2024.1 MCQ Flashcards

1
Q

2024.1

1) A medication that would be acceptable to a patient who refuses all products derived from human plasma is

a) albumin
b) F7
c) Fib conc
d) PT complex

A

recombinant F7

a) albumin (from plasma)
b) F7 (recombinant lab made)
c) Fib conc(from freeze dried plasma) d) PT complex (from plasma)

“https://www.bjanaesthesia.org.uk/action/showFullTableHTML?isHtml=true&tableId=AEV161TB1&pii=S0007-0912%2817%2931069-3

BJA artice of table of whats not ok and whats ok”

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2
Q

2024.1

2) An adult patient undergoing cardiac surgery exhibits excessive bleeding following cardiopulmonary bypass. A thromboelastogram performed on their blood is shown below. The most likely cause of the bleeding is

a) Platelets
b) Fibrinogen
c) Cryo
d) FFP

A

Platelets (ie reduced max amp, thin sausage)

LITFL DP CSL

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3
Q

2024.1

3) A term neonate is undergoing closure of gastroschisis under general anaesthesia with pressure control ventilation via an endotracheal tube. The estimated blood loss is 10 mL. Fluid therapy has been 4% albumin 40 mL/kg in addition to maintenance 10% dextrose 4 mL/kg/h. During closure of the defect, the oxygen saturation falls to 80%. The most likely cause of the desaturation is

a)Pulmonary oedema/excessive fluids
b) Reduced Lung compliance
c) Shunt
d) FiO2 too low

A

b) Reduced Lung compliance

UTD

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4
Q

2024.1

4) Phaeochromocytoma commonly presents with all of the following EXCEPT

a) RVH/ failure
b) stress induced cardiomyopathy
c)Pulmonary HTN
d) long QT (and VTs)
e) ST changes
f) Cardiomyopathy

A

c) Pulmonary HTN

a) RVH/ failure yes,
b)stress induced cardiomyopathy
c)Pulmonary HTN
d) long QT (and VTs)
e) ST changes. yes 2o ischaemia from HTN/ supply demand mismatch
f) Cardiomyopathy. yes 2o HTN

Unclear recalled options, list of sx

UTD

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5
Q

2024.1

5) 5. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is NOT associated with

A

No sux or VA

** Resistant to NDMR (can give, generally delayed onset, prolonged duration)
** Female carriers dont usually have CM”

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6
Q

2024.1

6) 6. When administered in combination with tramadol, the agent considered highest risk for the development of serotonin syndrome is

a) moclobemide
b) escitalopram
c) desvenlafaxine
d) tapentadol
e) TCAs”

A

a) moclobemide

Tramadol + MAOIs = CI because high risk serotonin syndrome!

“NPS Org - https://www.nps.org.au/assets/AP/pdf/p41-Perananthan-Buckley.pdf

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7
Q

2024.1

7) 7. The action of methylene blue in treating vasoplegia is mediated by

“a) inhib GNP
b) inhib indicible nitric oxidase
c) inhib constitutive nictric oxidase
d) binds to vasopressin recep
e) binds to angiotensin 2”

A

“a) inhib GNP

https://academic.oup.com/ejcts/article/28/5/705/502264

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8
Q

2024.1

8) 8. A stellate ganglion block is NOT indicated in the management of

A

“sympathetically mediated pain from the head, neck and upper extremities
- reflex sympathetic dystrophy
- herpes zoster
vasospasm
- Raynaud disease
- temporal arteritis
- Buerger disease
hyperhidrosis
electrical storm 7
- three or more ventricular arrhythmias within 24 hours requiring defibrillation or overdrive pacing –> a left-sided (or bilateral) stellate ganglion block is preferred in this context 8

Contraindications are current coagulopathy, recent myocardial infarction, pathologic bradycardia, and glaucoma, contralateral phrenic nerve palsy”

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9
Q

2024.9. Obstructive sleep apnoea in children is diagnosed with an apnoea-hypopnoea index (AHI) of at least

a) 1
b) 5
c) 10

A

1

Kids should not have apnoeas

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10
Q

10

Neostigmine should be avoided in patients with

A Fredricks ataxia (frataxin)
B hypokalaemia FPP
C Becker MD/ Duschenes MD (dystrophin)
D Myotonia congenita (Cl channel)

