia. parasympathetic: fibres from superior and recurrent laryngeal nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Lymph node groups that drain thyroid gland

A

peri-thyroid, pre-laryngeal, pre-tracheal, paratracheal, superior and inferior deep cervical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Histology of thyroid gland

A

functional units of the thyroid are the follicles. A single layer of follicle cells surrounds a pool of colloid. The production and storage of thyroid hormones occurs in the colloid. C cells secrete calcitonin which is involved in calcium homeostasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

TSH normal range

A

0.4-4.2 mlU/L.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Free T4 normal range

A

0.8-2.7ng/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Total T4 normal range

A

4.5-11.7 ug/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

T3 normal range

A

80-220 ng/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Graves’ disease investigation results

A

serum T4 elevated (both free and total), TSH supressed, increased iodide uptake by thyroid (123I RAIU test)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Untreated hyperthyroidism investigation results

A

low TSH, high free T4, high T3, high radioiodine uptake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Hyperthyroidism with thyrotoxicosis investigation results

A

low TSH, normal free T4, high T3, normal or high radioiodine uptake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Untreated primary hypothyroidism investigation results

A

high TSH, low free T4, low or normal T3, low or normal radioiodine uptake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Hypothyroidism secondary to pituitary disease investigation results

A

low or normal TSH, low free T4, low or normal T3, low or normal radioiodine uptake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Euthyroid on exogenous thyroid hormone investigation results

A

normal TSH, normal free T4 on T4, low free T4 on T3, high T3 on T3, normal T3 on T4, low radioiodine uptake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe levothyroxine

A

Hypothyroid treatment of choice. T4. Consistent potency, >99.8% protein bound (gives reservoir of T4 for conversion to T3), half-life of roughly 7 days, 5-6 weeks for new steady state, 80% oral bioavailability (reduced by gastric acidity, various foods and drugs, especially Fe and Ca supplements).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe liothyronine

A

T3, hypothyroidism. Cytomel, triostat. Quicker onset, half-life >24 hours, more variable response, frequent dosing, more expensive, increased cardiovascular events

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Describe liotrix

A

hypothyroidism. T4/T3 combo in 4:1 ratio, brand name thyrolar. Attempts to simulate natural hormone levels, no therapeutic advantage over T4, expensive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Describe desiccated animal thyroid

A

hypothyroidism. 4:1 ratio of T4:T3, variable response, interchange with other therapies is problematic, allergic reactions to animal proteins. Not really used that often anymore.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe carbimazole

A

hyperthyroidism. pro-drug, meaning only active when converted in thiamazole and methimazole metabolites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

T4 drug side effects (TWIST CAD)

A

not for treatment of obesity or for weight loss, increased risk of cardiac events in elderly (MI and A-Fib), adrenal insufficiency, decreased bone mineral density, tachycardia, tremors, insomnia, weight loss, sweating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Drug-drug interactions of T4

A

long list - altered absorption, protein binding, and metabolism that may alter therapeutic response, decreased conversion to T3 by beta-blockers, amiodarone, and propylthiouracil (PTU).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Thioamide side effects

A

agranulocytosis, liver toxicity, and congenital malformations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

High iodine side effects (MIDBAD)

A

metallic taste, burning mouth, diarrhoea, systemic allergic reactions (fever, rash, rhinitis), severe dermatitis, iododerma eruptions can be fatal but are very rare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Indications for T3/T4 treatment

A

replacement/supplemental in patients with hypothyroidism of any aetiology, treatment or prevention of euthyroid goitres, adjunct to surgery and radioiodine therapy in management of TSH-dependent thyroid cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Goal of hypothyroidism treatment

A

maintain TSH in normal range for symptom relief and avoiding hypothyroidism in foetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Thioamide mechanism of action

A

thiourea blocks hormone production. Bind to active site of thyroid peroxidase (TPO), complexes with iodine and converts it to iodide, this oxidases thioamide which forms disulphide bond with enzyme, causing irreversible inactivation of TPO enzyme. Decreased formation of iodotyrosine residues causes a decreased in T4 synthesis. Inhibition of peripheral deiodination of T4.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Thioamide examples

A

Propylthiouracil (PTU), carbimazole, and methimazole (MMI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Indications for carbimazole

A

graves’ disease and toxic multinodular goitre in patients for whom surgery and radioactive iodine are not appropriate
In preparation for surgery with 131Iodine until effective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is favoured as hyperthyroidism treatment in 1st trimester of pregnancy and thyroid storm and why?

