2024.1 MCQ Flashcards

1
Q

2024.1

1) A medication that would be acceptable to a patient who refuses all products derived from human plasma is

a) albumin
b) F7
c) Fib conc
d) PT complex

A

recombinant F7

a) albumin (from plasma)
b) F7 (recombinant lab made)
c) Fib conc(from freeze dried plasma) d) PT complex (from plasma)

“https://www.bjanaesthesia.org.uk/action/showFullTableHTML?isHtml=true&tableId=AEV161TB1&pii=S0007-0912%2817%2931069-3

BJA artice of table of whats not ok and whats ok”

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2
Q

2024.1

2) An adult patient undergoing cardiac surgery exhibits excessive bleeding following cardiopulmonary bypass. A thromboelastogram performed on their blood is shown below. The most likely cause of the bleeding is

a) Platelets
b) Fibrinogen
c) Cryo
d) FFP

A

Platelets (ie reduced max amp, thin sausage)

LITFL DP CSL

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3
Q

2024.1

3) A term neonate is undergoing closure of gastroschisis under general anaesthesia with pressure control ventilation via an endotracheal tube. The estimated blood loss is 10 mL. Fluid therapy has been 4% albumin 40 mL/kg in addition to maintenance 10% dextrose 4 mL/kg/h. During closure of the defect, the oxygen saturation falls to 80%. The most likely cause of the desaturation is

a)Pulmonary oedema/excessive fluids
b) Reduced Lung compliance
c) Shunt
d) FiO2 too low

A

b) Reduced Lung compliance

UTD

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4
Q

2024.1

4) Phaeochromocytoma commonly presents with all of the following EXCEPT

a) RVH/ failure
b) stress induced cardiomyopathy
c)Pulmonary HTN
d) long QT (and VTs)
e) ST changes
f) Cardiomyopathy

A

c) Pulmonary HTN

a) RVH/ failure yes,
b)stress induced cardiomyopathy
c)Pulmonary HTN
d) long QT (and VTs)
e) ST changes. yes 2o ischaemia from HTN/ supply demand mismatch
f) Cardiomyopathy. yes 2o HTN

Unclear recalled options, list of sx

UTD

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5
Q

2024.1

5) 5. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is NOT associated with

A

No sux or VA

** Resistant to NDMR (can give, generally delayed onset, prolonged duration)
** Female carriers dont usually have CM”

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6
Q

2024.1

6) 6. When administered in combination with tramadol, the agent considered highest risk for the development of serotonin syndrome is

a) moclobemide
b) escitalopram
c) desvenlafaxine
d) tapentadol
e) TCAs”

A

a) moclobemide

Tramadol + MAOIs = CI because high risk serotonin syndrome!

“NPS Org - https://www.nps.org.au/assets/AP/pdf/p41-Perananthan-Buckley.pdf

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7
Q

2024.1

7) 7. The action of methylene blue in treating vasoplegia is mediated by

“a) inhib GNP
b) inhib indicible nitric oxidase
c) inhib constitutive nictric oxidase
d) binds to vasopressin recep
e) binds to angiotensin 2”

A

a) inhib GNP

https://academic.oup.com/ejcts/article/28/5/705/502264

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8
Q

2024.1

8) 8. A stellate ganglion block is NOT indicated in the management of

A

“sympathetically mediated pain from the head, neck and upper extremities
- reflex sympathetic dystrophy
- herpes zoster
vasospasm
- Raynaud disease
- temporal arteritis
- Buerger disease
hyperhidrosis
electrical storm 7
- three or more ventricular arrhythmias within 24 hours requiring defibrillation or overdrive pacing –> a left-sided (or bilateral) stellate ganglion block is preferred in this context 8

Contraindications are current coagulopathy, recent myocardial infarction, pathologic bradycardia, and glaucoma, contralateral phrenic nerve palsy”

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9
Q

2024.9. Obstructive sleep apnoea in children is diagnosed with an apnoea-hypopnoea index (AHI) of at least

a) 1
b) 5
c) 10

A

1

Kids should not have apnoeas

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10
Q

10

Neostigmine should be avoided in patients with

A Fredricks ataxia (frataxin)
B hypokalaemia FPP
C Becker MD/ Duschenes MD (dystrophin)
D Myotonia congenita (Cl channel)

A

hFPP and MC both contraindicated??

Myotonia congenita:
•	Myotonic Dystrophy Foundation: Neostigmine is contraindicated due to its ability to induce myotonic rigidity.
•	OpenAnesthesia: Avoid neostigmine as it exacerbates myotonia.
•	Anesthesia Considerations: Cholinesterase inhibitors (e.g., neostigmine) trigger myotonic contractures.

##

Neostigmine should be avoided in patients with D. Myotonia congenita (Cl channel).

The strongest evidence from multiple authoritative sources highlights:
- Neostigmine triggers myotonic crises (prolonged muscle rigidity) in chloride channel myotonia due to its acetylcholinesterase inhibition, which exacerbates abnormal muscle membrane excitability.
- Guidelines explicitly contraindicate neostigmine reversal in myotonic disorders, including myotonia congenita, due to this risk[2][4][7][10].

  1. C. Becker/Duchenne MD (dystrophin):
    • While some sources note neostigmine may worsen rhabdomyolysis risk in dystrophinopathies[4][9], others state antagonism with neostigmine is feasible[3]. This creates ambiguity, making it less definitive than D.
    • Current recommendations prefer sugammadex for reversal but do not universally prohibit neostigmine in dystrophinopathies[3][12].
  2. B. Hypokalaemic Familial Periodic Paralysis:
    • No direct contraindication to neostigmine exists in the provided sources.
  3. A. Friedreich Ataxia (frataxin):
    • No evidence of neostigmine contraindication.
  • Myotonia congenita:
    • Myotonic Dystrophy Foundation: Neostigmine is contraindicated due to its ability to induce myotonic rigidity[2][5].
    • OpenAnesthesia: Avoid neostigmine as it exacerbates myotonia[10].
    • Anesthesia Considerations: Cholinesterase inhibitors (e.g., neostigmine) trigger myotonic contractures[7].

