Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CEN prep 2021 > Cardiovascular > Flashcards

Cardiovascular Flashcards

1
Q

is anything other than a NSR

A

Dysrhythmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Dysrhythmia
Electrical causes include
(5)

A

Occur when the SA node fires slower than 60 or more than 100
The SA node fails
Conduction is blocked
Aberrant conduction pathways are activated
Ectopic foci initiate impulses
Every cardiac cell has the ability to generate a beat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Dysrhythmia Pathological causes include

6

A 
Metabolic  
Electrolyte imbalances 
Chronic illnesses
Medications 
Congenital disorders 
Abuse of stimulants
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Dysrhythmia Pathological causes Metabolic include

A

derangements such as hypoxia, acidosis, alkalosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Dysrhythmia Pathological caues Electrolyte imbalances, include
(4)

A

hypokalemia, hyperkalemia, hypocalcemia, hypomagnesemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Dysrhythmia Pathological causes chronic illness, include

3

A

coronary artery disease, COPD, CHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Dysrhythmia Pathological causes Medications, include

A

cardiac glycosides and bronchodilators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Dysrhythmia Pathological causes include abuse

4

A

caffeine, nicotine, cocaine, and amphetamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Normal P - R interval is

A

0.12 to 0.20 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Normal QRS duration is

A

0.06 to 0.12 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is a Mural clot?

A

the development of a thrombus on or against an interior wall of the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q 
what are some causes of Atrial Fibrillation and Flutter 
(14)
5 that begin with C
3 that begin with H
3 that begin with P
A
  • Atrial enlargement
  • cardiac valve disease
  • cardiomyopathy
  • chronic lung disease
  • CHF
  • CAD
  • HTN
  • hyperthyroid
  • hypoxia
  • pericarditis
  • myocarditis
  • PNA
  • pulmonary
  • embolus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are three ways to treat atrial fibrillation and flutter?

A

anticoagulation
cardioversion
calcium channel blockers
Cardioversion; A fib treated with cardioversion, the patient should be treated with an anticoagulant first, because cardioversion can cause the thrombi to mobilize
Patients with A fib can be treated with calcium channel blockers in order to control rapid ventricular rate, as well as beta blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what defines a Wandering pacemaker?

A

Defined as at least three different P wave configurations to be present to constitute wandering atrial pacemaker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is Wolf Parkinson White?

A

Is a preexcitation syndrome that can occur intermittently, which permits impulse conduction from the atria to the ventricles while bypassing the AV node.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the symptoms of Wolf Parkinson White?

A

Usually asymptomatic, often found incidentally on an EKG that is unrelated to the CC.
Symptoms may include heart palpitations and a rapid heart rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How is Wolf Parkinson White identified on an EKG?

A

WPW is identified by a widened QRS and a slurred upstroke or delta wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Junctional Dysrhythmias

Occur when…

A

Occur when; the SA node fails to generate an impulse, an SA generated impulse is blocked from leaving the node or not conducted into the ventricles, or the rate of the SA node is slower than that of the AV junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

____ ____ ____ (hint: PJC) is less common than a PAC or a PVC and is rarely problematic. They can occur in healthy hearts and rarely require intervention.

A

Premature Junctional Complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When the SA node fails and the AV node assumes pacemaker of the heart. A ____ ____ ____ occurs when three or more consecutive beats occur.

A

junctional escape rhythm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

junctional escape rhythm is usually between __ - __ BPM

A

Usually between 40 - 60 BPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Describe P waves in a Premature Junctional Complex

A

P wave can occur before, during, or after the QRS complex. The P is commonly inverted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

describe P waves in a Junctional escape rhythm

A

P waves can occur anywhere, or be absent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Because a junctional rhythm originates above the ventricles, the QRS is typically ____, and it’s rhythm is ____

A

narrow

regular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Junctional Escape Rhythm Management if ____ with ____, ____, or ____ ____.

A

symptomatic

O2, atropine, or transcutaneous pacing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

an accelerated junctional tachycardia occurs when an ectopic focus in the AV node begins firing faster than the SA node and takes over as the pacemaker is called what?

