Cardiac Flashcards

1
Q

RCRI

A

History of ischaemic heart disease 1
History of congestive heart failure 1
History of cerebrovascular disease 1
Use of insulin therapy for
diabetes 1
Preoperative serum creatinine >177 micromoles/L 1
High-risk surgery 1

Oxford
Risk for major CARDIAC complications
0 0.4%
1 1%
2 7%
3 11%

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2
Q

Who needs periop 12-lead ECG?

A
  1. pt > 65 yo
  2. intermediate risk surgery
  3. risk factors of IHD

Oxford

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3
Q

What are the 5 types of MI? %?

A
  1. acute atherothrombotic coronary event (25%)
  2. heterogeneous - imbalance of O2 supply and demand (75%)
  3. SCD unexpected
  4. ~ PCI
  5. ~ cardiac death

Oxford

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4
Q

Pharm therapy to reduce MACE risk

A
  1. Continue long term beta blocker (dec myocardial O2 demand)
  2. No - initial of bb 24h prior surgery
  3. Continue PRN nitrate
  4. Continue CCB - restart ASAP post op
  5. ACE/ARB - do not protect against MACE (But improve MI and LV dysfx survival)
  6. Statin - improve ST and LT outcome post non-cardiac and CABG (ESA/CCS)

Oxford

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5
Q

AMI

A
  1. myocardial cell death
  2. due to prolonged ischaemia

clinical evidence + cTNT
1+ ischaemic feature
(1. sx 2. new ECG changes 3. new RWMA 4. new cor thrombus)

cTNT
- rise 3-4h post injury
- up for 10-14d
- need 1 level >99th percentile required for dx

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6
Q

MINS
- definition
- incidence
- dx
- surveillance
- med mx

A
  1. Px relevant
  2. Myocardial injury
  3. Due to ischaemia
  4. 30d after non-cardiac sx
  5. pt w or w/o MI
  • 20% of patients having non-cardiac surgery
  • > 90% MINS - no signs/sx of ischaemia
  • 20% meet MI definition

dx
1. cTNT >65ng/L
2. <30d non-cardiac Sx
3. Not due to non-ischaemic cause (e.g. AF, sepsis)
4. Not nec - sx/ECG changes

daily TnT levels on D1,2,3

  • LD aspirin + statin
  • ACE-i if HTN
  • Anticoag (maybe) (MANAGE trial)
  • ?cor angio and revasc
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7
Q

HF criteria

A

by 1. sx 2. LVEF 3. BNP/NT-proBNP 4. left heart enlargement/diastolic dysfx

<40% HFrEF
40-49% HFmrEF
50%+ HFpEF

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8
Q

HF mx

A
  1. delay sx progression
  2. optimise sx mx/FRC
  3. reduce mortality
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9
Q

HF treatment

2023b Outline the treatment strategies for chronic heart failure. pr75%

A

*best evidence for HFrEF

  1. Sacubitril/ABR OR ACEi / ARB
  2. b-blocker (caution with new/decom HF)
  3. MRA -
  4. Digoxin
    a) AF in sx HF
    b) SR in sev HF
  5. Anticoag - HF/VTE
  • No CCB

HFpEF *no reduction in morb/mort

  • Diuretics
  • Spiro
  • bb and ACEi

Oxf Anaes

ACC/AHA
Stages
A - treat HTN
B - ACEi/ARB +/- BB
C/D - ACEi/ARB + BB + Diuretics +/- Dig +/- hydralazine/nitrate

CRT (25% pt with mod-sev HF HAS LBBB)

pacing LV and RV

  • DCM EF <35%
  • QRS > 120ms
  • poor fx status despite max med rx

Oxf AT P.39

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10
Q

2023b Evaluate the use of each of the following for preoperative cardiac risk stratification: plasma biomarkers (chose ONE of natriuretic peptides OR troponin)

Duke Activity Status Index (DASI) stair-climbing test,

cardiopulmonary exercise testing (CPX/CPET).

pr65%

A
  1. Plasma biomarker
    BNP
    Pros
  2. High NPV for periop cardiac events
  3. Predictor of death/non-fatal MI at 30/180 days

Cons
1. Optimal threshold not established
2. Cost

e14 aha/acc 2024

  1. DASI
    MET 1 = VO2 3.5mL/kg/min
    METS 4 = 14mL/kg/min

Pros:
a) simple
b)
Cons:
a) bias

  1. CPEX
    vital, non-invasive assessment technique used to evaluate the cardiopulmonary system during rest and exercise

measure functional capacity, which is crucial for predicting postoperative outcomes, particularly for patients undergoing major surgery.

