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Cardiology > Cardio Conditions > Flashcards

Cardio Conditions Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the etiology/RF for hypertension

A
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2
Q

Describe the clinical presentation & PE for hypertension

A
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3
Q

Describe the range of BP from normal to stage 2 HTN

A
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4
Q

Describe malignant HTN

A
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5
Q

Describe the non-pharm treatments for HTN

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6
Q

Describe the 4 main classes of first line antihypertensives

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7
Q

Describe the etiology & RFs for aortic aneurysm

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8
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of aortic aneurysm and aortic aneurysm rupture

A
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9
Q

Describe the PE for an aortic aneurysm

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10
Q

Describe the testing and screening procedures for aortic aneurysm and rupture

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11
Q

Describe the treatment for aortic aneurysm and rupture

A
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12
Q

Describe the etiology of aortic dissection

A
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13
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of aortic dissection

A
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14
Q

Describe the diagnostic testing for aortic dissection

A
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15
Q

Describe the treatment for aortic dissection

A

Stanford A = surgical

Stanford B = medical management
- BP control goal 100-120 systolic (BB, CCB, IV nitroprusside)
- arterial pressure, central venous pressure

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16
Q

What are some contraindications to aortic dissection surgical repair

A

CVA, severe valve disease, recent MI, pregnancy, advanced age

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17
Q

Describe the etiology of rheumatic heart disease

A
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18
Q

Describe the clinical presentation and PE of rheumatic heart disease

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19
Q

Describe the diagnostic testing for rheumatic heart disease

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20
Q

Describe the treatment for rheumatic heart disease

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21
Q

Describe the etiology of mitral/tricuspid regurgitation

A
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22
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of mitral/tricuspid regurgitation

A
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23
Q

Describe the murmur heard in mitral and tricuspid regurgitation

A

Mitral best heard at apex, tricuspid best heard at LLSB

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24
Q

Describe the treatment for mitral/tricuspid regurgitation

A
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25
Q

Describe the etiology of a mitral S3 gallop murmur

A

Diastolic

Gallop sound in early diastole as a result of extra blood filling back into ventricle & splashing (every 3-4 beats)

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26
Q

Describe the mitral valve prolapse murmur

A

mid to late systolic click of the valve and late systolic murmur

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27
Q

Describe the etiology of aortic stenosis

A
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28
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of aortic stenosis

A
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29
Q

Describe the murmur heard in aortic stenosis

A

Auscultation:
- ejection click following S1 best heard at left lower sternal border
- systolic crescendo-decrescendo ejection murmur heard at URSB 2nd ICS that radiates to carotid arteries bilaterally

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30
Q

Describe the treatment for aortic stenosis

A
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31
Q

Describe the etiology of pulmonic stenosis

A
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32
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of pulmonic stenosis

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33
Q

Describe the murmur for pulmonic stenosis

A
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34
Q

Describe the etiology of mitral stenosis

A
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35
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of mitral stenosis

A
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36
Q

Describe the murmur for mitral stenosis

A
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37
Q

Describe the treatment for mitral stenosis

A
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38
Q

Describe the etiology of aortic regurgitation

A
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39
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of aortic regurgitation

A

dyspnea, PND, orthopnea

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40
Q

Describe the murmur heard in aortic regurgitation

A

Early diastolic decrescendo murmur, heard best at 3rd LICS, high pitch blowing, can include S3 sound

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41
Q

Describe the treatment for aortic regurgitation

A
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42
Q

Describe the etiology of an S4 atrial gallop

A

Diastolic murmur

L atria contracting against a stenotic L ventricle, often a sign of diastolic HF

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43
Q

Describe the etiology of SVT

A

can be triggered by stimulants, alcohol, digoxin, MI, pericarditis, valvulopathy, PE, COPD

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44
Q

Describe the treatment for SVT

A
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45
Q

Describe the etiology of premature atrial contraction

A
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46
Q

Describe the etiology of premature ventricular contraction

A
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47
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of PAC and PVC

A
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48
Q

Describe the treatment for PVCs

A

beta blocker if symptomatic, to reduce frequency

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49
Q

Describe the etiology of wolff parkinson white syndrome

A
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50
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of WPW syndrome