A

Accelerated Junctional Tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

By definition, an accelerated junctional tachycardia is __ to __ BPM

A

7

130

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

This dysrhythmia occurs in patients with heart disease, digoxin toxicity, MI, or myocarditis
Can develope ischemia as a result
Treatment involves managing the underlying cause

A

Accelerated Junctional Tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

These Occur when the myocardium is irritable and an ectopic focus in the ventricles causes depolarization

A

Premature Ventricular Contractions or PVC’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are some causes of PVC’s?
Most often?
Can also result fom…(5)

A

Most often arise in patients with cardiac disease or myocardial ischemia or when infarction occurs.
Can also result from ; conditions that cause hypoxia, hypovolemia, electrolyte imbalances such as hypokalemia or hypomagnesemia, or abuse of stimulants such as nicotine or caffeine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Describe Unifocal PVC’s

A

can occur in healthy individuals and patients are usually unaware

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Describe Multifocal PVC’s

A

PVCs look different and arise from various foci points and present various configurations. Patients with multifocal premature ventricular complexes should be closely monitored because these complexes indicate a more serious condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is Bigeminy?

A

is a pattern in which every other beat is a PVC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Waht is Trigeminy?

A

a repeating pattern in which every third beat is a premature ventricular contraction. Each PVC arises from the same ectopic focus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is a Couplet?

A

is a pair of PVCs, and are usually from the same ectopic foci. These are considered potentially dangerous PVC complexes because they can become arrhythmogenic for ventricular tachycardia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Define Ventricular Tachycardia

A

Is a series of three or more beats of PVCs.

Rarely happens in people who don’t have heart disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

This type of Ventricular Tachycardia usually lasts less than 30 seconds and does not require treatment unless the patient is symptomatic.

A

Nonsustained

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Sustained V tach is potentially fatal because of the

A

increased demand for O2 and the reduction in cardiac output, causing transition into ventricular fibrillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Test new card

A

This is a new card

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

This is another new card

A

New card 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

V tach can be ____or ____

A

Poly morphic or monomorphic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Polymorphic v tach is called what

A

Torsades de pointes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Torsades de pointes Can result from

(2) 3, 2

A

Can result from

  • medications that prolong the QT interval, such as amiodarone, Ibutilide, Procainamide,
  • toxic levels of drugs such as tricyclic antidepressants and congenital long QT syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Unstable patient with monomorphic ventricular tachycardia, expect what?

A

immediate synchronized cardioversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

For unstable patient with polymorphic or torsades, what is the priority

A

immediate defibrillation is the priority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Ventricular Fibrillation what is the Most common cause

A

Coronary artery disease CAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

AV blocks can be the result of these three meds

A

tricyclic antidepressants, clonidine, digoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Lyme disease ; late stage can present as

A

third degree block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

2nd degree
Type 1

Management; administer ____ of the patient has symptomatic bradycardia, which should not delay the implementation of ____ ____ for patients with poor perfusion.

A

atropine

external pacing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

2nd degree

Type 2

Most commonly the result from what?
considered life threatening because it can progress into ____ ____

Probably won’t respond to ____, expect ____ ____ or continuous infusion of ____ or ____ until when?

A

acute MI
third degree
atropine, expect transcutaneous pacing or continuous infusion of dopamine or epinephrine until transvenous pacing is initiated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

A bundle branch block in one bundle causes the ventricle on that side to ____ ____ than the ventricle in the intact side, resulting in an abnormal QRS that is what?

A

depolarize later

wide and bizarre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

____ bundle branch block, which is the most common intraventricular conduction abnormality, can occur in healthy individuals.

____ bundle branch block, however usually indicates heart disease

A

Right

Left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

This is a unique and recently described clinical and electrocardiographic disease that can result from a defect in the cardiac sodium channel.

A

Brugada syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

The specific characteristics of Brugada syndrome are

A

complete or incomplete right BBB with ST segment elevation in the right precordial leads V1 through V3.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Although patients with Brugada syndrome are usually young and asymptomatic, they are at risk for ____ ____ ____ which can be prevented how?

pharmacological treatment for this syndrome is what?

To prevent sudden cardiac death, patients may receive an implantable cardiac defibrillator (ICD)

A

sudden cardiac death.

No pharmacological treatment currently exists for this syndrome.

To prevent sudden cardiac death, patients may receive an implantable cardiac defibrillator (ICD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

____ ____ ____ is a group of cardiac conduction disturbances characterized by syncope and sudden death.

A

Long QT syndrome (LQTS)

57
Q

A QT interval that exceeds __ seconds is abnormal, generally speaking because it can vary with HR

A

0.44

58
Q

The QT interval is considered prolonged when it is longer than __ of the R to R interval.