A

PTU as blocks T4-T3 conversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Treatment of Graves’ disease in pregnancy

A

1st trimester: PTU
2nd and 3rd trimesters: carbimazole but continue 2-3 weeks pre-birth.
Nursing: carbimazole as PTU contraindicated.
Give in low doses and monitor TSH as both can cross placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

High iodide treatment mechanism

A

acute inhibition of tyrosine iodination, then decreases in iodine uptake transporter. Inhibits proteolysis and release of T4 – rapid effect but not sustained, escape after 1-2 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Indications for high iodide treatment

A

Rarely used as a sole therapy: preoperative with thioamide for thyroidectomy, with PTU for thyroid storm, prevent radiation-induced thyroid cancer after nuclear fallout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Forms of high iodide treatment

A

SSKI, Lugol’s solution, Iodoral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

131 Iodine indications and mechanism

A

gland ablation in hyperthyroidism. Half-life of 8 days, gamma and beta emitter – long exposure for ablation, causes cell necrosis and destroys small blood vessels, symptoms abate in 6 months – thioamides, iodide, or beta-adrenergic antagonists given over this lag period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Treatment of thyrotoxicosis (LAB)

A

beta adrenergic antagonists
lithium
amiodarone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Describe thyroxine

A

T4, major product. Daily secretion around 100 nmoles. 5-7 day half life. 0.04% free, rest bound to plasma proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Describe triiodothyronine

A

T3. 3-8 times more active than thyroxine. Daily secretion around 5 nmoles. 0.4% free, rest bound to plasma proteins. 80% derived from peripheral metabolism of T4.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which proportion of thyroid hormone is active?

A

The unbound, <1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Purpose of the bound thyroid hormone?

A

Acts as a reservoir in the circulation with hormone dropping off the transport protein when required to maintain the equilibrium between free and bound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

70% T3 and T4 bound to

A

Thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

10% T3 and T4 bound to

A

Transthyretin (thyroxine-binding prealbumin)
Ten-fold greater affinity for T4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Albumin with thyroid hormones

A

15-20% bound to albumin, major source of free hormone from rapid dissociation as bound with relatively low affinity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Four types of thyroid hormone receptors

A

TRα1, β1, β2, and β3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which thyroid hormone receptor type has a very low affinity for T3?

A

TRα1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What do the TRβ1, β2, and β3 have a higher affinity for?

A

T3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Describe the mechanism of thyroid hormone

A

Once inside the cell, T4 is acted upon by deiodinase enzymes which forms T3 + Iodine. Receptors are found attached to hormone response elements in DNA where they repress transcription – causes conformational change which allows gene transcription to occur. Thyroid hormones change the amount of protein in the cell and thus the function of the cell. Key target is increased transcription of genes encoding mitochondrial uncoupling proteins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Effects of thyroid hormones

A

increases basal metabolic rate, increases cardiac output, enhances catecholamine actions, maintains emotional tone, effect on foetal neural development, bone growth, tooth development, permissive role in male and female reproductive organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Synthesis of thyroid hormone

A

production of thyroglobulin (glycoprotein rich in tyrosine) produced by follicular cells and exocytosed across the apical membrane to be stored in the colloid. Iodide retrieved from blood by I/Na transporter, taken into colloid by protein pendrin  iodide oxidized by thyroid peroxidase (TPO, expressed on follicular cell membrane) into iodine. Iodine groups are added to tyrosine on thyroglobulin (either one or two per tyrosine) under control of TPO. Coupling – T1 and T2 coupled to form T3 and T4 groups on the thyroglobulin which is stored in the colloid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Release of thyroid hormone

A

pinocytosis – some of the colloid is embraced by membrane and taken into the follicular cell. Colloid acted on by lysozymes which break down the thyroglobulin molecule that frees up T1 and T2 to be recycled and T3 and T4 are free to move into the blood

54
Q

HPT axis control of thyroid hormone

A

largely through negative feedback. In response to stimuli, the hypothalamus releases thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) into the portal circulation of the pituitary stalk. TRH acts on thyrotropes in the anterior pituitary to stimulate the release of TSH. TSH travels to the thyroid to stimulate release of T3 and T4

55
Q

What else stimulates TRH release?

A

increased cold, stress, and exercise

56
Q

What inhibits TSH?

A

glucocorticoids and somatostatin

57
Q

Actions of TSH

A

increases iodide uptake, increases thyroglobulin synthesis, increases iodination of tyrosine residues, increases size of thyroid cells, increases pinocytosis of colloid, and increases lysosomal activity

58
Q

Conversion of T4 to T3

A

requires the removal of an iodine residue by action of deiodinase enzymes which results in either active or inactive T3

59
Q

How is active T3 produced?