A
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11
Q

11. A transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt procedure is contraindicated in patients with

Hepatorenal syndrome
Refractory ascites
Severe TR
Variceal bleeding
Budd chiari

A
  1. Severe TR
  2. Severe PHTN (MPAP > 45)
  3. HF
  4. Multiple hep cysts

Contraindications: Absolute (heart failure, severe TR, severe pulm HTN (mean pulm pressures >45mmHg, multiple hepatic cysts, sepsis, biliary obstruction) Relative (HCC, obstruction of all hepatic veins, PV thrombosis, severe coagulopathy, thrombocytopenia < 20x10^9, prior encephalopathy, moderate pulmonary HTN)

BJA Ed 2016 - Anaesthesia for TIPS (https://academic.oup.com/bjaed/article/16/12/405/2632741)

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12
Q

12

  1. When confirming correct placement of an endotracheal tube, verifying the presence of sustained exhaled carbon dioxide requires all the

4 criteria

A

4 criteria

“following criteria to be met (Fig. 2; [93]):
1. Amplitude rises during exhalation and falls during inspiration.
2. Consistent or increasing amplitude over at least seven breaths [74, 91]
3. Peak amplitude more than 1 kPa (7.5 mmHg) above baseline [74, 94].
4. Reading is clinically appropriate.”

https://associationofanaesthetists-publications.onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1111/anae.15817

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13
Q
  1. **The dataset that was used to create the Eleveld TCI model did NOT include patients who are / have

“Neonate
Elderly
Liver
Renal
Obese”

A

Liver?

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14
Q
  1. The blood product that contains the highest concentration of citrate is

CITRATE:
Whole blood: 26g/l
Platelet(phoresis): 22g/l
Plasmapheresis 40g/l
Platelet additive: 0.3g/l

Red cells and albumin: NONE! SAGM”

A

Plasma

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15
Q
  1. During a new pandemic, an anaesthetist refuses to provide sedation for an elective operation due to concern that the procedure may hasten community spread of the disease. This is the ethical principle of

“Beneficence
Non-maleficence
Justice
Conscientious objection
Professional autonomy

A

Non Malef

Patients brought to the hospital are at risk of spreading and contracting disease. The principle of non-maleficence, often referred to as the “do no harm” principle, strives to minimize the risk of harm to a patient, and argues that any procedure whose anticipated harms outweigh the expected benefits should not be performed [20]. During the current pandemic, the decision to suspend non-urgent elective procedures was made in part to protect surgical patients from disease transmission (i.e., harm). https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC8082741

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16
Q
  1. The anaesthetic technique associated with the highest rate of postprocedure patency of a newly-created arteriovenous fistula is

BP block
LA by surgeons

A

BP block

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16
Q

17. The image below shows the arterial pressure (red, upper line) and balloon pressure (blue, lower line) from an intra-aortic balloon pump set at 1:2 augmentation. The point of the waveform indicated by the large green arrow is called

A
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17
Q

18. A patient’s true arterial oxygen saturation will be lower than a pulse oximeter reading in the presence of

COHB
Methylene blue
Sickle cell

SaO2 < SpO2

A

COHb
(CarboxyHb)
(Miller)

Also:
Skin pigmentation if saO2 < 80% (Miller)
IABP (UTD)
Inc HbA1c (UTD)

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17
Q
  1. Organ procurement after circulatory death is generally stood down if the time from cessation of cardiorespiratory support to circulatory death extends beyond

“30
60
90
180mins “

A

90 mins

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17
Q

20. The rank of volatile anaesthetic agents from highest to lowest derived global warming potential over 100 years (GWP100) is

A

GWP 100 kills DINS (dinos)

The Global Warming Potential (GWP) 100 of inhaled anesthetics is a measure of how much each gas contributes to global warming over a 100-year period

D 2500 (20x sevo) (5x iso)
I 500 (2x n2o)
N 250 (2x sevo)
S 125

https://www.asahq.org/about-asa/governance-and-committees/asa-committees/environmental-sustainability/greening-the-operating-room/inhaled-anesthetics

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18
Q

21. A characteristic feature of postoperative visual loss due to posterior ischaemic optic neuropathy is

a) Resolves w/in 24h
b) Normal fundo
c) Painful
d) Visual inattention
e) No loss papillary reflex

A

a) Resolves w/in 24h (no)
b) Normal fundo
c) Painful (no)
d) Visual inattention (no, just normally bilat absent vision)
e) No loss papillary reflex (incorrect, papillary reflex is gone)

AION = painless, progressive VL, oedematous optic disc (PV+OF)

PION = painless, acute, unilateral or bilateral VL, normal optic disc (least blood flow = vulnerable)

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19
Q

22. The bipolar leads of a 12-lead electrocardiogram are

A

Bipolar = 2 leads (+ and - electrode)

I, II, III

Limb leads = RA LA LL RL
6 limb lead = I/II/III + aVR/L/F

Chest/Praecordial leads = V1-V6
(6 unipolar praecordial lead)

“A”ugmented Lead = aVL, aVR, aVF
measure electrical activity between one limb and a single electrode
One lead = unipolar

R/L/F = POSITIVE electrode position

5 lead ECG = 5 electrodes
smoke over fire
white is right, snow over tree (Green/ground)
chocolate to the heart (chest)
I II III aVR/L/F and V
–> improve STE reading

12 lead ECG = 10 electrodes
- 4 on limbs; 6 praecordium

Lead = view b/w + and - pole
Plane = cross sectional view

https://www.ausmed.com.au/learn/articles/5-lead-ecg

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20
Q

23. The local anaesthetic with the lowest CC/CNS ratio (ratio of the drug dose required to cause cardiac collapse to the drug dose required to cause seizure) is

A

Bupiv

357
BRL

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21
Q

24. The time for reversal of therapeutic dabigatran after administration of idarucizumab 5 g is

“a) 5min
b) 15min
c) 30min
d) 60min
e) 120min”

A

UTD: Anticoagulant effect completely reversed within 15min

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22
Q

25. The intrinsic muscles of the larynx do NOT include

a) cricothyroid
b) suprahyoid
c) thyroaretenoid
d) transverse arytenoid

A

Intrinsic muscles of the larynx:
cricothyroid
thyroaretenoid
posterior cricoarytenoid
lateral cricoarytenoid
transverse arytenoid

NO hyoid

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23
Q

26. When interpreting an arterial blood gas, a high serum anion gap is consistent with

A

HAGMA LTKR
lactate
toxin - salicylate
ketone
renal failure

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24
Q

27. The Glasgow Blatchford score is used to risk stratify

Pulmonary haemorrhage
Traumatic intraperitoneal haemorrhage
PPH
UGI bleed

A

UGIB

SAH (WFNS GCS and motor- survival and Fisher rad- vasospasm)

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25
Q

28. In a male patient with quadriplegia undergoing a rigid cystoscopy, the optimal choice of anaesthesia to prevent autonomic dysreflexia is

A

Neuraxial- spinal abolishes ADR and spasms,

epidural reduces ADR,

spinal blunts SNS when inflating bladder

https://associationofanaesthetists-publications.onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/full/10.1046/j.1365-2044.1998.00337.x

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26
Q

29. Interference with pacemaker function can result from all of the following EXCEPT

A

Things that affect it:
MRI
Diathermy
?Maybe ECT
TENS Machine
Gamma radiation
Defibrillation/external shocks Peripheral nerve stimulator lithotripsy

https://academic.oup.com/europace/article/24/9/1512/6562768?login=false

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27
Q

30. A neonate with a postmenstrual age of 34 weeks (born at 26 weeks) and weighing 2 kg is undergoing retinal laser therapy under general anaesthesia. The oxygen saturation is 92% on the following ventilator settings: FiO2 0.4; inspiratory pressure 15 cmH2O; PEEP 5 cmH2O; rate 24 breaths per minute. The most appropriate course of action is to

“FiO2 to 100%
Peep to 7
Recruit
Do nothing “

A

do nothing: goal sats in prematurity 91%

https://www.rch.org.au/rchcpg/hospital_clinical_guideline_index/oxygen_delivery/#:~:text=91%20%2D%2095%25%20for%20premature%20and,bronchiolitis%20(link%20to%20Bronchiolitis%20CPG)

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28
Q

31. When auscultating the heart the Valsalva manoeuvre will increase the murmur intensity of

“AS
MS
MR
VSD
Mitral prolapse “

A

MVP

https://journals.physiology.org/doi/full/10.1152/advan.00128.2011

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29
Q

32. The most appropriate order of blood products transfused sequentially through the same blood administration set is

Red cells plasma platelets
Red cells platelets plasma
Plasma red cells platelets
Platelets red cells plasma

A

platelets prior to pRBCs
n the setting of massive/rapid transfusion when platelets and plasma are both required, they may be transfused sequentially through the same blood administration set.”

Platelets must be transfused through a new blood administration set. In the setting of massive/rapid transfusion when platelets and plasma are both required, they may be transfused sequentially through the same blood administration set.
Platelets must not be transfused through a blood administration set which has previously been used for red cells, as red cell debris in the in-line filter may trap infused platelets.
Red cells may follow platelets through the same blood administration set, but not precede platelets.

https://www.lifeblood.com.au/health-professionals/clinical-practice/transfusion-process/administration

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30
Q

33. The breathing system shown in the accompanying picture is an example of Mapleson

A

Mapleson circuits

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31
Q

34. In an anaesthetised patient with anaphylaxis, cardiac compression should be initiated at a systolic blood pressure of less than

A

sBP < 50 mmHg

ANZAAG

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32
Q

35. The muscle recommended for neuromuscular monitoring by the 2023 American Society of Anesthesiologists practice guidelines is the

AP
OO
HL
Supracilli

A

Adductor pollicis

https://pubs.asahq.org/anesthesiology/article/138/1/13/137379/2023-American-Society-of-Anesthesiologists

33
Q

36. A single intraoperative dose of 8 mg dexamethasone compared to 4 mg results in

Potentially poorly remembered stems.

No difference in analgesia
No difference in PONV
No difference in BSL
Increased surgical site infection

A

Although both 4 mg and 8 mg have consistently been shown to provide effective prophylaxis (and treatment) for postoperative nausea and vomiting,

the higher dose (8 mg) almost certainly provides additional benefits for both analgesia and QoR, and perhaps earlier hospital discharge.

https://pubs.asahq.org/anesthesiology/article/135/5/895/116641/Benefits-and-Risks-of-Dexamethasone-in-Noncardiac

34
Q

37. You are undertaking an ultrasound guided pericapsular nerve group (PENG) block for hip surgery. In the accompanying image, the structure labelled with the arrow is the

A

The anterior hip capsule is innervated by the articular branches from the
1. femoral, (AIIS IPE)
2. obturator, (pericap spread)
3. accessory obturator nerves (AIIS IPE)

while the posterior capsule is innervated by branches from the sacral plexus

https://www.asra.com/news-publications/asra-newsletter/newsletter-item/asra-news/2023/08/01/how-i-do-it-pericapsular-nerve-group-%28peng%29-block

35
Q

39. In the event of an electrical fire in the operating room, the correct fire extinguisher type to use is

Foam
Power
Wet chemical
CO2

A

CO2 - covers both class A and E

Extra:
PASS
point, aim, squeeze, sweep

RACE
remove/rescue
alert
contain
evacuate

PS 55A - appendix 3 - minimum safe facility
FireExtinguishersInformationSheet

36
Q

38. The tooth most commonly damaged during direct laryngoscopy is the

A. Right middle maxillary incisor
B. Left central maxillary incisor
C. Left middle mandibular incisor
D. Right middle mandibular incisor
E. Right 2nd mandibular molar

A

Maxillary incisors are the most commonly injured under GA.

Representing 50% of cases, theyare particularly prone to fracture, being small-rooted, of narrow cross-sectional area with a slight anterior axis.

The left central maxillary incisor is most vulnerable to damage from the flange of the laryngoscope blade if used as a fulcrum, usually when attempting to improve the view during a difficult intubation.”

BJA Education Dental Knowledge for Anaesthetists 2016

37
Q

40. According to the ISO colour code for medical gas cylinders, Entonox is indicated by

A

Body - white

Shoulder - blue and white

BOC medical cylinder chart

38
Q

41. During resuscitation of a newborn, the heart rate is noted to be 50 beats per minute despite optimal ventilation and chest compressions. The next step in management is to give intravenous adrenaline

0.1-0.3ml/kg 1:1000
0.5-1ml/kg 1:10,000
0.1-0.3ml/kg 1:10,000
0.1-0.3ml/kg 1:100, 000

A

0.1-0.3ml/kg 1:10,000

https://www.apls.org.au/algorithm-newborn-life-support

39
Q

42. An adult weighing 80 kg has sustained full-thickness burns to 40% of their body. The recommended volume of fluid resuscitation in the first 24

“A 8000-9600
B 9600-12800
C 12800-14000”

A

mParkland
3mL/kg x TBW x %TBSA
3-4ml so B

40
Q

43. In a can’t intubate, can’t oxygenate (CICO) scenario when using a 14G cannula and a Rapid-O2 oxygen delivery device, the initial rescue breath should be

“4 sec at 15L/m
4s at 10L/m
2s at 15L/m
2s at 10L/m

A

a 4 second/1000mL (250x60, /1000)= A 15L/m) initial rescue breath, followed by 2 second/500mL subsequent breaths guided by SpO2 measurement. These volumes are suggested for an “average adult”.