A

50%

59
Q

What are 2 methods of treating long QT syndrome?

A

Expect antiarrhythmic drugs, usually beta blockers

Electrolyte replenish

60
Q

Sudden cardiac arrest, what are the 4 causal rhythms?

A

The four rhythms; VT, pVT, PEA, and asystole

61
Q

Sudden cardiac arrest
Metabolic causes include
(4)

A

Metabolic causes include

hyperkalemia (most common, especially in patients with renal failure), hypokalemia, hypermagnesemia, and hypercalcemia

62
Q

Sudden cardiac arrest Drug induced causes are

5

A

; overdoses of digitalis preparations, beta blockers, and tricyclic antidepressants. And also illicit drugs such as cocaine, heroin

63
Q

Sudden cardiac arrest Pulmonary causes

A

any disease that causes hypoxia

64
Q

Sudden cardiac arrest Circulatory causes (5)

A

Circulatory causes such as tension pneumothorax, pulmonary embolus, pericardial tamponade, sepsis, and hemorrhage

65
Q

Sudden cardiac arrest Neurogenic causes; Increased intracranial pressure

A

Increased intracranial pressure

66
Q

Cardiac arrest initial management

What are the two drugs used?

A

Epinephrine

Vasopressins

67
Q

Cardiac arrest initial management
What is the first line drug?
What is the dose?
What does it do?

A

Epinephrine; first line drug

Repeat every 3 to 5 minutes with a bolus of 20 ml of saline

Stimulate alpha and beta-adrenergic effects

Stimulate the heart in asystole and idioventricular rhythms

68
Q

Cardiac arrest initial management

What is the second line drug?

A

Vasopressin

No advantage over epinephrine

69
Q

ET tube drugs

What is the acronym?

A

LEAN-V

70
Q

ET tube drugs
What are they and what do they all have in common?
(5+ in common)

A

LEAN-V; Lidocaine, epinephrine, atropine, naloxone, vasopressin

All lipid soluble drugs

71
Q

ET tube drugs, what is the typical dosage and what are they usually given with?

A

Expect the dose to be 2 to 2.5 times the recommended IV dose followed by 5 to 10 ml of saline

72
Q

Sodium Bicarb; is reserved for treating cardiac arrest in a patient with a specific disorder, such as what?
(3)

A

Sodium Bicarb; is reserved for treating cardiac arrest in a patient with a specific disorder, such as hyperkalemia, acidosis, or tricyclic antidepressant overdose

73
Q

Cardiac arrest initial management; calcium chloride; recommended for
(3)

A

hyperkalemia, hypocalcemia, and calcium channel blocker toxicity

74
Q

Magnesium sulfate; useful for treatment of TDP, and what else?

A

dysrhythmias caused by toxicity

75
Q

Management after cardiac arrest

Bradycardia; for bradycardia associated with poor perfusion, expect to administer ____ and consider transcutaneous pacing or a continuous infusion of ____ or ____

A

Atropine
Dopamine
Epinephrine

76
Q

What is another name for dopamine?

A

(intropin)

77
Q

Management after cardiac arrest
If a patient has a wide-complex monomorphic ventricular tachycardia, prepare to administer ____, ____, or ____.

If a patient with a wide complex monomorphic ventricular tachycardia is unstable, prepare for a ____ ____

A

Amiodarone
Procainamide
Sotalol

Synchronized cardioversion

78
Q

What is another name for amiodarone?

A

Cordarone

79
Q

What is another name for procainamide?

A

Pronestyl

80
Q

What is another name for sotalol?

A

Betapace

81
Q

If a patient with a wide complex monomorphic ventricular tachycardia is unstable, prepare for a ____ ____

A

synchronized cardioversion

82
Q

How is Hypothermia after Cardiac Arrest implemented, for how long?