A

action of type 2 deiodinase which removes iodine residue from outer ring of T4

60
Q

Action of type 3 deiodinase

A

converts T4 into reverse T3 by removing iodine from inner ring

61
Q

Action of type 1 deiodinase

A

can remove iodine from both inner and outer rings

62
Q

Neuroendocrine factors increasing mood disorders

A

Stress, therapeutic glucocorticoid treatment, adrenal dysfunction, altered cortisol rhythm, excess cortisol

63
Q

Altered cortisol rhythm in mood disorders

A

stays higher than normal and the negative feedback loop doesn’t work properly causing hyperstimulation of receptors (especially common in bipolar disorder and psychotic depression

64
Q

How does excess cortisol impact on brain function?

A

altering the expression of proteins, interfere with the action of antidepressants, decrease neuronal complexity, and affect 5-HT (serotonin) neurotransmission (HPA dysfunction).

65
Q

Describe serotonin mechanism

A

released at both the cell body and terminals – auto-receptors on soma respond to levels and regulate firing rate

66
Q

Synaptic plasticity

A

change that occurs at synapses depending on stimulation e.g. exercise increase and stress decreases

67
Q

Neuro changes with bipolar disorder

A

HPA dysfunction more common, more evidence of brain structural and connectivity changes, some evidence for involvement of dopamine

68
Q

Define major depressive disorder

A

major depression or clinical depression. Periods of extreme sadness, hopelessness, or emptiness accompanied by a variety of physical, cognitive, and emotional symptoms.

69
Q

Define bipolar 1 disorder

A

formerly called manic depression. Mania is characterised by euphoric and/or irritable moods and increased energy or activity. During manic episodes, people also regularly engage in risky activities that can result in negative consequences for themselves and/or others.

70
Q

Define bipolar 2 disorder

A

episodes of hypomania (a less severe form of mania) and major depression, but no history of mania.

71
Q

Symptoms of MDD

A

depressed mood and markedly diminished interest in things that once brought enjoyment are the two key symptoms. Additional symptoms include weight loss, appetite change, insomnia, hypersomnia, psychomotor agitation/retardation, fatigue, lack of energy, feelings of worthlessness and guilt, unable to think clearly/concentrate, and thoughts of death/suicide. Need the two key symptoms plus at least another three for two weeks

72
Q

Symptoms of bipolar 1

A

all of the depressive symptoms for the same timescale. Mania – inflated self-esteem, increased talking, decreased need for sleep, racing thoughts, easily distracted, increase in goal directed activity, psychomotor agitation, and engaging in risky behaviour. Need three or more of the mania symptoms for a week as well as functional impairment on daily life.

73
Q

Symptoms of bipolar 2

A

same symptoms as bipolar 1. Need three or more for four days but with no functional impairment on daily life

74
Q

Diagnosis of mood disorders

A

Patient and clinician questionnaires (BDI and HAM-D) are used for diagnosis. Results are monitored weekly to lead treatment and monitor recovery

75
Q

Monoamine theory of depression

A

reduction in monoamines (serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine) causes the symptoms of depression. Also includes cofactors, precursors, receptor activity, intracellular processes, and process and degradation enzymes

76
Q

Reason for believing monoamine theory

A

Medications that increase neurotransmitter concentrations in synaptic cleft are effective antidepressants, people with depleted tryptophan show depression symptoms

77
Q

Reasons against monoamine theory

A

Reasons for decrease in neurotransmitters unknown, no consistent evidence of serotonin dysfunction

78
Q

Serotonin mechanism of action and metabolism

A

tryptophan converted to 5-HTP which is then converted to 5-HT in the raphe nuclei. Sequestered into vesicles, protected from breakdown and ready for release. Released in response to action potentials, removed from synaptic cleft by reuptake transporter. Degraded by monoamine oxidase (MAO) into 5-HIAA

79
Q

Thiopental pharmacokinetics

A

high lipid solubility, rapid action

80
Q

Phenobarbital pharmacokinetics

A

lowest lipid solubility, lowest plasma binding, lowest brain protein binding, longest delay in onset of activity, longest duration of action. Half-life 53-118 hours (mean 79 hours), primarily metabolised by liver, excreted in urine

81
Q

All SSRI side effect

A

risk of suicide, especially in adolescents

82
Q

Citalopram side effects

A

one of its minor metabolites is cardiotoxic and pro-convulsant at high doses

83
Q

Paroxetine side effects

A

most sedating, highest weight gain risk

84
Q

Benzodiazepines side effects

A

Nausea, sexual dysfunction, agitation, weight gain, insomnia, serotonin syndrome (too much serotonin)

85
Q

What can be prescribed with SSRIs in initial weeks to counteract side effects and offset delay?

A

Benzodiazepines

86
Q

SSRI discontinuation syndrome

A

patients must be tapered off, except for fluoxetine where long half-life leads to natural tapering. Symptoms: fatigue, lethargy, malaise, muscle aches, headaches, diarrhoea, insomnia, nausea, gait instability, dizziness, vertigo, paraesthesia, anxiety, agitation.

87
Q

Tricyclic antidepressant side effects

A

blurred vision, dry mouth, constipation, orthostatic hypotension, urinary retention, rash, hives, tachycardia, increased risk of seizures. Side effects severe, likely to be successful if used in an overdose attempt (cardiotoxicity, hypotension)

88
Q

Barbiturate side effects

A

addictive with severe withdrawal symptoms, respiratory distress at high doses, lethal OD (x10 hypnotic dose) due to ability to act as direct agonist at high concentrations

89
Q

Benzodiazepine withdrawal side effects

A

depression, suicidal behaviour, psychosis, seizures, and delirium tremens.

90
Q

Benzodiazepine mechanism of action

A

GABA A receptor positive allosteric modulators.

91
Q

GABA A

A

inhibitory neurotransmitter, lessens the ability of a nerve cell to receive and send chemical messages

92
Q

Clinical use of benzodiazepines

A

Short term for anxiety, only antidepressant/anxiolytic with immediate effect. can be useful to treat muscle spasms as have strong muscle relaxant effects but tolerance often develops

93
Q

Benzodiazepine examples

A

diazepam, alprazolam, temazepam, midazolam

94
Q

SSRI mechanism of action

A

Blocks the reuptake of serotonin leaving more in the synapse (eventually, initially causes a decrease in serotonin because of the feedback mechanism): 5HT1A receptors act as inhibitory somato-dendritic auto-receptors on 5HT neurons → blockage of 5HT uptake → elevated 5HT in raphe nuclei → reduced expression of inhibitory 5HT1A receptors → 5HT neuron disinhibited → 5HT output enhanced. Efficacy takes 4-6 weeks

95
Q

Citalopram

A

SSRI, 2nd most serotonin selective

96
Q

Escitalopram

A

S enantiomer of citalopram, more potent and selective, reduced side effects

97
Q

Fluoxetine

A

1st SSRI, very long half life, potent CYP2D6 inhibitor

98
Q

Sertraline

A

SSRI, most widely prescribes, mildest side effects, moderate CYP2D6 inhibitor

99
Q

Paroextine

A

possibly more effective, potent CYP2D6 inhibitor

100
Q

Tri-cyclic antidepressant mechanism of action

A

serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors act by blocking the serotonin transporter (SERT) and norepinephrine transporter (NET) → elevation of synaptic concentrations of these and an enhancement of neurotransmission

101
Q

SNRIs mechanism of action

A

tend to have a higher affinity for SERT than NET. Potent inhibitors of serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake and weak inhibitors of dopamine reuptake. Minimal or no pharmacological action and adrenergic, muscarinic, histamine, dopamine, or post-synaptic serotonin receptors

102
Q

SNRI examples

A

venlafaxine and duloxetine

103
Q

Venlafaxine at low doses (37.5mg daily)

A

functions like an SSRI

104
Q

Venlafaxine at high doses (above 225mg daily)

A

dual mechanism agent affecting serotonin and noradrenaline

105
Q

Atypical antidepressants

A

buspirone, mirtazapine, and trazodone

106
Q

Buspirone

A

5-HT1A receptor partial agonist. Antidepressant and anxiolytic. Dopamine agonist at D2, D3, and D4 receptors, primarily acting on presynaptic inhibitory auto-receptors. Depresses serotonin and enhances dopamine release. Generally used for anxiety but also relieves depressive symptoms in anxious patients

107
Q

Mirtazapine mechanism

A

potent antagonism of central alpha-2 adrenergic receptors (blockade of presynaptic auto-receptors and thus enhanced noradrenaline release) and antagonism of 5-HT2 (net increase in 5-HT mediated transmission), 5-HT3 (antiemetic), and H1 receptors

108
Q

What dose should mirtazapine not be given lower than and why?

A

15mg to avoid excessive sedation as has antihistaminergic effects

109
Q

Low dose trazodone

A

Hypnotic due to blockade of 5-HT2A receptors, as well as H1 and alpha-1 adrenergic receptors

110
Q

High dose trazodone

A

Recruits blockade of SERT and has antidepressant effects

111
Q

Why does trazodone have limited use in the elderly?

