Cardio Flashcards

1
Q

What is Heart Failurw

A

Inability of CO to meet body’s metabolic demands despite maintained venous pressures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How do you classify HF

A
LOW OUTPUT (low EF: EF<40)
or 
HIGH OUTPUT (normal EF)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are causes of low output HF

A

LHF:

  • HTN
  • IHD
  • cardiomyopathy
  • valve disease / regurg

RHF:

  • secondary to LHF (congestive cardiac failure)
  • IHD, cardimyopathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are symptoms of chronic LHF

A

dyspnoea
orthopnoea
PND
fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are sx of acute LHF

A

dyspnoea
wheeze
cough
pink frothy sputum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are sx of RHF

A

swollen ankles
increased weight
fatigue
anorexia, nausea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are signs of LHF

A

bibasal crackles, S3 gallop

if acute: cyanosis, pulsus alternans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are signs of RHF

A

raised JVP
hepatomegaly
ascites
pitting oedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How can yoou classify LHF?

A

New York Heart Association Classificationo
1- no limit on activity
2- comfortable at rest, dyspnoea on ordinary activity
3- dyspnoea on less than ordiinary activity
4- dyspnoea at rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What ix for acute HF?

A
Bloods: FBC U&EE LFT CRP Gluc LIpids TFT
ABG, trop, BNP 
CXR 
ECG
Echo (assess ventricular dysfunction)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How d you manage HF if haemodynamically stable?

A

BASHeD heart

  1. BB (if low EF, OR loop diuretiic if preserved EF) + ACEi
  2. BB + ACEi + aldosterone antagonist
  3. Specialist
    • Hydralazine + nitrate
    • DIgoxin
      • Ivabradinie
      • sacubitri-valsartan
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is AF?

A

irregularly irregular pulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are sx of AF

A
dyspnoea 
chest pain 
fatigue 
dizziness 
syncope
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are AF findings on ECG

A

irreg irreg
absent P wave

– atrial flutter = sawtooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How can you split causes of AF, and what are they

A

CARDIAC

  • IHD
  • rheumatic heart disease
  • cardiomyopathy
  • sick sinus
  • pericarditis

SYSTEMIC

  • hyperthyroid
  • infection
  • alcohol

RESP

  • PE
  • bronchial cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the first key split in AF management pathway, and what are conditions for each

A

RHYTHM vs RATE control

RHYTHM CONTROL if:

  • AF is reversible
  • coexistent HF (caused by AF)
  • new onset AF

RATE CONTROL if:
permanent AF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How do you RHYTHM control someone?

A

<48h: DC cardiovert (3 synchronous shocks) > pharm cardiovert (fleicanide or amiodarone)

> 48h from onset of AF: anticoag for 4 weeeks before cardioverting

THEN LONG TERM BETA BLOCKER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How do you rate control someone

A

Beta blocker or CCB
Second line: digoxin
Third line: amiodarone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When do you give fleicanide or amiodarone for DC cardioversion

A

Fleicanide: young, no structural heart disease
Amiodarone: old, structural heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What else must you do in someone with AF

A

CHADS VASC SCORE vs HAS-BLED risk

to determine stroke risk compared to risk of bleeding
if low: aspitrin
if high: warfarin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are symptoms of infectious endocarditis

A
  • Fever with sweats/chills/rigors
  • Malaise, fatigue
  • Weight loss
  • Arthralgia
  • Myalgia
  • Confusion
  • Skin lesions
  • Ask about recent dental surgery or IV drug use
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are signs of infectious endocarditis

A

FROM MS JANE

Fever
Roth spots on retina
Osler’s nodes (tender nodules on finger/toe pads)
Murmur (new, regurgitant)

Microscopic haematuria (due to damage to kidneys) 
Splenomegaly (due to emboli damage to spleen ) 

Janeway lesions (painless macules on the palms which blanch on pressure)
Anaemia
Nail clubbind and haemorrhage (splinter)
Emboli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What ix do you do for IE

A
•	Bloods
o	FBC - high neutrophils, normocytic anaemia
o	High ESR/CRP 
o	U&Es
o	 rheumatoid factor positive

• Urinalysis
o Microscopic haematuria
o Proteinuria

  • Blood Culture - with microscopy and sensitivities as well
  • Echocardiography - Transthoracic or transoesophageal (produces better image)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What classifications do you use for IE