Pros:
1) non-invasive
2) functional capacity
3) risk strat
4)

cons
1) complex
2) pt limitation
3) resource intensive

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11
Q

2021a Standard 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) of a 56-year-old man in the post-anaesthesia care unit (PACU) two hours after an emergency laparotomy for bowel obstruction (ischemic changes). He is complaining of shortness of breath, abdominal pain and has a blood pressure of 160/110mmHg.

He has a history of hypertension controlled with atenolol and hydrochlorothiazide.

No preop to compare to.

Interpret this ECG and outline the appropriate management of this patient in PACU.

Pass rate 66.8%

A
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12
Q

2022b A patient presenting for surgery has a DDDR pacemaker. a) Explain the NASPE/BPEG Generic (NBG) pacemaker classification system. b) Describe the assessment and preoperative management of this DDDR device. *NASPE/BPEG - North American Society of Pacing and Electrophysiology/British Pacing and Electrophysiology Group. Pass rate 73.3%

A
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13
Q

2021a A patient presents on the day of surgery with a blood pressure of 180/110mmHg. Justify your decision to proceed with or postpone surgery for this patient.

Pass rate 25.5% (go ahead with the surgery!)

A

> 140/90

Expert opinion: Postponement of elective surgery in patients with arterial pressure exceeding 180mmHg systolic and/or 110mmHg diastolic.

BUT
Periop control more important
- HTN pt inc CVS lability
- post op hypo/hyper inc risk of MINS/CVE
- low threshold of IAL - aim within 20% baseline
- should be controlled prior to major surgery

*Surgical factors

Pt factors
* 2* causes of HTN
- anxiety/pain/distress

  • Preop reading - unlikely accurate representation of long-term BP control
  • Do not defer based on single reading on admission –> ambulatory or GP for baseline
  • W/H ACEi/ARB 24h prior if controlled
  • Continue bb / CCB / HCTZ

Oxf Anaes P.116

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14
Q

2021a

A 77-year-old patient is admitted to hospital with a fractured neck of femur requiring total hip arthroplasty. Physical examination on admission reveals signs of congestive cardiac failure.

Outline how congestive cardiac failure influences the perioperative risk for this patient. (30%)

Discuss how the finding of congestive cardiac failure influences your perioperative management of this patient. (70%)

Pass rate 84.2%

A

congestive cardiac failure is an independent risk factor for mortality

  • NHYA Class 4 is associated with ~ 67% peri-operative mortality in non-cardiac surgery

assessment of the severity and the cause of the congestive cardiac failure

timing of surgery must be balanced against optimisation of the patient
- Urgent surgery (e.g. hip #) warrants a pre-operative risk assessment (e.g. with RCRI) if the Hx/Ex suggest potential undx severe obstructive intracardiac abnormality, severe pHTN, or unstable CV condition (e.g. unstable angina, acute stroke)
Best practice is to perform hip # ORIF within 48 (ideally < 24h)

CCS

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15
Q

[20B01]

You are asked to assess and anaesthetise a 54-year-old patient for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. They received a heart transplant ten years ago. Discuss the issues relevant for this patient. (also15B02)

A

The denervated heart and the altered response to anaesthesia and certain drugs required discussion, as did immune suppression and Ax of the pt’s current functional status.

Sometimes omitted from answers, but of significant importance, was the issue of the pneumoperitoneum required for this procedure and how that may compromise this patient.

**25% will have surgery w/I 2 years of transplant **

  1. Changes in physiology post-transplant:
  2. Denervation ® no sensory, SNS or PNS innervation, delayed sympathetic response to circulating catecholamines
  3. Higher resting HR ® 90-110bpm 2’ vagal denervation
  4. Preload dependent cardiac output ® no SNS mediated BRR
  5. ECG ® 2 p waves, AF/AFL and RBBB common
  6. Dysrhythmias & conduction abnormalities ® PPM in 5%
  7. Silent ischaemia ® most common cause of death beyond 1st year (50% have atheroma on angiography by 5 years)
  8. Changes in pharmacologic effect of cardiac drugs:
  9. Immunosuppression
    - HTN/nephrotox/BM supp/hepatotx
  10. Comorbidity
  11. Steroids - req stress dose
  12. Allograft fx

IMMUNOSUPPRESSION
1) calcineurin inh - cyclo/tacro
2) purine syn inh - azathioprine/MMF
3) T-cell dependent

CTAM

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16
Q

PERIOP MED (CVS) – Systolic murmur

[13A11] A 25-year-old male scheduled for elective surgery is found to have a systolic murmur on the day of surgery
a) What are the clinical features and ECG findings in this pt that would prompt you to postpone the case to allow further investigation? (70%)
b) What are the likely causes of this murmur? (30%)