A
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51
Q

Describe the treatment for WPW syndrome

A
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52
Q

Describe the etiology of idioventricular conduction delay

A
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53
Q

Describe the RFs for IV conduction delay

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54
Q

Describe the etiology of RBBB

A
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55
Q

Describe the EKG for RBBB

A
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56
Q

Describe the etiology of LBBB

A
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57
Q

Describe the EKG in LBBB

A
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58
Q

Describe the etiology of tachy/brady syndrome

A
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59
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of tachy/brady syndrome

A
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60
Q

Describe the etiology of v-tach

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61
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of V-tach

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62
Q

Describe the treatment for v-tach

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63
Q

Describe the etiology of v-fib

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64
Q

Describe the etiology of acute aortic stenosis

A
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65
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of acute aortic stenosis

A
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66
Q

Describe the treatment for acute aortic stenosis

A
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67
Q

Describe the etiology of long QT syndrome

A
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68
Q

Describe the etiology of a third degree AV block

A
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69
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of a third degree AV block

A
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70
Q

Describe the treatment for third degree AV block

A
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71
Q

Describe the etiology of a-fib with rapid ventricular response

A

sxs: palpitations, chest pain, pre/syncope, dyspnea

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72
Q

Describe the treatment for a-fib with rapid ventricular response

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73
Q

Describe the treatment for WPW syndrome

A
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74
Q

Describe the etiology & RFs for acute MI

A
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75
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of an acute MI

A
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76
Q

Describe the EKG findings for a STEMI vs NSTEMI

A
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77
Q

Describe the treatment for STEMI & NSTEMI and some complications

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78
Q

Describe the etiology of PE

A
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79
Q

Describe the diagnostic testing for PE

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80
Q

Describe the treatment for PE

A
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81
Q

Describe the etiology of cardiogenic shock

A
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82
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of cardiogenic shock

A
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83
Q

Describe the etiology of Kawasaki syndrome

A
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84
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of kawasaki syndrome

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85
Q

Describe the diagnostic testing for kawasaki syndrome

A
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86
Q

Describe the treatment for kawasaki syndrome

A

IVIG & ASA mainstay

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87
Q

Describe the EKG for hypokalemia

A
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88
Q

Describe the etiology of an anterior MI

A
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89
Q

describe De Winter T waves seen in anterior MI

A
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90
Q

Describe which leads show ischemia in septal, anterior, lateral, anteroseptal, anterolateral territories

A
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91
Q

Describe the etiology for a lateral STEMI

A
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92
Q

Describe the etiology for an inferior STEMI

A
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93
Q

Describe the EKG for an inferior STEMI

A
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94
Q

Describe the etiology of right ventricular infarction

A
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95
Q

Describe the etiology and EKG for posterior MI

A
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96
Q

Describe the etiology of subendocardial infarction

A
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97
Q

Describe the etiology of brugada syndrome

A
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98
Q

Describe the EKG for brugada syndrome

A
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99
Q

Describe the etiology of takotsubo cardiomyopathy & EKG findings

A
100
Q

Describe the etiology of an anterior fascicular block

A
101
Q

Describe the EKG for anterior fascicular block

A
102
Q

Describe the etiology of posterior fascicular block

A

R axis deviation associated with MI, S1Q3

103
Q

Describe the etiology of a bifascicular block

A
104
Q

describe the etiology of atrial septal defect

A
105
Q

describe the clinical presentation of atrial septal defect

A
106
Q

Describe the murmur & diagnostic testing for atrial septal defect

A
107
Q

Describe the etiology of patent foramen ovale

A
108
Q

Describe the etiology of ventricular septal defect

A

Acyanotic

Common, Communication between ventricles (single or multi), shunting L to R

Location class
- peri/membranous
- muscular defects
- outlet defects (subpulmonic)
- inlet defects (AV canal)

109
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of ventricular septal defect

A

Symptoms depend on size & pressure differentials

Causes pulmonary HTN if L to R is extreme (Eisenmenger syndrome)

110
Q

Describe the murmur and diagnostic testing for VSD

A

Murmur: small 2-3/6 harsh, blowing, holosystolic, heard best at LLSB, sometimes 4/6 thrill,

small defects result in louder murmur, larger can be absent or 1-2/6

EKG may see LVH because of increased workload

CXR - normal or CHF and L hypertrophy

111
Q

Describe the etiology of patent ductus arteriosus

A
112
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of patent ductus arteriosus