A

DUKES classification - 2 majors OR 1 major + 3 minor OR 5 minors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What mx do you give for IE
Abx 6 weeks (initially IV > PICC line) | start broad spec (amox + gent), then guided by culture results
26
What is pericarditis
inflammation of pericardium
27
What are causes of pericarditis
``` Vascular: post-MI, Dressler Infection - viral (cocksackie, HIV), TB, mumps Trauma AI (, SLE,) Metabolic (Uraemia) Inflamm (sarcoid, scleroderma) ```
28
What are sx of periicarditis | -- explain the type of pain
Pleuritic chest pain (sharp, central., radiatimg to shoulders, relieved by sitting forward) Non productive cough Dyspnoea Flu like sx
29
What is audible on ascultation in pericarditis
pericardial RUB
30
What is finding on ECG in periicarditis
widespread saddle shaped ST elevation
31
MANAGEMET OF periciarditis
NSAID + colcichine
32
How do you assess for cardiac arrest?
Shout for help. Does this patient have a DNACPR? Call 2222 A- Head tilt chin life, ask someone to hold jaw thrust B- Look, listen and feel for signs of life, Breathing, chest movement C- check central pulse
33
what are shockable rhythms
VF, pulseless VT
34
What are non-shockable rhythms
pulseless electrical activity, asystole
35
What do you do once you have ascertained no breathing and no central pulse
COMMENCE CPR 30 chest compressions : 2 rescue breaths via bag valve mask Call 2222 for cardiac arrest Continue CPR until crash team arrive with resus trolley
36
What do you do once crash team arrive
Place defib pads on chest, look at rhythm
37
What do you do for shockable rhythm
Stand clear - Defib max 1x (150J) Reassess - if no change, Continue CPR for 2 minutes repeat shock You can repeat this cycle (CPR-shock) max 3 times then continue CPR + give adrenaline 1mg IV + amiodarone 300mg IV Restart CPR 2mins > rhythm check > shock -- with adrenaline after alternate shock
38
What do you do for PEA/Asystole
continue CPR Give 1mg Adrenaline IV Secure airway with LMA /igel -- otherwise hold jaw thrust CPR for 2 mins > reassess > give adrenaline at alternate reassesses
39
What do you do if patient has spontaneous return of circulation
Send to ITU Document Debrief Datix
40
what symptoms do you get with stable angina
chest pain on exertion relieved by rest
41
what is the pathophysiology of stable angina
mismatch in oxygen supply and demand to myocardium | due to constricted coronary
42
what is the first line ix for stable angina
CT coronary angiography CTCA (but check renal function first as it requires contrast) using this look at CALCIUM SCORE
43
what is management for stable angina
CONSERVATIVE: lifestyle changes MEDICAL: 1. BB/CCB + GTN spray - ---- use nonDHP CCB e.g. verapamil / diltaziem 2. BB + CCB + GTN spray - ---- use DHP CCB with BB (otherwise total HB!!!) eg nifedipine 3. AAA (Aspirin, ACEi, Atorvastatin)
44
what is definition of HTN
SBP > 140 and / or DBP >90 on three separate occasions
45
How can you divide causes of HTN
``` Primary (essential/idiopathic) Secondary - renal (RAS, PKD, CKD) - endocriine (hyperthyroid, cushing's, Conn's, phaeo) - cardiovascular (aortic coarct) ```
46
what is aortic coarctation
congenital narrowing of the aorta
47
where does aortic coarctation usually occur, and how does this result in different signs?
- usually AFTER left subclavian artery > radiofemoral delay | - rarely BEFORE left subclavian > radioradial delay
48
what are complications of aortic coarctation
upper extremity HTN LV hypertrophy malperfusion of abdomen and LL
49
how do you diagnose and tx aortic coarct
echo CT / MR angio Tx: angioplasty or surgery
50
when do you need to admit someone with hypertension?
when BP >180/110 will usually present with signs of deterioration e.g. retinal haemorrghage, papilloedema, confusion, AKI, chest pain etc
51
what do we define as severe HTN
BP > 180/110
52
what medication do you need to give first line for HTN
if <55 and not afrocarribean: ACEi or ARB | if >55 or afrocarrib: CCB
53
what med do you give second line for HTN
add the one you weree not giving before or thiazide-like diuretic SO: if <55 and not afrocarribean: (ACEi or ARB) + (CCB or thiazide-like diuretic) if >55 or afrocarrib: CCB + (ACEi or ARB or TLD)