Conclusion: The single correct answer is D, supported by unequivocal guidelines against neostigmine use in chloride channel myotonia.

Sources
[1] [PDF] Anaesthesia and the paediatric muscle disorders https://sajaa.co.za/index.php/sajaa/article/download/1090/1216
[2] [PDF] PRACTICAL SUGGESTIONS FOR THE ANESTHETIC … https://www.myotonic.org/sites/default/files/Anesthesia%20Guidelines.pdf
[3] [PDF] Anaesthesia recommendations for Duchenne muscular dystrophy https://www.orphananesthesia.eu/en/rare-diseases/published-guidelines/duchenne-muscular-dystrophy/809-duchenne-muscular-dystrophy-2/file.html
[4] European Neuromuscular Centre consensus statement on … https://pmc.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/articles/PMC9826444/
[5] [PDF] PRACTICAL SUGGESTIONS FOR THE ANESTHETIC … https://www.myotonic.org/sites/default/files/MDF_LongForm_AnesGuidelines_01C.pdf
[6] [PDF] Beckers disease - OrphanAnesthesia https://www.orphananesthesia.eu/de/erkrankungen/handlungsempfehlungen/beckers-erkrankung/407-becker%E2%80%99s-disease-1/file.html
[7] Myotonic Dystrophy - Anesthesia Considerations https://www.anesthesiaconsiderations.com/myotonic-dystrophy-
[8] Medical Management - Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy (DMD) https://www.mda.org/disease/duchenne-muscular-dystrophy/medical-management
[9] A Review on the Anesthetic Management of Patients with … https://pmc.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/articles/PMC10319043/
[10] Myotonic Dystrophy - OpenAnesthesia https://www.openanesthesia.org/keywords/myotonic-dystrophy/
[11] [PDF] Guideline on the clinical investigation of medicinal products for the … https://www.tga.gov.au/sites/default/files/2024-05/EMACHMP2369812011corr1%20GL%20on%20Duchenne%20Becker%20muscular%20dystCurrent%20CURRENT.PDF
[12] Anesthetic implications of muscular dystrophies - SciELO Colombia http://www.scielo.org.co/scielo.php?script=sci_arttext&pid=S0120-33472018000300228
[13] [PDF] Anesthetic management of a patient with myotonia congenita https://www.apicareonline.com/index.php/APIC/article/download/1712/2616/
[14] S8251 - Sigma-Aldrich https://www.sigmaaldrich.com/US/en/search/s8251?focus=papers&page=1&perpage=30&sort=relevance&term=s8251&type=citation_search
[15] PROBLEMS OF ANESTHESIA IN PATIENTS WITH … https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S0889853705703576
[16] Neostigmine - StatPearls - NCBI Bookshelf https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK470596/
[17] Muscular Dystrophy Guidelines - Medscape Reference https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1259041-guidelines
[18] [PDF] Anaesthetic Management in Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy https://aacc.tums.ac.ir/index.php/aacc/article/download/411/597/
[19] [PDF] Anaesthetic guidance for patients with Myotonic Dystrophy https://www.nn.nhs.scot/smn/wp-content/uploads/sites/25/2023/07/NSD610-018.14-SMN-Anaesthetic-guidance-for-patients-with-Myotonic-Dystrophy.pdf
[20] New Becker muscular dystrophy drug on the horizon https://innovationdistrict.childrensnational.org/new-becker-muscular-dystrophy-drug-on-the-horizon/

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11
Q

11. A transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt procedure is contraindicated in patients with

Hepatorenal syndrome
Refractory ascites
Severe TR
Variceal bleeding
Budd chiari

A
  1. Severe TR
  2. Severe PHTN (MPAP > 45)
  3. HF
  4. Multiple hep cysts

Contraindications: Absolute (heart failure, severe TR, severe pulm HTN (mean pulm pressures >45mmHg, multiple hepatic cysts, sepsis, biliary obstruction) Relative (HCC, obstruction of all hepatic veins, PV thrombosis, severe coagulopathy, thrombocytopenia < 20x10^9, prior encephalopathy, moderate pulmonary HTN)

BJA Ed 2016 - Anaesthesia for TIPS (https://academic.oup.com/bjaed/article/16/12/405/2632741)

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12
Q

12

  1. When confirming correct placement of an endotracheal tube, verifying the presence of sustained exhaled carbon dioxide requires all the

4 criteria

A

4 criteria

“following criteria to be met (Fig. 2; [93]):
1. Amplitude rises during exhalation and falls during inspiration.
2. Consistent or increasing amplitude over at least seven breaths [74, 91]
3. Peak amplitude more than 1 kPa (7.5 mmHg) above baseline [74, 94].
4. Reading is clinically appropriate.”

https://associationofanaesthetists-publications.onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1111/anae.15817

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13
Q
  1. **The dataset that was used to create the Eleveld TCI model did NOT include patients who are / have

“Neonate
Elderly
Liver
Renal
Obese”

A

Liver?