A
113
Q

Describe the murmur and diagnostic testing for patent ductus arteriosus

A
114
Q

Describe the treatment for patent ductus arteriosus

A
115
Q

Describe the etiology for coarctation of the aorta

A
116
Q

Describe the clinical presentation for coarctation of the aorta

A
117
Q

Describe the murmur and diagnostic testing for coarctation of the aorta

A
118
Q

Describe the treatment for coarctation of the aorta

A
119
Q

Describe the etiology of truncus arteriosus

A
120
Q

Describe the murmur and diagnostic testing for truncus arteriosus

A
121
Q

Describe the etiology of hypoplastic left heart syndrome

A
122
Q

Describe the etiology of tetralogy of fallot

A
123
Q

Describe the clinical presentation for tetralogy of fallot

A
124
Q

Describe the murmur and diagnostic testing for tetralogy of fallot

A
125
Q

Describe the etiology for total anomalous pulmonary venous return

A
126
Q

Describe the diagnostic testing for total anomalous pulmonary venous return

A

echo

127
Q

Describe the etiology for transposition of great vessels

A
128
Q

Describe the diagnostic testing for transposition of the great vessels

A
129
Q

Describe the treatment for transposition of the great vessels

A
130
Q

Describe the types of heart failure

A
131
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of heart failure

A
132
Q

Describe the physical exam of heart failure

A
133
Q

Describe the diagnostic testing for heart failure

A
134
Q

Describe which medications to avoid in heart failure

A
135
Q

Describe the treatment for acute decompensated heart failure

A
136
Q

Describe the etiology of cor pulmonale

A
137
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of cor pulmonale

A
138
Q

Describe the diagnostic testing for cor pulmonale

A
139
Q

Describe the treatment for cor pulmonale

A
140
Q

Describe the etiology of atrial fibrillation

A
141
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of the types of atrial fibrillation

A
142
Q

Describe the diagnostic testing for atrial fibrillation

A
143
Q

Describe the treatment for atrial fibrillation

A
144
Q

Describe the causes and RFs for atrial fibrillation

A
145
Q

Describe the etiology and risk factors for metabolic syndrome

A
146
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of metabolic syndrome

A
147
Q

Describe the treatment for dyslipidemia

A
148
Q

Describe the treatment for elevated LDL

A

cholesterol absorption inhibitor (ezetimibe 10mg QD)

149
Q

Describe the treatment for high triglycerides

A
150
Q

Describe the etiology & clinical presentation of stable angina

A

reversible ischemia

151
Q

Describe the diagnostic testing for stable angina

A
152
Q

Describe the treatment for stable angina

A
153
Q

Describe the etiology of unstable angina

A
154
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of unstable angina

A
155
Q

Describe the diagnostic testing for unstable angia

A
156
Q

describe the treatment for unstable angina

A
157
Q

Describe the etiology of PAD

A
158
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of PAD

A
159
Q

Describe the PE & diagnostic testing for PAD

A
160
Q

Describe the treatment for PAD

A
161
Q

Describe the etiology of critical limb ischemia

A

Can be a presentation of PAD pts

Significant ischemia that threatens the limb, insufficient arterial flow d/t thrombosis of atherosclerotic artery

162
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of critical limb ischemia

A

Pain, paresthesia, pallor, paralysis, pulselessness, poikilothermia (cold)

Rest pain, ischemic ulceration, gangrene

163
Q

Describe the treatment for critical limb ischemia

A

Catheter directed thrombolysis or surgical revascularization if limb is salvageable

Amputation if limb is not salvageable

164
Q

Describe the etiology of venous thromboembolism

A
165
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of VTE

A
166
Q

Describe the diagnostic testing for VTE

A
167
Q

Describe the treatment for VTE

A
168
Q

Describe the etiology of buerger’s disease

A
169
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of buerger’s disease

A
170
Q

Describe the treatment for buerger’s disease

A
171
Q

Describe the etiology of varicose veins

A
172
Q

Describe the treatment for varicose veins

A
173
Q

Describe the etiology of superficial thrombophlebitis

A
174
Q

Describe the etiology of chronic venous insufficiency

A
175
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of chronic venous insufficiency

A
176
Q

Describe the treatment for chronic venous insufficiency

A
177
Q

Describe the difference between venous & arterial insufficiency

A
178
Q

Describe the etiology of acute infectious pericarditis

A

Usually initially diagnosed as non-specific chest pain

Infectious
- viral: coxsackie, EBV, HCV, HIV, parvo B19, covid
- Bacterial: pneumo, meningo, gono, staph, strep, coxiella (major concern for TB)
- rare fungal & parasitic

179
Q

Describe the etiology of non-infectious pericarditis

A

Non-infectious
- pericardial injury syndromes (post-MI, trauma)
- systemic: SLE, RA, sjogren’s
- malignancy (MC lung, breast, lymphoma)
- metabolic: uremia, hypothyroidism
- traumatic: penetrating or radiation injury (chemo, cardiac meds, isoniazid, phenytoin, PCNs)

180
Q

Describe the clinical presentation & PE for acute pericarditis

A
181
Q

Describe the diagnostic testing for acute pericarditis

A

Chest pain workup

CXR: typically normal or evidence of effusion

CBC & Inflammatory markers: leukocytosis, elevated CRP, ESR

Troponin not elevated

Consider D-dimer

Echo: usually normal unless large effusion

EKG: classically diffuse ST elevation or PR segment depression (except in aVR & V1 - ST depression), may have no ST changes but have diffuse T wave inversion

182
Q

Describe the diagnostic criteria for acute pericarditis

A
183
Q

Describe the treatment for acute pericarditis

A
184
Q

Describe the etiology of constrictive pericarditis

A
185
Q

Describe the clinical presentation & diagnostic testing for constrictive pericarditis

A
186
Q

Describe the treatment for constrictive pericarditis

A
187
Q

Describe the etiology of pericardial effusion

A
188
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of pericardial effusion

A
189
Q

Describe the diagnostic testing for pericardial effusion

A
190
Q

Describe the treatment for pericardial effusion

A
191
Q

Describe the etiology for cardiac tamponade

A
192
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of cardiac tamponade

A
193
Q

Describe the diagnostic testing for cardiac tamponade

A
194
Q

Describe the treatment for cardiac tamponade

A
195
Q

Define pulsus paradoxus

A
196
Q

Describe the etiology of myocarditis

A
197
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of myocarditis

A
198
Q

Describe the diagnostic testing for myocarditis

A
199
Q

Describe the treatment for myocarditis

A
200
Q

Describe the etiology of infective endocarditis

A

Inflammation of endocardium (can lead to regurgitation)

Vegetations on valves/devices
- microorganisms, fibrin, platelets, inflammatory cells, granulomas

Non-infectious is rare (malignancy, hypercoagulable states - can cause embolic stroke)

Causes: rheumatic valvular disease (mitral MC), congenital, MVP, IVDU (tricuspid MC)

MC: staph aureus, epidermidis, viridans (rare oral flora HACEK)

201
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of infective endocarditis

A

Fever, chills in 90%, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia, constitutional sxs, highly variable

Acute: sudden onset within a week
Subacute: slower onset (4 weeks)

HF from valvular insufficiency, renal impairment, metastatic infection (osteomyelitis, organ abscess, septic arthritis), systemic embolization

202
Q

Describe the diagnostic testing/PE for infective endocarditis

A

Murmur: new or worsening, 85%, regurgitant

Splenomegaly, petechiae, splinter hemorrhages of fingernails, janeway lesions (painless, flat red macule son palms/soles, last longer than Osler), Osler nodes (tender, erythematous nodules on palms/soles/digits), Roth spots (pale retinal patch surrounded by darker ring of hemorrhage from inflammation of small arteries)

Blood cultures before abx (3 samples from different sites), echo will show vegetations (TEE better)

Duke Criteria (2 major, 1 major & 3 minor, or 5 minor)

203
Q

Describe the treatment for infective endocarditis

A

Inpatient, ABCs

IV abx (4-6 weeks)

Remove devices if indicated

+/- surgical debridement if refractory to abx, valve replacement

Repeat blood cultures until negative for 1-2 days in a row

IV fluid resuscitation, antipyretics, empiric anticoag NOT recommended dt risk of ICH

Prophylactic abx prior to dental procedures w/ hx of endocarditis

204
Q

Describe the etiology of dilated cardiomyopathy

A
205
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of dilated cardiomyopathy

A
206
Q

Describe the diagnostic testing & murmur for dilated cardiomyopathy

A
207
Q

Describe the treatment for dilated cardiomyopathy

A
208
Q

Describe the etiology of restrictive cardiomyopathy

A
209
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of restrictive cardiomyopathy

A
210
Q

Describe the diagnostic testing/heart sounds for restrictive cardiomyopathy

A
211
Q

Describe the treatment for restrictive cardiomyopathy

A
212
Q

Describe the etiology of amyloidosis

A
213
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of amyloidosis

A
214
Q

Describe the diagnostic testing for amyloidosis

A
215
Q

Describe the etiology of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

Diastolic failure

Heart muscle becomes bulky, large, and impairs adequate pumping leading to fatal arrhythmias

Historical indicators: low exercise tolerance, SOB with exertion, dizziness with exercise, fatigue, hx syncope with exercise

RF: genetic (autosomal dom)

Patho: physiologic response or inherited inability for cardiac muscle to contract properly, ventricular spaces shrink, SV/CO reduced - intermittent outflow obstruction can develop obstructing mitral valve

216
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A
217
Q

Describe the murmur & diagnostic testing for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

Auscultate sitting, lying, valsalva
- high pitched crescendo-decrescendo midsystolic ejection murmur at LLSB exacerbated with valsalva, S4

Echo: gold standard, shows septal thickness, LV wall thickness > 1.3

Confirmatory tests: genetic testing, cardiac biopsy will show myofibril disarray (not parallel)

218
Q

Describe the treatment for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A
219
Q

Identify the leads where Q waves/ST elevation will be seen for the following areas of infarction & associated arteries

A
220
Q

Identify the valvular dysfunctions/causes of the following systolic/diastolic murmurs

A
221
Q

Describe the etiology/RF for RBBB

A
222
Q

Describe the clinical presentation for RBBB

A
223
Q

Describe the EKG for a RBBB

A
224
Q

Describe the etiology/RF for a LBBB

A
225
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of a LBBB

A
226
Q

Describe the EKG for a LBBB

A
227
Q

Describe the treatment for a RBBB & LBBB

A

treat underlying condition, pace if symptomatic

228
Q

Describe the etiology for a left anterior fascicular block

A
229
Q

Describe the EKG for a left anterior fascicular block

A
230
Q

Describe the etiology of a left posterior fascicular block

A
231
Q

Describe the EKG for a left posterior fascicular block

A
232
Q

Describe the etiology of sick sinus syndrome

A
233
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of sick sinus syndrome

A
234
Q

Describe the EKG findings in sick sinus syndrome

A
235
Q

Describe the treatment for sick sinus syndrome

A

treat underlying condition or pace

236
Q

Describe the etiology of cardiogenic shock

A
237
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of cardiogenic shock

A
238
Q

Describe the diagnostic testing for cardiogenic shock

A
239
Q

Describe the treatment for cardiogenic shock

A
240
Q

Describe the most common cause of cardiogenic shock

A
241
Q

Describe some of the mechanical circulatory supports for cardiogenic shock treatment

A
  • intra-aortic balloon pump
  • impella device
  • VA-ECMO (veno-arterial extracorporeal membranous oxygenation)
  • LVAD (left ventricular assist device - HeartMate3)
242
Q

Describe how an intra-aortic balloon pump works for cardiogenic shock

A
  • short term support following MI
  • balloon inserted via femoral artery & synced to EKG
  • inflates during diastole to back-fill the coronary arteries
  • deflates during systole to suction blood forward
243
Q

Describe how an impella device works in cardiogenic shock

A
  • percutaneous ventricular assist device
  • increases blood flow in line with aortic circulation via femoral artery into left ventricle
  • encourages continuous forward flow (like a jetski motor)
  • risk of hemolytic anemia
244
Q

Describe how VA-ECMO treats cardiogenic shock

A
  • temporary cardiopulmonary bypass via femoral vein & artery
  • deoxygenated blood is pulled from the right atrium, passes through gas exchange membrane, and is injected into iliac artery
  • allows adequate tissue perfusion while greatly reducing cardiac preload/afterload
245
Q

Describe how an LVAD treats cardiogenic shock

A
  • surgically inserted impellor
  • blood pulled froom apex of LV, spun through impellor, injected into aortic root
  • continuous flow support
  • numerous complications (infection, suction events, thrombus, hemolytic anemia, battery failure)

Cardiology (15 decks)

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