54
what med do you give third line for HTN
ACEi or ARM + CCB + TLD
55
what med do you give first line for HTN if pt had T2DM, regardless of demographiocs
ACEi or ARB if black, give ARB only
56
what investigations do you do for HTN
exclude secondary causes | ambulatory BP monitoring > if declined / white coat syndrome, monitor at home
57
What is the cause of rheymatic fever
group A beta haemolytic strep e.g. S Pyogenes >> SCARLET FEVER antibodies cross react with myosin, muscle glycogen and VSMC can cause long term damage
58
What are signs and symptoms of ACUTE rheumatic fever + typical pt
in children 5-15yo pharyungeal infection > latent interval of 2-6 weeks then: polyarthritis (tender joints, swelling), pericarditis (endocarditis, myocarditis, pericarditis), later (up to 6 months later) sydenam's chorea
59
What is sydenham's chorea
St vitus dance - involuntary movements
60
what criteria do you use for rheymatic fever dx
JONES CRITERIA
61
Explain Jones criteria
1. Evidence of Group A infection + throat culture + / rapid strep antigen + 2a. 2 majors 2b. 1 major + 2 minors
62
what are major criteria for Jones Cit
CASES ``` Carditis Arthiris Subcut nodules Erythema marginatum Sydenams chorea ```
63
What are minor crit for Jones
``` FRAPP Fever Raised ESR or CRO Arthralgia Prolonged PR Previous RF ```
64
How o you manage Rh F
Acutely (attack lasts 3 months) - bed rest - analgesia (NSAID, aspirin) - phenoxymethylpen QDS 10/7
65
what is Rh F prophylaxis
Once monthly IM benzathine pen OR BD PO 250mg phenoxymethylpen
66
What is a AAA
localised enlargement of the abdominal aorta | - diameter > 3cm or >50% normal
67
WHat are RF for AAA
- male - FH - smoking, HTN, hypercholesteraemia - connective tissue disease
68
What are symptoms for unruptured AAA
unruptured: asymptomatic
69
What are signs for unruptured AAA
pulsatile lateral expansile mass | abdominal bruits
70
what are sx of ruptured AAAA
pain in abdo/ back, sudden and severe syncope shock
71
what additional sign may be visible on the abdomen in ruptured triole A
Grey turner (retroperitoneal bleeding9
72
what investigation must you get in suspected AAA q
BLloods: FBC, clotting, LFT, UE, X match Imaging: USS (if unruptured), CTA with contrast if ruptured
73
How do you manage a ruptured AAA
volume resus, anaglesia, VTE prophylaxis EVAR (endovascular aneurysm repair)
74
what is the genetic inheritance of HOCM
Autosomal DOMINANT | 1 in 500
75
How does HOCM happen?
defect in gene for contractile protein > diastolic dysfunction> LV hypertrophy > decreased compliance > decreased CO
76
What shows up on HOCM bippsu
myofibrillar hypertrophy with chaotic and disorganised fashion myocytes
77
signs and sx of hocum
often asymptomatic suden deathh in family exertional: dyspnoea, angina, syncope examiination: jerky carotid pulse, large A waves, double apex beat
78
what two ix must you get for HOCM
Echo | ECG
79
What are HOCM findings on Echo
MR SAM ASH Mitral regurg Systolic anterior motion of anterior miitral valve leaflet SAM Asymmetric hypertrophy ASH
80
Management of HOCM
``` ABCDE Amiodaroe beta blocker / verapamil for sx cardioverter defib dual chamber pacemaker endocarditis prophylaxis ```
81
what is cor pulmonale
pulmonary heart disease | presenting as RV HYPERTROPHY and RV DILATION
82
why does cor pulmonale occur?
due to: | - pumonary HTN (either primary or COPD, interstitial lung disease)
83
what are signs of cor pulmonale
due to backup of blood into systemic venous system: - ascites - jaundice - hepatomeg - raised JVP due to difficulty in allowing blood to reach lungs: - SOB - wheeze
84
how do calcium channel blockers work
reduce calcium uptake into cell > vascular smooth muscle relaxaton> decreases systemic vascular resistance > lowers HTN
85
give an example of a CCB
Amlodipine
86
give an example of an ARB
losartan | candesartan
87
give an example of an ACEi
ramipril | enalapril
88
what are DVLA rules for driving after MI
Stop driving for: - 1 week if angioplasty was successful, no further procedures - 4 weeks if angioplasty was unsuccessful, if they had an MI with no angioplasty, CABG surgery
89
How do you identify orthostatic hypotension