A

Usually performed quickly, maintained for about 12 to 24 hours, and then followed by gradual rewarming

83
Q

Hypothermia after Cardiac Arrest

Maintain body temperature between __ and __F or __ to __C

A

89.6 and 96.8 or 32 to 36C

84
Q

Hypothermia after Cardiac Arrest Apply cooled IV fluids, cooling blankets, and ice packs to what areas of the body?
(4)

A

groin, axilla, head and neck

85
Q

Hypothermia after Cardiac Arrest Manage shivering by administering IV ____-____ __ mg to avoid increasing the metabolic rate, which can worsen the cellular injury

A

Demerol-meperidine 12.5

86
Q

What is Acute Coronary Syndrome?
What does it include?
(3)

A

Refers to the continuum of coronary artery disease and the related signs and symptoms which include

Unstable angina

ST elevation stemi

NSTEMI

87
Q

Right coronary artery may cause a ____, ____ or ____ wall infarction, and also may lead to what condition in an inferior wall MI?

A

RV, posterior or inferior wall infarction, and also may lead to Mobitz type 1 (Wenckebach) in an inferior wall MI

88
Q

Wenckebach refers to what condition?

A

Mobitz type 1

89
Q

Left Descending Coronary artery blockage may cause

3

A

An infarction of the inferior wall

May affect the papillary muscle, which attaches to the mitral valve

May lead to second-degree heart block, Mobitz type 2, or a 3rd degree block in an anterior MI

90
Q

If the phrenic nerve becomes stimulated, expect ____ in MI

A

Hiccups

91
Q

Patients older than 85 experience ____ as the classic symptom of an MI

A

SOB

92
Q

Describe MI pain in a transplant patient

A

Heart transplant patients do not experience pain since the pain receptors are denervated during the transplant procedure

93
Q

Patients with ____ are more prone to neuropathy and may not experience pain from an MI.

A

Diabetes

94
Q 
Describe stable angina
Pain-areas of the boby, subjective terms
Duration 
What makes it worse
Two meds to treat it with.
A

Stable; occurs predictably, usually substernal, may radiate to the jaw and neck, and down the arms and back, described as aching, squeezing, choking, burning that lasts 1 to 5 minutes. The pain worsens with activity, eating, and reclining. It is relieved best with nitroglycerine and isosorbide

95
Q

What EKG findings can be expected with stable angina?

A

An EKG will show a transient EKG depression that disappears with pain relief

96
Q

Name 3 details that identify chest pain as Unstable angina

A

pain occurs at rest
is new in onset
or is a worsening of stable angina in terms of frequency or duration of attacks.

97
Q

What are two terms used to describe or somonomously with Unstable angina?

A

It is often called preinfarction angina or crescendo angina and is usually caused by a plaque rupture

98
Q

Another name for varient angina is what?

A

Prinzmetal angina

99
Q

Prinzmetal Angina; varient angina, usually occurs when?

A

usually occurs between sleeping hours

100
Q

Patients with this type of angina tend to be younger

A

Prinzmetal or varient angina

101
Q

With this type of angina, EKG usually will show ST-segment elevation during the pain episode

A

Prinzmetal or varient angina

102
Q

Only __ to __ percent of acute chest pain patients have acute coronary syndrome

A

15

25

103
Q

A decreased __ heart sound can result from reduced myocardial activity

A

S1

104
Q

An increased __ heart sound can be caused by increased pulmonary artery pressure

A

S2

105
Q

An __ heart sound (gallop) can result from ventricular dilation and increased ventricular fluid pressure

A

S3

106
Q

An S3 heart sound can also be called a what?

A

Gallop

107
Q

A transient friction rub can result from what?

A

inflammatory response to myocardial necrosis

108
Q

JVD can develop when this happens

A

vascular congestion increases pressures, causing backflow into the jugular veins

109
Q

STEMI - the elevation of ST segment as shown in leads V__ through V__

A

1

5

110
Q

A new MI has probably occurred if the ST segment is elevated by __ mm or more in at least __ contiguous leads or if an abnormal __ wave appears in two or more leads. The ST segment can remain elevated for __ hours after the event.

A

1
2
Q
24

111
Q

Pathological __ waves, which measure more than __ seconds in width and at least __ percent or more of the overall QRS height, occur within __ hours and indicate irreversible myocardial cell death.

A

Q
0.04
25
24

112
Q

which may cause tall, peaked T waves.

A

hyperkalemia

113
Q

Patients with an NSTEMI elevation MI show no signs of injury in the EKG tracing, so how is the Dx made?

A

The tracing may show ST-segment depression and T wave inversion.