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14
Q
  1. The blood product that contains the highest concentration of citrate is

a) whole blood
b) platelet
c) plasmapheresis
d) platelet additive

A

Plasma

CITRATE:
Whole blood: 26g/l
Platelet(phoresis): 22g/l
Plasma (apheresis): 40g/l
Platelet additive: 0.3g/l

Red cells and albumin: NONE! SAGM”

https://www.lifeblood.com.au/sites/default/files/resource-library/2024-08/Blood_Component_Information_2.0_0.pdf

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15
Q
  1. During a new pandemic, an anaesthetist refuses to provide sedation for an elective operation due to concern that the procedure may hasten community spread of the disease. This is the ethical principle of

“Beneficence
Non-maleficence
Justice
Conscientious objection
Professional autonomy

A

Non Malef

Patients brought to the hospital are at risk of spreading and contracting disease. The principle of non-maleficence, often referred to as the “do no harm” principle, strives to minimize the risk of harm to a patient, and argues that any procedure whose anticipated harms outweigh the expected benefits should not be performed [20]. During the current pandemic, the decision to suspend non-urgent elective procedures was made in part to protect surgical patients from disease transmission (i.e., harm). https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC8082741

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16
Q
  1. The anaesthetic technique associated with the highest rate of postprocedure patency of a newly-created arteriovenous fistula is

BP block
LA by surgeons

A

BP block

Long-Term Functional Patency and Cost-Effectiveness of Arteriovenous Fistula Creation under Regional Anesthesia: a Randomized Controlled Trial

https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/32709710/?utm_source=perplexity

Compared with local anesthesia, regional anesthesia significantly improved both primary and functional AVF patency at 1 year and is cost-effective.

Clinical trial registry name and registration number: Local Anaesthesia versus Regional Block for Arteriovenous Fistulae, NCT01706354.

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16
Q

17. The image below shows the arterial pressure (red, upper line) and balloon pressure (blue, lower line) from an intra-aortic balloon pump set at 1:2 augmentation. The point of the waveform indicated by the large green arrow is called

A

https://derangedphysiology.com/main/required-reading/cardiothoracic-intensive-care/Chapter%20634/normal-iabp-waveform

ABC anaes

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17
Q

18. A patient’s true arterial oxygen saturation will be lower than a pulse oximeter reading in the presence of

COHB
Methylene blue
Sickle cell

SaO2 < SpO2

A

COHb
(CarboxyHb)
(Miller)

Also:
Skin pigmentation if saO2 < 80% (Miller)
IABP (UTD)
Inc HbA1c (UTD)

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17
Q

19. Organ procurement after circulatory death is generally stood down if the time from cessation of cardiorespiratory support to circulatory death extends beyond

“30
60
90
180mins “

A

90 mins

Organ procurement after circulatory death in Australia is generally stood down if circulatory death does not occur within 90 minutes after withdrawal of cardiorespiratory support. This timeframe is based on nationally accepted guidelines and clinical protocols to ensure organ viability[3][6][10][13].

  • 90-minute threshold: The Australian Donation after Circulatory Determination of Death (DCDD) guidelines specify that organs are typically only procured if circulatory death occurs within 90 minutes of withdrawing life-sustaining treatment[10][13].
  • Organ-specific viability: While the stand-down period is 90 minutes, individual organs have shorter maximum warm ischemic tolerances (e.g., 30 minutes for liver/pancreas, 60 minutes for kidneys, and 90 minutes for lungs)[3][20].
  • Abandonment criteria: If death does not occur within this window, organ procurement is halted, though tissue donation may still proceed after death[3][6].

This approach balances ethical standards, organ viability, and clinical feasibility in alignment with Australian guidelines[10][13].

Sources
[1] [PDF] Organ Donation After Circulatory Death - NSW Health https://www1.health.nsw.gov.au/pds/ActivePDSDocuments/GL2024_010.pdf
[2] Donation after circulatory death (DCD)—lung procurement - PMC https://pmc.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/articles/PMC8012413/
[3] PROTOCOL Organ and Tissue Donation and Procurement after … https://www.rch.org.au/picu/Donation_after_cardiac_death_protocol/
[4] [PDF] Untapped potential in Australian hospitals for organ donation after … https://www.mja.com.au/system/files/issues/207_07/10.5694mja16.01405.pdf
[5] Death and Organ Donation Statement - ANZICS https://www.anzics.org/death-and-organ-donation-app-content/
[6] Untapped potential in Australian hospitals for organ donation after … https://www.mja.com.au/journal/2017/207/7/untapped-potential-australian-hospitals-organ-donation-after-circulatory-death
[7] Best Practice Guideline for Donation after Circulatory Determination … https://www.donatelife.gov.au/for-healthcare-workers/clinical-guidelines-and-protocols/national-guideline-donation-after-circulatory-death
[8] [PDF] Clinical Guidelines for Organ Transplantation from Deceased Donors https://tsanz.com.au/storage/documents/TSANZ_Clinical_Guidelines_Version-111_13062023Final-Version.pdf
[9] Clinical guidelines and protocols - DonateLife https://www.donatelife.gov.au/for-healthcare-workers/clinical-guidelines-and-protocols
[10] [PDF] Donation after Circulatory Determination of Death (DCDD) in Australia https://www.donatelife.gov.au/media/best-practice-guideline-donation-after-circulatory-determination-death-australia-634-kb-pdf
[11] 2 Organ donor suitability - TSANZ https://tsanz.com.au/preview-page?p=6
[12] [PDF] The Statement on Death and Organ Donation | DonateLife https://www.donatelife.gov.au/media/anzics-statement-death-and-organ-donation-edition-41
[13] Organ donation after circulatory death (DCD) - NSW Health https://www.health.nsw.gov.au/organdonation/Pages/donation-following-circulatory-death.aspx
[14] Donation after Circulatory Death (DCD) - LITFL https://litfl.com/donation-after-circulatory-death-dcd/
[15] [PDF] Section 3 - Deceased Organ Donor Pathway - ANZDATA https://www.anzdata.org.au/wp-content/uploads/2022/05/s03_pathway_2021_ar_2022_v2.0_section_20220521_final.pdf
[16] “The Cadaveric Organ Shortage: a result of Australia’s … - AustLII http://www8.austlii.edu.au/cgi-bin/viewdoc/au/journals/CanLawRw/2022/7.html
[17] [PDF] Understanding death and donation | DonateLife https://www.donatelife.gov.au/media/otandfssunderstanding-death-donation-july-2021pdf
[18] [PDF] Deceased Organ Donation Pathway - ANZDATA https://www.anzdata.org.au/wp-content/uploads/2017/10/c03_pathway_v1.0_20171027.pdf
[19] [PDF] Ethical guidelines for organ transplantation from deceased donors https://www.nhmrc.gov.au/sites/default/files/documents/attachments/NHMRC-ethical-guidelines-organ-transplant.pdf
[20] Donation after circulatory determination of death https://derangedphysiology.com/main/required-reading/organ-and-tissue-donation/Chapter-616/donation-after-circulatory-determination-death