3-2-1 drop: 3 minutes of standing, then a drop of 20/10 in BP
90
what can cause long QT syndrome
Congenital Drugs Endocrine (hypocalcaemia, hypokalaemia, hypomagnaesaemia) Vascular (MI, myocarditis
91
what congenital conditions can cause long QT
jervell-Lange Nielsen syndrome (deafness) | Romano-Ward syndrome (no deafness)
92
What drugs can cause Long QT
METH CATS ``` Methadone Erythromycin Terfenadine Haloperidol Clarythromycin Amiodarone TCA SSRI ```
93
what is the danger of long QT
leads to VT > death
94
What is torsade de pointes and how do you manage it
a type of VT Manage with IV magnesium sulphate
95
what type of drug should you start in HF if EF is <30%
SGLT2 inhibitor
96
what is cardiac tamponade
Buildup of fluid in pericardial sac > compression of heart
97
What are causes of cardiac tamponade
``` vascular (MI, rupture, aortic dissection) infection trauma (incl cardiac surgery) Malignancy Inflamm (pericarditisi) ```
98
what is Becks triad
Triad that identifies cardiac tamponade (cardiac tamponade generally occurs with pericarditis) - low BP - high JVP - muffled heart sounds
99
what is special feature of Cardiac Tamponade?
PULSUS PARADOXUS (BP drops by 10mmHg with every inspiration)
100
how do you manage cardiac tamponade
pericardiocentesis
101
which beta blocker offers prognostic benefit in heart fsailure
CARVEDILOL
102
what condition does JVP have an absent A wave=
AF
103
whayt condition has a heaving apical pulse
aortic stenosis
104
what murmur has a WATERHAMMER PULSE
Aortic regurg (also called Corrigan's opulse)
105
What murmur has a TAPPING APEX BEAT?
Mitral stenosis (sound is made as the valve shuts - because it is so stiff)
106
what are pacemakers for?
PACING OUT THE HEART - SA node pathology - AF - HF
107
What are Implantable Cardioverter Defibrillators for
Shocking the heart into feasible rhythm | used for tachyarrhythmias
108
What causes CANNON A WAVES?
Complete heart bloc (due to synchronous contractions of atria and ventricles)
109
what is pulmonary HTN
RAISED pulmonary artery pressure so an umbrella term for conditions which cause increased pressure in the pulmonary artery
110
causes of pulmonary HTN - categories
- Pulmonary artery obstruction (PE, or rarely an intravascular tumour) - lung disease (COPD, interstitial lung disease> cause backflow) - Left heart disease (LVD, valve disease, cardiomyopathy) - Pulmonary arterial HTN in absence of other causes (iaatrogemic, RF connective tissue diseases)
111
What bacterium causes ACUTE IE, and who is this common in ?
S aureus -- IVDU
112
what valve does S aureus affect and why
tricuspid valve - as is the first reached from systemic circulation
113
What bacterium causes chronic IE, and from where does it come
Strep viridans from brushing your teeth
114
what valve does S viridans affect and why
Mitral valve - because it is a much weaker and less quantity of bacterium, so it only affects already damaged valve !!
115
what is the chadsVASC score component
``` CHF HTN Age >= 75 Diabetes Stroke Age >=65 Sex Category (female) ``` Age and Stroke are worth 2 points
116
how do you treat pericarditis / dressler's post MI?
NSAIDs
117
what is dresslers and how does it occur
post MI -- 6 weeks because myocardium has been damaged > you have made autoantibodies to it
118
what condition for a long time after an MI causes prolonged ST elevation?
left ventricular aneurysm
119
what is QRISK used for
Scoring system | for 10 year risk of developing cardiovasc disease
120
What are the parameters of QRisk for which different treeatments are employed?
QRISK >10% = high risk of CVD = high dose statin | QRISK <10% = lifestyle modification
121
when do you need to treat HTN
>140/90 if >80 + end organ damage, CVD, CKD, diabetes, QRisk >10 in everyone else treat if >160/100
122
give an example of a thiazide like diuretic
indapamide
123
what are major and minor criteria for Duke's (IE)
Major: BE Bacteraemia, Echo findings Minor: FEVEER Feever Echo findings other Vascular phenomena (emboli, splinter haemorrhages, janeway lesions) Evidence of immune involvcement (Osler nodes, Roth spots, RF) Evidence of microbio envolvement (+ve culture) RF: IVDU, heart condition