The Dx is made on the patients SS and cardiac serum biomarkers

114
Q

When evaluating a possible NSTEMI, If the cardiac biomarkers are not present in two or more blood samples taken at least 6 hours apart, the diagnosis is what?

A

Unstable angina

115
Q

With Anterior Wall MI expect changes in these leads, which face the anterior wall of the left ventricle

A

V3

V4

116
Q

An anterior wall AMI may cause dysrhythmias, including what?

4

A

PVCs, atrial flutter, atrial fibrillation, or BBB’s

117
Q

An ____ Wall AMI developes when the right coronary artery is occluded

A

An inferior Wall AMI

118
Q

An inferior Wall AMI developes when the right coronary artery is occluded.Look for ST changes in leads…

A

Look for ST changes in leads II, III and aVF. Expect reciprical changes in leads V1 through V4 I, and aVL

119
Q

Bradydysrhythmias and conduction delays, such as first-degree atrioventricular block and second-degree atrioventricular block and second degree Mobitz type I (Wenckebach), are common in this type of MI

A

Inferior wall MI

120
Q

Leads I aVL, V5, and V6 view the ____ wall of the left ventricle, so expect changes in those leads.

A

Leads I aVL, V5, and V6 view the lateral wall of the left ventricle, so expect changes in those leads.

121
Q

Leads __, __, __, and __ view the lateral wall of the left ventricle, so expect changes in those leads.

A

I, aVL, V5, and V6

122
Q

____ wall infarctions often occur as extensions of anterior or inferior wall infarctions.

A

Lateral

123
Q

____ Wall infarction usually occur with an inferior or lateral infarction

A

Posterior

124
Q

Changes that indicate ____ wall infarctions include ST-segment elevation in the posterior leads (V_ through V_)

A

Posterior

125
Q

In all patients with a suspected inferior acute MI, evaluate for a right ventricular infarction by obtaining a what?

A

right sided electrocardiogram

126
Q

In adults, ST segment elevation in lead ___ is specific for an acute right ventricular infarction

A

RV4

127
Q

The complications of a right ventricular infarction include

6

A

hypotension, cardiogenic shock, atrioventricular blocks, atrial flutter or fibrillation, and PACs

128
Q

Pharmacologic Intervention for MI administer oral aspirin unless the patient has a contraindication such as what?
(2)

Expect to give the recommended dose, ranging from 160 - 325 of non enteric coated tabs. If the patient cannot tolerate oral aspirin, a 300 mg rectal suppository may be ordered.

A

allergy or active gastrointestinal bleeding

160 - 325
300

129
Q

Nitro for MI, how does it affect preload?

And afterload?

A

Nitro; the initial drug of choice for treating ischemic chest pain because it dilates the coronary arteries, reduces afterload by dilating the peripheral venous circulation, and reduces preload by decreasing the venous return to the heart.

130
Q

When administering Nitro, Avoid in ____ patients. The patients BP should be at least __mmHg or no lower than __mmHg below baseline

A

Hypotensive
90
30

131
Q

Avoid using nitro in patients with marked ____, ____, or ____.

A

Avoid using nitro in patients with marked bradycardia, tachycardia, or ventricular infarction.

132
Q

Do not give nitro to a patient who takes a ____ ____ to treat erectile dysfunction

A

phosphodiesterase inhibitor

133
Q

Use nitro cautiously in patients with an ____wall MI. These patients depend on right ventricular filling pressures to maintain cardiac output and blood pressure, and administering nitroglycerine decreases preload.

A

Inferior

134
Q

How does morphine treat chest pain?

2

A

Relieves chest pain and decreases the O2 consumption of the myocardium

135
Q

If the patient is not ____, prepare to administer morphine

A

Hypotensive

136
Q

Because morphine is a venodilator, use it cautiously in patients who may be ____ dependant

A

Preload

137
Q

How do ACE inhibitors work?

What does ACE stand for?

A

ACE inhibitors (angiotensin-converting enzyme); inhibit progressive left ventricular enlargement by reducing ventricular wall stress

138
Q

Pericarditiscan be treated with this type of drug

A

Treat with an antiinflammatory drug, such as an NSAID, since it is an inflammatory condition

139
Q

Blood pressure may vary between the right and left arms with this condition

A

Thoracic aortic aneurysm

CEN prep 2021 (36 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions