Cardio 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the difference between fast and slow AF

A

Fast AF = >100bpm

Slow AF = <60bpm

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2
Q

first line mx angina

A

aspirin + atorvastatin

beta blocker /non DHP CCB + GTN

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3
Q

what are non-DHP CCB

A

THE WEIRD NAMED ONES

e.g. diltaziem, verapamil

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4
Q

what is second line mx angina

A

beta blocker + DHP CCB + GTN

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5
Q

what are DHP CCB

A

the usual named ones

e.g. nifedipine

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6
Q

what typeof CCB must you never give with BB and why

A

never give NON DHP CCB with BETA BLOCK

because they can cause complete heart block

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7
Q

causes of secondary HTN

A

Renal - RAS, PKD, CKD, chronic glomerulonephritis
Endocrine - hyperthyroid, cushings, conn’s, phaeo, CAH
CV - aortic coarctation

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8
Q

when do you treat HTN

A

if >140/90 and UNDER 80yo and with end organ damage, CVD, renal disease, diabetes, Qrisk >10%

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9
Q

what is the target BP for <80yo with HTN

A

Target for <80yo: <140/90n

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10
Q

what is the target BP for >80yo with HTN

A

Target for over 80yo: <150/90

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11
Q

how do you manage resistant HTN (after ACEi/ARB + CCB+ TLD)

A

if K+<4.5: spironolactone

if K+>4.5: alpha/betablocker

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12
Q

what patients must you give ATORVASTATIN 80mg in

A

FOR SECONDARY PREVENTION

so if known IHD, CVD, PAD (not if just high Qrisk)

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13
Q

how is a pericardial rub audible

A

on left lower sternal edge, with patient leaning forward on inspiration

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14
Q

what do you need to monitor with unfractionated hepain

A

APTT

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15
Q

what does QRISK measure

A

your 10 year risk of developing cardiovasc disease

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16
Q

what should you be given if Qrisk <10%

A

lifestyle modification

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17
Q

what should you be given if Qrisk >10%

A

high dose statin (20mg atorvastatin)

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18
Q

causes of cardiac tampoinade

A

vascular: MI, rupture, aortic dissection
infection: pericarditis
trauma: includes iatrogenic
cancer…
cause a pericardial effusion

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19
Q

when is it appropriate to do a PCI after the reccomended time priod of 12h from sx onset?

A

when patients have persistent ischaemia following fibrinolysis (e.g. at a nonPCI centre)

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20
Q

which angina med do patients commonly develop resistance to

A

standard-release isosorbide mononitrate (not modified release)

21
Q

investigations for suspected rheumatic fever

A
Throat swab)
Bloods (FBC, ESR, ASOT anti streptolysin O titre )
Blood cultures 
ECG
CXR 
Echo
22
Q

what will Echo show in rheymatic fever

A

valve leaflet and chordal thickerning

mitral valve dilatation and collapse

23
Q

what is the time pattern of rheumatic feber

A

rheumatic fever is RECURRENT > causes progressive cardiac damage

24
Q

how long should patients with rheum fever keep taking antibioitics for as secondary prevention?

A

10 years or until age 40

lifetime prophylaxis may be needed if severe heart damage

25
what occurs in ECG in acute rhem fever
prolonged PR | Heart block
26
what is the timescale of the two disease patterns in Rheumatic fever
ACUTE >> immune response to strep pyogenes, 2-6 weeks from initial pharyngeal infection CHRONIC >> recurrent through life
27
ix for pericarditis
ECG: widespreast PR depression and saddle shgaped ST elevation Echo (TTE): to exclude pericardial effusion Troponin: to check for PRIOR MISSED MI viral serology (later, non-urgent) if suspecting viral cause
28
why is it important to do a troponin for pericarditis
because a prior silent MI may have caused it
29
what is the most common complication of pericardityis you must be weary of ?
PERICARDIAL EFFUSION > TAMPONADE so get a CXR > it will show cardiomeg with normla pulm vassc
30
what causes WPW
presence of an accessory pathway conducting between atria and ventricles abnormally > premature ventricular contractions
31
ecg features of WPW
short PR interval wide QRS complexes with a slurred upstroke - 'delta wave' left axis deviation if right-sided accessory pathway* right axis deviation if left-sided accessory pathway*
32
what sets off WPW arrythmia?
``` HOCM mitral valve prolapse Ebstein's anomaly thyrotoxicosis secundum ASD ```
33
mx of WPW
ablation of accessory pathway OR amiodarone / fleicanide
34
findings on ECG for pericarditis
Saddle shaped ST elevation | PR dePRession
35
absolute contraindications to thrombolysis
``` active internal bleeding recent haemorrhage, trauma or surgery (including dental extraction) coagulation and bleeding disorders intracranial neoplasm stroke < 3 months aortic dissection recent head injury severe hypertension ```
36
what is first line is CHADS VASC high?
DOAC e.g. apixaban, rivaroxaban, dabigatran
37
what must you give if witnessed cardiac arrest while on monitor
3 SHOCKS (instead of just 1)
38
what kind of erythema do you get with rheumatic fever
erythema MARGINATUM
39
what must you synchronise DC cardioversion to?
synchronise to R wave
40
when do you NOT need to synchronise DC cardioversion
in defibrillation (VF, VT)
41
what drug reverses dabigatran effect
Idarucizumab
42
posterior MI on ECG
tall R waves in V1, V2
43
ECG change with HYPERCALCAEMIA
short QT
44
what must you not forget to give in AF if you can cardiovert <48 hours
GIVE RAPID ANTICOAG e.g.
45
causes of orthostatic hypotension (drop of BP >20/10 on standing)
- hypovolaemia - autonomic dysfunction: diabetes, Parkinson's - drugs: diuretics, antihypertensives, L-dopa, phenothiazines, antidepressants, sedatives - alcohol
46
which cardiac drug must be avoided in VT
VERAPAMIL -- because it will inhibit heart contraction furter
47
electrolyte changes causing long QT
hypocalcaemia, hypokalaemia, hypomagnesaemia\
48
what is the second investigation type you must do in someone found to have a RAISED BP in clinic?
AMBULATORY BP MONITORING (this will confirm whether they actually have HTN - no need to call them back into clinic!)