EMAC CICO

41
Q

44. The maximum recommended cumulative dose of Intralipid 20% for the treatment of local anaesthesia systemic toxicity is

8ml/kg
9ml/kg
12ml/kg

A

840mL

840mL/70kg =

12ml/kg

1.5mL/kg bolus over 2-3 mins
15mL/kg/hr to 30mL/kg/h

AAGBI

42
Q

MH

4, 6, 8, 10, 12years

A

10 years old (30kg) (need quadraceps bulk)

MH
AD
Early/developing/later signs

Most freq
CO2 high
tachy
masseter spasm
temp abn

MH

MH ANZ - https://malignanthyperthermia.org.au/mh-for-anaesthetists/

43
Q

46. A medication that should be avoided in a patient with thyroid storm is

“Aspirin
PTU
K iodine
B blocker
Steroid

A

Aspirin
NSAIDs - displaces thyroxine from TBP

44
Q

47. A patient with a perioperative troponin rise above normal, chest pain, left ventricular anterior regional wall motion abnormality, and atheroma without thrombus occluding 70% of the left anterior descending coronary artery has had a/an

A

Myo injury - cTn > 99th percentile URL
Acute if rise or fall

Myo INFARCTION Myo Injury +clinical evidence of AMI + at least 1 of
1. MI sx
2. New ischaemia ECG changes
3. Path Q waves
4. Imaging - new loss myo or RWMA
5. ID cor thrombus by angio/autopsy

https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S0735109718369419?via%3Dihub#sec6

Fourth Universal Definition of Myocardial Infarction (2018) ESC

45
Q

48. Regarding sex differences in the incidence of connected consciousness (ability to respond to command during general anaesthesia) in adults after tracheal intubation as measured by the isolated forearm technique,

Higher in females due to lower propofol ml/kg dose

Higher in females despite same dose propofol

Higher in males due to lower propofol ml/kg dose

Higher in males despite same propofol dose

No sex difference

A

Higher in females despite same dose propofol

Responses consistent with connected consciousness occurred in 37 of 338 subjects (11%), and were twice as likely to occur in female (13%) than in male (6%) subjects.

There were no differences in medical comorbidity, dosing of anaesthetic drugs, or performance of tracheal intubation to explain why some subjects experienced connected consciousness.

Lennertz
Connected consciousness after tracheal intubation in young adults: an international multicentre cohort study
Br J Anaesth. 2023 Feb; 130(2): e217–e224.

46
Q

49. A patient who underwent a thoracotomy six months ago reports shooting pain on the chest wall occurring without any trigger. This is known as

  • Paraesthesia
    abnormal sensation, un or provoked, not painful
  • Dysaesthesia spont or evoked, unpleasant abnormal sensation
  • Allodyina
  • Hyperalgesia
A

Chronic pain after thoracotomy afflicts up to 57% of patients at 3 months and 47% at 6 months.8

This incidence has not improved since the 1990s despite improvements in perioperative care.8

Patients present to the pain clinic describing a burning, numbness, or a cutting sensation along the thoracotomy scar, which may be constant or intermittent, and may be evoked by non-painful stimuli such as changes in temperature or donning clothing.

ALLODYNIA
Pain due to a stimulus that does not normally provoke pain.

DYSESTHESIA
An unpleasant abnormal sensation, whether spontaneous or evoked.

Paraesethsia
An abnormal sensation, whether spontaneous or evoked (not unpleasant)

HYPERALGESIA
Increased pain from a stimulus that normally provokes pain.

https://www.iasp-pain.org/resources/terminology/

47
Q

50. In Australia and New Zealand, a return to practice program is recommended after an absence from consultant anaesthetic practice for more than

1, 2, 4, 6 12 months

A

12mo

PS50
https://www.anzca.edu.au/fellowship/fellows-toolkit/taking-a-career-break-and-returning-to-anaesthesia

48
Q

51. In this ultrasound image, the cricothyroid membrane is at the position marked

A

Advanced airway assessment techniques https://www.bjaed.org/article/S2058-5349(21)00056-1/pdf

49
Q

52. A superficial cervical plexus block will block all of the following nerves EXCEPT the

“a) Greater occipital
b) greater auricular
c) lesser occipital
d) supraclav
e) transverse cervical”

A

LOGAn
SCTC

Cervical roots C2-4

Plexus branches =
great auricular n,
lesser occipital, supraclavicular, transverse cervical.

https://www.nysora.com/topics/regional-anesthesia-for-specific-surgical-procedures/head-and-neck/ultrasound-guided-cervical-plexus-block/

50
Q

53. A drug which is unlikely to interfere with skin testing is oral

“a) diphenhydramine
b) amitriptyline
c) prednisolone
d) risperidone
e) ranitidine”

A

Oral corticosteroids probably do not significantly diminish the skin test reaction even after prolonged use

https://www.allergy.org.au/images/stories/pospapers/ASCIA_SPT_Manual_March_2016.pdf

51
Q

54. According to the ANZCA guideline on fatigue risk management in anaesthesia practice the duration of an ideal nap is

A

Minimisation

Effects may be minimised by:

Naps
2 hour nap prior to night duty
** 30 minute nap during night duty**

  • Naps are followed by a period of “sleep inertia”
  • 15-30 minute period of impaired performance after waking.

PG43A 2020 Fatigue
Minimising the effects of night-time shift work may be achieved by taking a 60- 90 minute afternoon sleep prior to the night duty, taking a 20-30 minute nap during the shift, eating proper meals, and sleeping as soon as possible after completing their shift.9,10

52
Q

55. A 39-year-old requires anaesthesia for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. They have a history of mastocytosis and have never had an anaesthetic in the past. The non-depolarising muscle relaxant to avoid using is

A

Atrac
Miv

https://pubs.asahq.org/anesthesiology/article/120/3/753/13713/Perioperative-Management-of-Patients-with

53
Q

56. A healthy woman with an uncomplicated pregnancy has an American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) Physical Status classification of

A

2

https://www.asahq.org/standards-and-practice-parameters/statement-on-asa-physical-status-classification-system

54
Q

57. The antibiotic considered safest to be administered to a patient with myasthenia gravis in the perioperative period is

A

? Cephlosporins? not specifically told not to use them?

aminoglycosides: pre and post NMJ blockade.

Fluroquinolones: umnask and worsen MOA ?.

Fluroquinolones: avoid.

macrolides and telithromycin: avoid.

55
Q

58. The clinical laser type with the greatest tissue penetration is

A

“a) argon (weakest, used in retinal surgery)
b) Nd:YAG*
c) Er:YAG
d) CO2 strongest laser
e) holmium lithotrypsy

56
Q
  1. The accompanying image is obtained while doing an ultrasound guided erector spinae plane block at the level of the transverse process of the fourth thoracic vertebra. The muscle marked by the arrow is the
A
57
Q

60. Risk factors for delirium after hip fracture surgery include all EXCEPT

A

“a) Frailty
b) Age
** c) GA vs neuraxial**
d) male”

58
Q

61. The effects of empagliflozin include a decrease in

A

“a) ketone production
b) intravasc volume **
c) serum Cr
d) “

https://www.tga.gov.au/sites/default/files/auspar-empagliflozin-171026-pi.pdf&ved=2ahUKEwi9rfv3qLGKAxVGyqACHZUuA5oQFnoECBEQAQ&usg=AOvVaw0EY1VlSSFJqhEfximlS8D6

59
Q

62. Oral naltrexone should be ceased preoperatively for

A

Patients may need to be transitioned to oral naltrexone for this period, which can then be stopped 72 hours prior to surgery

Blue book 2023 P.106 107

60
Q

63. A medication that has NOT been associated with arrhythmogenic potential in patients with Brugada syndrome is

A

Volatile appears safe

Avoid propofol infusion. Can give propofol bolus for induction if thio and etomidate not available

Beta agonism reduce STE
Isoprenaline (b1 and b1 AGONIST)

Note:
Medications that worsen STE in the precordial leads (V1–V3) consistent with Brugada pattern indicate a pro-arrhythmogenic state.

https://www.brugadadrugs.org/
Miller’s 10e P.879

61
Q
  1. Borders of the anterior triangle of the neck DO NOT include the
A

Anterior triangle borders
1. midline of neck
2. anterior border of SCM,
3. inferior border of mandible

Posterior
1. A: posterior SCM
2. P: anterior traps
3. Inferior: mid 1/3 clavicle

EJV, SCV, SCA

https://teachmeanatomy.info/neck/areas/anterior-triangle/

62
Q
  1. In a patient presenting with an Addisonian crisis, the electrolyte disturbances MOST LIKELY to be seen are

a) hypocalcaemia, hyperkalaemia, hypoNa
b) high BGL, hyperK, hypoNa
c) low BSL, hyperK, hypoNa
d) low BSL, hyperK, hypoNa
e) hyperCa, hyperK, hypoNa

A

Hyperkalemia,
hyponatremia
Occasionalhypoglycemia
Hypercalcemia

KaCa high

Salt and sugar low

Miller’s 10e P. 895
OHA P. 229

63
Q
  1. A local anaesthetic agent that is considered safe to use in a patient with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is

“a) articaine
b) bupivacaine
c) lig
d) prilocaine
e) benzocaine”

A

Bup

“Avoid due to methaemaglobinaemia: benzocaine, lidocaine, articaine, prilocaine; https://accessanesthesiology.mhmedical.com/content.aspx?bookid=572&sectionid=42543607
Bupivacaine - https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC9658825/ “

64
Q
  1. The ANZAAG-ANZCA guideline for management of resistant hypotension during perioperative refractory anaphylaxis in an adult includes all of the following EXCEPT


a. Metaraminol
b. Glucagon
c. Promethazine
d. Vasopressin

other remembered answers
a) fluid bolus 20mL/kg
b) cont Ad
c) NAd inf
d) vaso bolus
e) glucagon”

A

IV fluid bolus (50mL/kg),
norad infusion +/-
vasopressin +/-
metaraminol/phenylephrine,
glucagon (1-2mg Q5m)

Refrac BRONCHOSPASM
- salbutamol
- Mag
- Inh
- Ketamine

65
Q

68. The abnormalities seen in the electrocardiogram below are consistent with

U waves

a) HyperCa
b) HyperMg
c) HyperPhos
d) HypoK
e) HyperK”

A

HypoK
Long QT–> TdP (polymorphic VT)

Monomorphic VT

https://ecgwaves.com/topic/ecg-electrolyte-imbalance-electrolyte-disorder-calcium-potassium-magnesium/

66
Q

69. The following supraglottic airway devices allow direct intubation EXCEPT for the

A

(probably classic, anything with aperture bars)

67
Q

70. The MELD-Na (Model for End-Stage Liver Disease-Sodium) score includes all of the following parameters EXCEPT

a) Bili
b) INR
c) Alb
d) Cr

A

Dialysis, Cr, Bili, INR, Na

68
Q
  1. Postdural puncture headache in obstetric anaesthesia is associated with a greater likelihood of all of the following EXCEPT

a) Sheehan’s
b) Cortical vein thrombosis
c) Bacterial meningitis
d) post partum dep

A

Sheehan

Post–dural puncture headache is associated with a substan- tially increased risk of
cerebral venous thrombosis and sub- dural hematoma (composite adjusted odds ratio [aOR] 19.0 [95% confidence interval (CI) 11.2–32.1]) and bacterial meningitis

(aOR 39.7 (95% CI 13.6–115.1)]. Therefore rec- ognizing, treating and monitoring patients who suffer PDPH is vitally important.384

In addition to the acute, severe symptoms associated with a PDPH, new studies have shown an increased risk of long-term adverse effects such as
**
- chronic back pain,
- chronic headache,
- decreased breast- feeding, postpartum depression, and posttraumatic stress disorder.218–220**

Miller’s

69
Q

72. A healthy woman is admitted to the obstetric unit with threatened preterm labour at 29 weeks gestation. Her blood pressure is 140/80 mmHg. A magnesium sulfate infusion is indicated for the purpose of

“a) maternal seizure prevention
b) foetal lung dev
c) foetal neuroprotection”

A

BP ok
< 34w

Fetal neuroprotection - red incidence of CP

OHA P 870

70
Q

O

a) not safe
b) safe
c) safe only in 1st trimes
d) safe only in 1st and 3rd trimes
e) not safe for 3rd trimes and 48h post delivery

A

not safe

“NSAIDS cat c except celecoxib B3
APMSE 2020”

71
Q

74. The commonest symptom or sign of uterine rupture during attempted vaginal birth after caesarean is

a) pain between contractions
b) CTG persistent foetal brady
c) variable decels on CTG
d) PV bleed
shoulder tip pain
haematuria”

A
71
Q

75. A 50-year-old has had a headache for the last month which is relieved by lying flat. They have had no medical procedure to their spine such as epidural, spinal or lumbar puncture. Their brain magnetic resonance (MR) imaging scan shows diffuse meningeal enhancement and brain sagging. The neurologist suspects spontaneous intracranial hypotension and asks you to do an epidural blood patch. No spinal imaging has been performed to confirm a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak. You should

“a) do LP to measure pressure and if low, do lumbar patch
b) do blood patch at lumbar level with no further Ix
c) do spine Ix, if CSF leak present, do blood patch at level
d) do spine Ix, if CSF leak present, do lumbar blood patch
e) refuse to do blood patch”

A

crack on and do blood patch at lumbar level!!

72
Q

76. Following scoliosis surgery, a patient exhibits neurological changes in both legs. There is loss of power and reduced pain and temperature sensation. Proprioception and vibration sense are intact. The most likely mechanism of injury is

A
73
Q

77. A seven-year-old child is ventilated in the intensive care unit after an isolated closed head injury. Their serum sodium concentration is 142 mmol/L. The most appropriate intravenous maintenance fluid is

a) 0.45% saline + 5% dex
b) 0.9% NS
c) CSL + 5% dex
d) CSL
e) 0.3% saline + 3% dex

A

0.9% NS

“Maintain serum Na >140mmol/L

Aim isotonic solution
Starship kids hospital guideline NZ”

74
Q

78. You are anaesthetising an 18-year-old who has a Fontan circulation for exploratory laparotomy. They are intubated and ventilated with a ventilator that has been brought from the Intensive Care Unit. Their current arterial oxygen saturation is 70%. To improve oxygenation, you should INCREASE the

possible from similar questions:

A. Increasing the inspiratory time.
B. Decreasing the ventilator tidal volumes.
C. Adding positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP).
D. Positioning reverse trendelenberg.
increase AW pressure
increase PIP
increase expiratory time

A

Dec/short Insp time
Inc Exp time

Blue book - 2021

Maintian pulm bf:
Lim peak insp pressure to < 20cmH2o,
short insp time,
avoid excesive PEEP,
reduce RR to < 20

75
Q
  1. A 6-year-old child with a history of asthma is intubated and ventilated for tonsillectomy. During surgery, the SpO2 falls. You increase the FiO2 to 1.0 and hand-ventilate, and note that ventilation is difficult. The next step in the management is to

a) deepen anaes
b) give salbutamol
c) ask surgeon to release gag
d) suction ETT
e) increase relaxant

A
76
Q

80. You are called to assist with a patient in the intensive care unit who has had cardiac surgery three days ago and is now in cardiac arrest. External cardiac massage should aim for a systolic blood pressure of

A

> 60mmHg

Note
* 50 mmHg start compress in LAST

CALS
Bedside Notebook

77
Q

81. A 65-year-old man is undergoing coronary artery bypass grafting. Immediately upon commencing cardiopulmonary bypass and prior to administering cardioplegia, the aortic line blood appears the same colour as the blood in the venous cannulae, and the low venous saturation alarm is activated on the bypass machine. The most appropriate management at this point is to

a. Connect extra O2 line to membrane oxygenator directly
b. Clamp aorta and start cardioplegia and continue lung ventilation
c. Wean from bypass and ventilated. Continue bypass and ventilate lungs FiO2 100% (or reinflate lungs)

A

??Failure of oxygenation via oxygenator

wean from bypass and ventilate

78
Q
  1. During rewarming on cardiopulmonary bypass, the most reliable surrogate for cerebral temperature measurement is

a) Bladder temperature
b) Nasopharyngeal temperature
c) Oxygenator arterial outlet blood temperature
d) Oxygenator venous inflow temperature
e) Pulmonary artery temperature

A

Temperatures measured at the nasopharyngeal,
esophageal,
bladder,
rectal, or
skin surface sites underestimate jugular bulb temperature during rewarming.314,315

Because monitoring jugular bulb temperature is not usually feasible, monitoring the temperature of the blood in the arterial line of the CPB circuit is considered the closest surrogate for brain temperature.315,317

Temperature measured in the PA or the nasopharynx (class IIa, Level C) are also reasonable sites to monitor during weaning from CPB.

Miller 10e P. 1620

79
Q

83. The image below is from the transoesophageal echocardiogram of an adult patient who is about to undergo cardiac surgery. The structure labelled with the arrow is the

A

In TOE 4 chamber view, leaflet closest to septum is **anterior mitral leaflet **

80
Q

84. A patient presents for a trans-urethral resection of the prostate (TURP). He had a single drug-eluting coronary stent for angina pectoris inserted six months ago and is taking clopidogrel and aspirin. The most appropriate preoperative management of his medications is to

“a) cease aspirin, cont clopid
b) cease aspirin for 10/7, cease clopid for 5/7
c) cease clopid for 5/7, cont aspirin
d) cease clopid 10/7, cont aspirin
e) cont both aspirin and clopid”

A

BMS 6/12 DAPT
DES 6-12/12 DAPT

If surg mandatory, cease clopid 5/7, cont aspirin

Cease P2Y12 inhibitor
- In high or intermediate risk surgery
- Restart and reload after 24-72 hours

Bedside Notebook

81
Q

85. A 45-year-old received a heart transplant one month ago. They develop a new supraventricular tachyarrhythmia without hypotension during gastroscopy. The most appropriate therapy is

A