A

Can cause orthostatic hypotension

112
Q

Describe barbiturates

A

sedative, hypnotic, anaesthesia inducing, anticonvulsant. Positive allosteric modulators of GABA A receptors

113
Q

Barbiturate examples

A

pentobarbital, butobarbital, phenobarbital, and sodium thiopental.

114
Q

Describe Z drugs

A

show preference for alpha-1 subunits of BZ receptors. Similar action to benzos. Zolpidem (Ambien), eszopiclone (Lunesta – additional activity in alpha 2 and 3 receptors), and zaleplon (Sonata, shorter half-life so fewer hangover effects)

115
Q

Describe flumazenil

A

BZD antagonist – binds to GABA A receptor. Repeat doses may be required to prevent overdose symptoms re-occurring once the initial dose wears off (shorter half-life than many benzos). May get benzo withdrawal symptoms like seizure in patients who are physically dependent on benzos upon rapid administration

116
Q

Specific phobia

A

childhood onset, isolated fear of specific object/event with avoidance. Occurs for >6 months.

117
Q

Describe anxiety

A

feeling of worry, nervousness, or unease about something with an uncertain outcome. May be normal, necessary, appropriate, and entirely rational. A psychological, physiological, and behavioural state induced in animals and humans by a threat to well-being or survival, either actual or potential

118
Q

Social phobia

A

slightly higher in females, emerges in teens. Fear of social situations or being focus of attention (public speaking, small groups e.g. parties, meetings), fear of behaving in an embarrassing way or humiliating oneself (blushing). Avoidance behaviours, >6-month duration.

119
Q

Agoraphobia

A

around 1.8:1 F:M, emerges early-mid twenties to mid-thirties. Fear of leaving the home, travelling alone, crowds, and public places. Avoidance behaviours, >6-month duration.

120
Q

Panic disorder

A

panic attacks that start abruptly. Discrete episodes of intense fear that last for some minutes. Fear of catastrophic outcome. Random, not situational. Four of the anxiety symptoms not caused by substances, medications, medical conditions, or another mental disorder.

121
Q

Generalised anxiety disorder

A

a period of at least six months with prominent tension, worry, and feelings of apprehension about everyday events and problems. Difficulty controlling the worry. Four or more of restlessness, easy fatigue, difficulty concentrating, irritability, muscle tension, and sleep disturbances that are not explained by something else. Chronic but fluctuating and not situational. Excessive, persistent, and unreasonable

122
Q

OCD

A

either obsessions or compulsions present on most days for a period of at least two weeks. Obsessions (thoughts, ideas, or images) and compulsions (acts) share the following features, all of which must be present: originate in the mind of the patient, are repetitive and unpleasant, individual tries to resist them unsuccessfully, and carrying out the obsessive thought or compulsive act is not in itself pleasurable. Obsessions and compulsions cause distress or interfere with the subject’s social or individual functioning, usually by wasting time

123
Q

PTSD

A

: exposure to a stressful event or situation of exceptionally threatening or catastrophic nature which is likely to cause pervasive distress in almost anyone. Persistent remembering or reliving the stressor by intrusive flashbacks, vivid memories, recurring dreams, or by experiencing distress when exposed to circumstances resembling or associated with the stressor. Actual or preferred avoidance of circumstances resembling or associated with the stressor not present before exposure to the stressor. Symptoms: inability to recall some important aspects of the incident, sleep problems, irritability, outbursts of anger, difficulty concentrating, hyper-vigilance, exaggerated startle response

124
Q

GAD pathophysiology

A

hypofunction of serotonergic neurons, hypofunction of GABAergic neurons (less inhibition of emotions), and hyperactivity of noradrenergic neurons arising from the locus coeruleus may produce excessive excitation in the brain areas implicated in GAD. During anxiety, the hippocampus-amygdala circuit amplifies the aversive events of anxiety disorder. Changes in dopamine and serotonin in the circuit impact anxiety disorders

125
Q

Causes of anxiety

A

hyperthyroidism, caffeine, substance abuse, medication

126
Q

Limbic system in anxiety

A

more active than normal (hyperactive amygdala)

127
Q

Which nervous system component is important in anxiety?

A

sympathetic

128
Q

Psychological symptoms of anxiety

A

worry, hypervigilance, depersonalisation/derealisation, irritability, and dread.

129
Q

Physical symptoms of anxiety

A

light headedness, fatigue, sweaty, hot flashes, chills, twitching, blushing, nausea, chest pain, difficulty breathing, numb hands, weakness, trembling, muscle tension, muscle aches, frequent urination.

130
Q

Behavioural symptoms of anxiety

A

avoidance

131
Q

Primary treatment hyperthyroidism

A

Carbimazole