A

AS/MR/TR/PS

  1. Timing
    - Mid
    - Pan
  2. Nature
    - Low pitch
    - High pitch
  3. Radiation
    - Carotid - AS
    - Ax- MR
  4. Maneouvers
    - Valsalva
    - Squatting
    - Hand grip
  5. Symptoms
    - Dyspnoea
    - Ex limit
    - chest pain
  6. ECG
    - LVH
    - Arrhythmia

Cause of systolic murmur:
1. Pan-systloic
- MR
- TR
2. Mid-systolic
* AS/PR/GCM
OK flow murmur

17
Q

[20A10] Outline your perioperative management of a patient with mitral stenosis scheduled for a laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair.

A

Aetiology

Classify
MG
MVA

18
Q

PERIOP MED (CVS) – Peri-operative anticoagulation for AF

[21A14] Discuss the options for anticoagulation MNG in the perioperative period for a patient taking warfarin for AF who requires a laparotomy for ischaemic bowel. (also 14A04)

A

Pre/Intra/post
bleeding vs embolus
Warfarin reversal
re-establishing anticoag

AF –> TIA/CVA
CHAD2S2-Vasc

19
Q

PERIOP MED (CVS) – Peri-operative anticoagulation for PE (& transplant surgery)

[19B11] A patient on an organ transplantation waiting list is taking rivaroxaban for recurrent pulmonary emboli. Discuss your perioperative anticoagulation plan. (? For the organ transplant vs. ? for another operation).

A
20
Q

PERIOP MED (CVS) – Aortic stenosis

[12B04] a) What is the natural history of aortic stenosis? (30%)
b) What are the key echocardiographic features in haemodynamically significant aortic stenosis? (70%)

A

Natural Hx -
Causes
- Calcific
- Congen

21
Q

[10B07] (a) Describe the common classification code for permanent pacemakers. (30%)
(b) Outline the principles involved in the perioperative management of patients with a permanent pacemaker. (70%)

A

PSA (PSR) PM
1. position
2. sense
3. action (response)

  1. programmability
  2. Multisite pacing

Magnet = asynch pacing mode
A/V/D OO

22
Q

PERIOP MED (CVS) – Antiplatelets in IHD

[16B13] A 70-year-old man scheduled for major surgery presents to PAC. He has a history of ischaemic heart disease and coronary stent insertion and is on aspirin and clopidogrel. Outline the considerations when managing his antiplatelet therapy. (also 12B02, 04B05)

A

(67.8%) The borderline candidate should demonstrate an understanding that the key to this question is the assessment of risk, not management. Issues are (1) why manage? (2) what stent? (3) when was it placed and (4) what is the surgery date?

  1. MACE risk
    - RCRI/NSQIP
  2. thrombosis risk w/o DAPT
    - BMS vs DES
  3. bleeding risk with DAPT
22
Q

PERIOP MED (CVS) - IACD

[20A09] A patient with an implantable cardioverter defibrillator pacemaker is scheduled for a left mastectomy. Discuss how the presence of this device affects your management of this patient. (also 08A10)

A

Indication:
1. VF/VT
2. NYHA2/3 OR DCM + EF <35%
3. AMI + EF <30%
4. LQTs
5. Brugada

Position
1. Defib (shock) chamber
2. Antitachycardia chamber
3. Tachycardia detec
4. Anti brachycardia chamber

Key
1. EMI
- possibility - disable
- diathermy –>
>15cm away
bipolar > monoploar
place pad far
short irregular burst only

Elective - device technician to turn off

23
Q

Fontan

Paeds Fontan vs
Repaired adult Fontan

OBSTETRICS – FONTAN CIRCULATION

[19A12] A 30-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant has been referred to your tertiary high-risk obstetric clinic. She has complex cyanotic heart disease and now functions with a Fontan circulation.
- How would you stratify her cardiovascular risk? (30%)
- What are the relevant anaesthetic issues for this patient? (70%)
[14B08] Essentially same question

A

complex hear disease, biventricular repair impossible

multistage

  1. modified BT shunt - SubClav to PA
  2. SVC + R PA joined (Glenn)
    (BT shunt down)
  3. IVC and R PA joined

*bypass R heart
*CO dependent of PBF

Goals
1. Avoid hypovol, use fluid - PRELOAD dependent

  1. Keep PVR low
    - avoid low O2, pH, high CO2
  2. Keep ITP low
    - SV, min PEEP, low Pinsp
  3. Avoid myocardial depression

Complications
1. *Poor ventricular
2. *VTE events
3. *Conduction disturbances
- AF
4. Peripheral oedema
5. *Protein losing enteropathy

Arrhythmia + VTE + protein + LV dysfx
PALV

SIMS P. 386 + TP

24
Q

PERIOP MED (CVS) – Eisenmenger syndrome

Also PAEDS

[19B09] A 25-year-old male is scheduled for an elective inguinal hernia repair. He has a ventricular septal defect and was
recently diagnosed with Eisenmenger syndrome. Discuss your preoperative assessment and how this affects your anaesthetic plan.
(55%)

A

PHTN with reversed central shunt

(VSD ASD)
L-R shunt + inc PBF ==> inc PVR ==> PHTN ==>

R-L shunt + cyanosis

Pre-op
Assess severity!
1. Fx status
- NYHA (adult)
- ADL/METS
- FTT/poor feeding
2. Clinical signs
- Tachycardia
- Tachypnoea
- Gallop S3/S$
- Heptomegaly
3. Echo
- shunt
- PHTN
4. Catheter results

Intraop
1. Avoid inc PVR
- avoid low O2 (HPV), pH, high CO2

25
Q

PERIOP MED (CVS) – Systolic murmur

[13A11] A 25-year-old male scheduled for elective surgery is found to have a systolic murmur on the day of surgery
a) What are the clinical features and ECG findings in this pt that would prompt you to postpone the case to allow further investigation? (70%)
b) What are the likely causes of this murmur? (30%)

A

Timing
- mid - AS
- pan - MR
Nature
Radiation
- carotid ~ AV
- axillae ~ MR
Exacerbation maneouvers
Symptoms
- dyspnoea
- Exercise limitations
- Chest pain

ECG
1. LVH
- LAD
2. Arrhythmia
- AF/SVT/WPW
3. Ischaemia
- STD/STE/TWI

Cause of systolic murmur
1. PAN - MR/TR/ VSD
2. Mid - AS/PS
3. Late - MVP

26
Q

PERIOP MED (CVS) – Aortic stenosis

[12B04] a) What is the natural history of aortic stenosis? (30%)
b) What are the key echocardiographic features in haemodynamically significant aortic stenosis? (70%)

A

a)
Natural hx

Onset

Time course

Description

b) Echo findings
1. Qualitative

  1. Quantitative
    - valve area
    - transvalve gradient
    - assess diastolic dysfx
27
Q

Summary of the AHA/ACC Guidelines 2024

A

STRENGTH of recomm
1 - strong B»>R (recom)
2a - mod B&raquo_space;R (reasonable)
2b - weak B>=R (mb reasonabl)
3 - no ben B=R (NOT rec)
3 - harm R>B

Level of ev (LoE)
A = high qual >1RCT
B-R= mod qual >1RCT
B-NR = mod qual non RCT
C-LD = obs / reg study
C-EO = exp opinion

Elevated risk - surg+pt >1% MACE

  • CV Risk index
    COR 2a - known CVD for NCS, tool can estimate the risk of perioperative MACE

*Functional capacity
COR 2a - elevated risk NCS, structured ax (DASI) stratify risk of perioop CVE

*Frailty
COR 2a -

*Periop biomarker for risk strat
COR 2a - BNP
COR 2b - cTn

12 Lead ECG
2a - if known CAD, arrhythmia, PAD , CVD, structural heart dx in ELEVATED (>1%) risk surgery

Ax LV Fx
- COR 1 - new SOB/O/E = HF/?ventricular dysdx

28
Q

CARDIAC – Intra-aortic balloon pump

[08B12] List the indications and contra-indications for the use of an intra-aortic balloon pump. Describe how its performance is optimised.

A

Ind:
AMI - card shock
Acute post MI MR
VS rupture
Refracy Vent arrhythmias
Failure to wean from CPB
Low CO post cardiac

CI:
Mod+ AR
AoDiss or sig aortic aneurysm
severe PAD
Severe coag
Uncontrolled sepsis

Optimise performance:
1: Position
2. Volume
3. TIming
4. Rhythm
5. Assist ratio
6. HR
7. Aortic compliance`

Principles:
Inflation - mid T wave
Deflation - peak R wave

Early balloon inflation results in increased afterload

Late balloon inflation results in decreased diastolic augmentation

Early balloon deflation fails to decrease myocardial oxygen demand

Late balloon deflation increases afterload

Poor diastolic augmentation results in suboptimal coronary perfusion

[]https://derangedphysiology.com/main/cicm-fellowship-exam/past-papers/2022-paper-2-saqs/question-2#answer-anchor

29
Q
A