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17
Q

20. The rank of volatile anaesthetic agents from highest to lowest derived global warming potential over 100 years (GWP100) is

A

GWP 100 kills DINS (dinos)

The Global Warming Potential (GWP) 100 of inhaled anesthetics is a measure of how much each gas contributes to global warming over a 100-year period

D 2500 (20x sevo) (5x iso)
I 500 (2x n2o)
N 250 (2x sevo)
S 125

https://www.asahq.org/about-asa/governance-and-committees/asa-committees/environmental-sustainability/greening-the-operating-room/inhaled-anesthetics

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18
Q

21. A characteristic feature of postoperative visual loss due to posterior ischaemic optic neuropathy is

a) Resolves w/in 24h
b) Normal fundo
c) Painful
d) Visual inattention
e) No loss papillary reflex

A

a) Resolves w/in 24h (no)
b) Normal fundo
c) Painful (no)
d) Visual inattention (no, just normally bilat absent vision)
e) No loss papillary reflex (incorrect, papillary reflex is gone)

AION = painless, progressive VL, oedematous optic disc (PV+OF)

PION = painless, acute, unilateral or bilateral VL, normal optic disc (least blood flow = vulnerable)

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19
Q

22. The bipolar leads of a 12-lead electrocardiogram are

ALSO
what are the unipolar leads?
whare are the augmented leads?

A

Bipolar = 2 leads (+ and - electrode)

I, II, III

Limb leads = RA LA LL RL
6 limb lead = I/II/III + aVR/L/F

Chest/Praecordial leads = V1-V6
(6 unipolar praecordial lead)

“A”ugmented Lead = aVL, aVR, aVF
measure electrical activity between one limb and a single electrode
One lead = unipolar

R/L/F = POSITIVE electrode position

5 lead ECG = 5 electrodes
smoke over fire
white is right, snow over tree (Green/ground)
chocolate to the heart (chest)
I II III aVR/L/F and V
–> improve STE reading

12 lead ECG = 10 electrodes
- 4 on limbs; 6 praecordium

Plane = cross sectional view

Lead = view b/w + and - pole

https://www.ausmed.com.au/learn/articles/5-lead-ecg

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20
Q

23. The local anaesthetic with the lowest CC/CNS ratio (ratio of the drug dose required to cause cardiac collapse to the drug dose required to cause seizure) is

A

Bupiv

357
BRL

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21
Q

24. The time for reversal of therapeutic dabigatran after administration of idarucizumab 5 g is

“a) 5min
b) 15min
c) 30min
d) 60min
e) 120min”

A

UTD: Anticoagulant effect completely reversed within 15min

a) 5 min

Rationale:
Idarucizumab, a monoclonal antibody fragment, rapidly and completely reverses the anticoagulant effects of dabigatran by binding to it with high affinity. Clinical studies, including the pivotal RE-VERSE AD trial, demonstrate that coagulation parameters (e.g., dilute thrombin time, ecarin clotting time) normalize within minutes of administering the 5 g dose[1][2][8]. For example:

  1. RE-VERSE AD Interim Analysis: In patients requiring urgent procedures, complete reversal occurred within minutes in 98.7% of cases based on dTT and 82.2% based on ECT, with median time to surgery initiation <2 hours in most cases[1][8].
  2. Pharmacodynamic Studies: Idarucizumab normalizes clotting times (dTT, ECT, aPTT) within 5 minutes of administration, as shown in controlled volunteer trials and animal models[4][10][11].
  3. Mechanism of Action: The rapid on-rate of idarucizumab binding to dabigatran ensures immediate neutralization of its anticoagulant activity, with unbound dabigatran concentrations dropping below therapeutic thresholds within 5 minutes[10][11].

While bleeding cessation or procedural hemostasis may take longer (e.g., median 2.5–11.4 hours for bleeding cessation), the reversal of anticoagulation itself is nearly instantaneous[2][8]. Thus, the correct answer is 5 minutes.

Answer: a) 5 min
Sources:[1][2][4][8][10][11]

Citations:
[1] https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/31599808/
[2] https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/26095746/
[3] https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/30586692/
[4] https://www.medsafe.govt.nz/profs/datasheet/p/praxbindinj.pdf
[5] https://australianprescriber.tg.org.au/articles/idarucizumab.html
[6] https://www.nps.org.au/news/idarucizumab-praxbind-for-dabigatran-pradaxa-reversal-what-you-should-know
[7] https://pmc.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/articles/PMC7237558/
[8] https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/28693366/
[9] https://www.seslhd.health.nsw.gov.au/sites/default/files/documents/SESLHDMG%20110%20-%20Idarucizumab%20in%20Urgent%20Dabigatran%20Reversal%20-%20Medicine%20Guideline.pdf
[10] https://www.ahajournals.org/doi/10.1161/CIRCULATIONAHA.115.019628
[11] https://www.tga.gov.au/sites/default/files/auspar-idarucizumab-161025-pi.pdf
[12] https://www.nice.org.uk/advice/esnm73/resources/reversal-of-the-anticoagulant-effect-of-dabigatran-idarucizumab-pdf-1502681164008901
[13] https://www.tga.gov.au/sites/default/files/auspar-idarucizumab-161025.docx
[14] https://www.thebottomline.org.uk/summaries/icm/idarucizumab-for-dabigatran-reversal/
[15] https://www.thewaltoncentre.nhs.uk/Downloads/disclosure-log/2022/January-2022/FOI5020_Dabigatran%20Reversal%20with%20Idarucizumab%20Guideline_Information%20Governance.pdf
[16] https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/25789661/
[17] https://www.health.wa.gov.au/~/media/Files/Corporate/general%20documents/WATAG/Idarucizumab-for-reversal.pdf

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22
Q

25. The intrinsic muscles of the larynx do NOT include

a) cricothyroid
b) suprahyoid
c) thyroaretenoid
d) transverse arytenoid

A

Intrinsic muscles of the larynx:
cricothyroid
thyroaretenoid
posterior cricoarytenoid
lateral cricoarytenoid
transverse arytenoid

NO hyoid

Use “PLAT VCO” to recall all intrinsic muscles:
• Posterior cricoarytenoid
• Lateral cricoarytenoid
• Aryepiglotticus
• Transverse arytenoid
• Vocalis
• Cricothyroid
• Oblique arytenoid

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23
Q

26. When interpreting an arterial blood gas, a high serum anion gap is consistent with

A

HAGMA LTKR
lactate
toxin - salicylate
ketone
renal failure

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24
Q

27. The Glasgow Blatchford score is used to risk stratify

Pulmonary haemorrhage
Traumatic intraperitoneal haemorrhage
PPH
UGI bleed

A

UGIB

SAH (WFNS GCS and motor- survival and Fisher rad- vasospasm)

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25
Q

28. In a male patient with quadriplegia undergoing a rigid cystoscopy, the optimal choice of anaesthesia to prevent autonomic dysreflexia is

A

Neuraxial- spinal abolishes ADR and spasms,

epidural reduces ADR,

spinal blunts SNS when inflating bladder

https://associationofanaesthetists-publications.onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/full/10.1046/j.1365-2044.1998.00337.x

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26
Q

29. Interference with pacemaker function can result from all of the following EXCEPT

A

Things that affect it:
MRI
Diathermy
?Maybe ECT
TENS Machine
Gamma radiation
Defibrillation/external shocks Peripheral nerve stimulator lithotripsy

https://academic.oup.com/europace/article/24/9/1512/6562768?login=false

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27
Q

30. A neonate with a postmenstrual age of 34 weeks (born at 26 weeks) and weighing 2 kg is undergoing retinal laser therapy under general anaesthesia. The oxygen saturation is 92% on the following ventilator settings: FiO2 0.4; inspiratory pressure 15 cmH2O; PEEP 5 cmH2O; rate 24 breaths per minute. The most appropriate course of action is to

“FiO2 to 100%
Peep to 7
Recruit
Do nothing “

A

do nothing: goal sats in prematurity 91%

https://www.rch.org.au/rchcpg/hospital_clinical_guideline_index/oxygen_delivery/#:~:text=91%20%2D%2095%25%20for%20premature%20and,bronchiolitis%20(link%20to%20Bronchiolitis%20CPG)

The neonate’s current oxygen saturation of 92% falls within the recommended target range (90–95% for preterm infants) during laser therapy and mechanical ventilation. Maintaining the current ventilator settings is appropriate, as adjusting parameters risks destabilizing oxygenation or increasing hyperoxia-related complications.

  1. Oxygen Saturation Targets:
    • Preterm infants require tight SpO₂ regulation to avoid retinopathy of prematurity (ROP) progression while preventing hypoxia.
    • Current guidelines recommend SpO₂ 90–95% for preterm neonates receiving oxygen therapy[2][7][28][50].
  2. Ventilator Settings:
    • FiO₂ 0.4 with SpO₂ 92% indicates adequate oxygenation without excessive oxygen exposure.
    • PEEP 5 cmH₂O and rate 24 breaths/min are within typical neonatal ventilation parameters[24][28].
  3. Anesthesia Context:
    • General anesthesia during ROP laser therapy carries risks of postoperative ventilatory dependence[1][15].
    • Stability in oxygenation (avoiding fluctuations) is prioritized over aggressive weaning during the procedure.

No changes to ventilator settings are needed. The current configuration achieves optimal balance between oxygenation safety and ROP risk mitigation. Adjustments should only occur if SpO₂ trends outside the 90–95% range or clinical deterioration arises.

Sources
[1] Anaesthesia modalities during laser photocoagulation for … https://pmc.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/articles/PMC5278276/
[2] Oxygen saturation SpO2 level targeting in neonates https://www.rch.org.au/rchcpg/hospital_clinical_guideline_index/oxygen_saturation_spo2_level_targeting_premature_neonates/
[3] High or Low Oxygen Saturation and Severe Retinopathy of Prematurity https://pmc.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/articles/PMC4016714/
[4] Supplemental oxygen for the treatment of prethreshold retinopathy … https://pmc.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/articles/PMC7017219/
[5] Anaesthesia for the laser treatment of neonates with retinopathy of … https://www.nature.com/articles/6702502
[6] Strategies to Prevent Severe Retinopathy of Prematurity: A 2020 … https://publications.aap.org/neoreviews/article-abstract/21/4/e249/88504/Strategies-to-Prevent-Severe-Retinopathy-of?redirectedFrom=fulltext%3Fautologincheck%3Dredirected
[7] Target Ranges of Oxygen Saturation in Extremely Preterm Infants https://pmc.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/articles/PMC2891970/
[8] Graded oxygen saturation targets and retinopathy of prematurity in … https://www.nature.com/articles/pr201698
[9] Laser treatment in infants with retinopathy of prematurity using sub … https://associationofanaesthetists-publications.onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/full/10.1111/j.1365-2044.2006.04945_4.x
[10] [PDF] A uthor Manuscript - Minerva Access https://minerva-access.unimelb.edu.au/bitstreams/bbe392c3-2dc8-54c2-a583-ce71d87c1e5d/download
[11] Anesthesia in retinopathy of prematurity - PMC https://pmc.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/articles/PMC9583347/
[12] Current update on retinopathy of prematurity: screening and treatment https://pmc.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/articles/PMC3319383/
[13] Ophthalmology : Treatment of ROP - The Royal Children’s Hospital https://www.rch.org.au/ophthal/patient_information/Treatment_of_ROP/
[14] Technical aspects of laser treatment for acute retinopathy of … https://pmc.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/articles/PMC2993981/
[15] Anaesthesia for the laser treatment of neonates with retinopathy of … https://www.nature.com/articles/6703083
[16] neonatal services division - Pulse Oximetry Screening of Newborns https://www.seslhd.health.nsw.gov.au/sites/default/files/groups/Royal_Hospital_for_Women/Neonatal/Medical/nccretinopathy2019.pdf
[17] The practice of general anesthesia for the retinopathy of prematurity … https://journals.lww.com/ejanaesthesiology/fulltext/2014/06001/the_practice_of_general_anesthesia_for_the.461.aspx
[18] Screening Examination of Premature Infants for Retinopathy of … https://publications.aap.org/pediatrics/article/142/6/e20183061/37478/Screening-Examination-of-Premature-Infants-for?autologincheck=redirected
[19] [PDF] Our General Anesthesia Experiences in Premature Patients … https://app.mevlanamedsci.org/uploads/makale-pdf/our-general-anesthesia-experiences-in-premature-patients-undergoing-laser-photocoagulation-DrnUn2.pdf
[20] Inadequate laser coagulation is an important cause of treatment … https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1111/aos.14406
[21] Anaesthesia modalities during laser photocoagulation … - BMJ Open https://bmjopen.bmj.com/content/bmjopen/7/1/e013344.full.pdf
[22] Ventilator Management - StatPearls - NCBI Bookshelf https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK448186/
[23] [PDF] DRAFT #1 AARC - Neonatal ALI Guideline Page 1 of 5 American … https://www.aarc.org/wp-content/uploads/2020/03/neonatal_ventilation_000.pdf
[24] Setting the Ventilator in the NICU - PMC https://pmc.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/articles/PMC7122498/
[25] [PDF] Respiratory Support https://www.ucsfbenioffchildrens.org/-/media/project/ucsf/ucsf-bch/pdf/manuals/6_respsupport.pdf?rev=2bb223b4b25f4ef6a92abfd429c20c96
[26] Oxygen therapy in children - Starship Hospital https://starship.org.nz/guidelines/oxygen-therapy
[27] [PDF] Neonatal Clinical Practice Guidelines 2018-2021 https://platform.who.int/docs/default-source/mca-documents/policy-documents/guideline/blz-mn-32-02-guideline-2018-eng-neonatal-clinical-guidelines-2018-2021.pdf
[28] Respiratory Support in Neonates and Infants - MSD Manuals https://www.msdmanuals.com/professional/pediatrics/respiratory-problems-in-neonates/respiratory-support-in-neonates-and-infants
[29] Accuracy of the spontaneous breathing trial using a combined CPAP … https://pmc.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/articles/PMC9632075/
[30] Nursing guidelines : Oxygen delivery - The Royal Children’s Hospital https://www.rch.org.au/rchcpg/hospital_clinical_guideline_index/oxygen_delivery/
[31] [PDF] Newborn Critical Care Center (NCCC) Clinical Guidelines https://www.med.unc.edu/pediatrics/cccp/wp-content/uploads/sites/1156/2021/04/UNC-CDH-Pathway-NCCC-PICU.pdf
[32] Oxygen saturation targets for children with respiratory distress https://pmc.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/articles/PMC10577592/
[33] Retinopathy of prematurity and oxygen therapy: A changing … https://www.analesdepediatria.org/en-retinopathy-prematurity-oxygen-therapy-a-articulo-13070181
[34] [PDF] Nasal High-Flow Therapy during Neonatal Endotracheal Intubation https://medicine.unimelb.edu.au/__data/assets/pdf_file/0009/4114854/Kate_SHINE_nejmoa2116735.pdf
[35] [DOC] Retinopathy of Prematurity (ROP) in Neonates, Screening and … https://www.canberrahealthservices.act.gov.au/__data/assets/word_doc/0006/1981644/Retinopathy-of-Prematurity-ROP-in-Neonates,-Screening-and-Treatment.docx
[36] Comparative cohorts of retinopathy of prematurity outcomes of … https://bmjophth.bmj.com/content/6/1/e000626
[37] Oxygen saturation screening for newborns - Safer Care Victoria https://www.safercare.vic.gov.au/best-practice-improvement/clinical-guidance/neonatal/oxygen-saturation-screening-for-newborns
[38] Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP) - Safer Care Victoria https://www.safercare.vic.gov.au/best-practice-improvement/clinical-guidance/neonatal/retinopathy-of-prematurity-rop
[39] [PDF] Retinopathy of prematurity and oxygen therapy - Anales de Pediatría https://analesdepediatria.org/index.php?p=revista&tipo=pdf-simple&pii=13070181
[40] Perioperative use of oxygen: variabilities across age | BJA https://academic.oup.com/bja/article/113/suppl_2/ii26/227567
[41] Oxygen care and treatment of retinopathy of prematurity in ocular … https://www.nature.com/articles/s41598-021-04221-8
[42] High rate and large intercentre variability in retreatment of … https://bmjophth.bmj.com/content/6/1/e000695
[43] Retinal vascular development in an immature retina at 33–34 weeks … https://www.nature.com/articles/s41598-020-75151-0
[44] Twelve-year outcomes of bedside laser photocoagulation for severe … https://www.frontiersin.org/journals/pediatrics/articles/10.3389/fped.2023.1189236/full
[45] [PDF] Royal Hospital for Women (RHW) NEONATAL BUSINESS RULE … https://www.seslhd.health.nsw.gov.au/sites/default/files/groups/Royal_Hospital_for_Women/Neonatal/Medical/RHW%20CLIN083%20Retinopathy%20of%20Prematutity%20(ROP).pdf
[46] [PDF] Airway Management and Mask Ventilation of the Newborn https://www.anzcor.org/assets/anzcor-guidelines/guideline-13-4-airway-management-and-mask-ventilation-of-the-newborn-288.pdf
[47] [PDF] Guideline: Neonatal resuscitation - Queensland Health https://www.health.qld.gov.au/__data/assets/pdf_file/0011/140600/g-resus.pdf
[48] [PDF] Respiratory Support in Neonates - GCNIC - CHW https://resources.schn.health.nsw.gov.au/policies/policies/pdf/2007-0005.pdf
[49] [PDF] National Guideline on Management of Oxygen Therapy in Neonates https://health.gov.mv/storage/uploads/5oBvMkoG/pzqwvjv2.pdf
[50] Safe oxygen saturation targeting and monitoring in preterm infants https://pmc.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/articles/PMC4225465/
[51] Oxygen Saturation Monitoring for the Preterm Infant - Nature https://www.nature.com/articles/pr200973
[52] Oxygen Saturation guidelines Oxygen titration guidelines April 2020 … https://fn.bmj.com/content/fetalneonatal/early/2022/08/23/archdischild-2022-324160/DC1/embed/inline-supplementary-material-1.pdf?download=true

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28
Q

31. When auscultating the heart the Valsalva manoeuvre will increase the murmur intensity of

“AS
MS
MR
VSD
Mitral prolapse “

A

MVP

https://journals.physiology.org/doi/full/10.1152/advan.00128.2011

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29
Q

32. The most appropriate order of blood products transfused sequentially through the same blood administration set is

Red cells plasma platelets
Red cells platelets plasma
Plasma red cells platelets
Platelets red cells plasma

A

platelets prior to pRBCs
n the setting of massive/rapid transfusion when platelets and plasma are both required, they may be transfused sequentially through the same blood administration set.”

Platelets must be transfused through a new blood administration set. In the setting of massive/rapid transfusion when platelets and plasma are both required, they may be transfused sequentially through the same blood administration set.
Platelets must not be transfused through a blood administration set which has previously been used for red cells, as red cell debris in the in-line filter may trap infused platelets.
Red cells may follow platelets through the same blood administration set, but not precede platelets.

https://www.lifeblood.com.au/health-professionals/clinical-practice/transfusion-process/administration

The most appropriate order for sequential transfusion of blood products through the same administration set is platelets first, followed by red cells, then plasma. This sequence minimizes risks of platelet trapping and ensures safe product compatibility with the administration set.

  1. Platelets first:
    • Platelets must not be transfused through a blood administration set previously used for red cells, as residual red cell debris can trap platelets and reduce efficacy[10][16].
    • Transfusing platelets first allows subsequent products (red cells or plasma) to safely use the same set[7][10].
  2. Red cells second:
    • Red cells can follow platelets through the same administration set without issues[10].
    • Studies like the PROPPR trial prioritized platelet transfusion in massive hemorrhage protocols, followed by alternating red cells and plasma[1][5].
  3. Plasma last:
    • Plasma is compatible with the same administration set used for red cells or platelets[7].
    • Plasma units often follow red cells in transfusion sequences to maintain ratio-based resuscitation strategies (e.g., 1:1:1)[1][5].

  • Red cells → platelets: Risks platelet entrapment in red cell debris[10][16].
  • Plasma → red cells → platelets: Exposes platelets to red cell debris if the same set is reused.
  • Red cells → plasma → platelets: Fails to prioritize platelets and risks contamination of the set for subsequent platelet transfusions.

This order aligns with clinical guidelines emphasizing platelet-first protocols in transfusion medicine[3][7][10].

Sources
[1] Transfusion of Plasma, Platelets, and Red Blood Cells in a 1:1:1 vs a … https://pmc.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/articles/PMC4374744/
[2] Blood administration | Professional Education https://professionaleducation.blood.ca/en/transfusion/clinical-guide/blood-administration
[3] Transfusion Medicine - Pathology - University of Michigan https://www.pathology.med.umich.edu/blood-bank/faq
[4] [PDF] Safety Blood filters & giving sets Common blood products https://www.rch.org.au/uploadedFiles/Main/Content/bloodtrans/BLOOD_PRODUCT_ADMINISTRATION.pdf
[5] Transfusion of Plasma, Platelets, and Red Blood Cells in a 1:1:1 vs a … https://jamanetwork.com/journals/jama/fullarticle/2107789
[6] Single Unit Transfusion Guide | National Blood Authority https://www.blood.gov.au/blood-products/blood-product-management/single-unit-transfusion-guide
[7] [PDF] Blood Components and Blood Products Administration https://cahs.health.wa.gov.au/~/media/HSPs/CAHS/Documents/Health-Professionals/Neonatology-guidelines/Blood-Components-and-Blood-Products-Administration.pdf?thn=0
[8] [PDF] Ordering Fresh Blood and Albumin - Quick Reference Guide (QRG) https://emrmonashhealth.org/wp-content/uploads/2020/04/Ordering-a-Blood-Transfusion-QRG-v3.pdf
[9] ANZSBT Guidelines https://anzsbt.org.au/guidelines-standards/anzsbt-guidelines/
[10] Administration | Lifeblood https://www.lifeblood.com.au/health-professionals/clinical-practice/transfusion-process/administration
[11] Plasma, Platelets and Whole Blood | Red Cross Blood Services https://www.redcrossblood.org/donate-blood/how-to-donate/types-of-blood-donations/blood-components.html
[12] Blood Management Standard https://www.safetyandquality.gov.au/standards/nsqhs-standards/blood-management-standard
[13] Blood administration - The Royal Children’s Hospital https://www.rch.org.au/bloodtrans/blood_administration/Blood_administration/
[14] Massive Transfusion - StatPearls - NCBI Bookshelf https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK499929/
[15] Blood and blood products clinical tool | Emergency Care Institute https://aci.health.nsw.gov.au/networks/eci/clinical/tools/blood
[16] 3.15 Blood Administration Sets and Filters https://www.nzblood.co.nz/healthcare-professionals/transfusion-medicine/transfusion-medicine-handbook/3-guide-to-good-transfusion-practice/3-15-blood-administration-sets-and-filters/
[17] Types of transfusion - Lifeblood https://www.lifeblood.com.au/patients/types-of-transfusions
[18] Transfusion process | Lifeblood https://www.lifeblood.com.au/health-professionals/clinical-practice/transfusion-process
[19] Transfusion Guidelines https://www.vet.cornell.edu/animal-health-diagnostic-center/laboratories/comparative-coagulation/clinical-topics/transfusion-guidelines
[20] Clinical Practice Guidelines : Blood product prescription https://www.rch.org.au/clinicalguide/guideline_index/Blood_product_prescription/

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30
Q

33. The breathing system shown in the accompanying picture is an example of Mapleson

A
B
C (this), the one from recovery (the APL is proximal)
D
F

A

Mapleson circuits

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31
Q

34. In an anaesthetised patient with anaphylaxis, cardiac compression should be initiated at a systolic blood pressure of less than

A

sBP < 50 mmHg

ANZAAG

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32
Q

35. The muscle recommended for neuromuscular monitoring by the 2023 American Society of Anesthesiologists practice guidelines is the

AP
OO
HL
Supracilli

A

Adductor pollicis

https://pubs.asahq.org/anesthesiology/article/138/1/13/137379/2023-American-Society-of-Anesthesiologists

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33
Q

36. A single intraoperative dose of 8 mg dexamethasone compared to 4 mg results in

Potentially poorly remembered stems.

No difference in analgesia
No difference in PONV
No difference in BSL
Increased surgical site infection

A

No difference in PONV

Although both 4 mg and 8 mg have consistently been shown to provide effective prophylaxis (and treatment) for postoperative nausea and vomiting,

the higher dose (8 mg) almost certainly provides additional benefits for both analgesia and QoR, and perhaps earlier hospital discharge.

https://pubs.asahq.org/anesthesiology/article/135/5/895/116641/Benefits-and-Risks-of-Dexamethasone-in-Noncardiac

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34
Q

37. You are undertaking an ultrasound guided pericapsular nerve group (PENG) block for hip surgery. In the accompanying image, the structure labelled with the arrow is the

Psoas Tendon
Iliacus
Sartorius

A

Psoas Tendon (This)
Iliacus
Sartorius

The anterior hip capsule is innervated by the articular branches from the
1. femoral, (AIIS IPE)
2. obturator, (pericap spread)
3. accessory obturator nerves (AIIS IPE)

while the posterior capsule is innervated by branches from the sacral plexus

https://www.asra.com/news-publications/asra-newsletter/newsletter-item/asra-news/2023/08/01/how-i-do-it-pericapsular-nerve-group-%28peng%29-block

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35
Q

39. In the event of an electrical fire in the operating room, the correct fire extinguisher type to use is

Foam
Power
Wet chemical
CO2

A

CO2 - covers both class A and E

Extra:
PASS
point, aim, squeeze, sweep

RACE
remove/rescue
alert
contain
evacuate

PS 55A - appendix 3 - minimum safe facility
FireExtinguishersInformationSheet

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36
Q

38. The tooth most commonly damaged during direct laryngoscopy is the

A. Right middle maxillary incisor
B. Left central maxillary incisor
C. Left middle mandibular incisor
D. Right middle mandibular incisor
E. Right 2nd mandibular molar

A

Maxillary incisors are the most commonly injured under GA.

Representing 50% of cases, theyare particularly prone to fracture, being small-rooted, of narrow cross-sectional area with a slight anterior axis.

The left central maxillary incisor is most vulnerable to damage from the flange of the laryngoscope blade if used as a fulcrum, usually when attempting to improve the view during a difficult intubation.”

BJA Education Dental Knowledge for Anaesthetists 2016

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37
Q

40. According to the ISO colour code for medical gas cylinders, Entonox is indicated by

A

Body - white

Shoulder - blue and white

BOC medical cylinder chart

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38
Q

41. During resuscitation of a newborn, the heart rate is noted to be 50 beats per minute despite optimal ventilation and chest compressions. The next step in management is to give intravenous adrenaline

0.1-0.3ml/kg 1:1000
0.5-1ml/kg 1:10,000
0.1-0.3ml/kg 1:10,000
0.1-0.3ml/kg 1:100, 000

A

0.1-0.3ml/kg 1:10,000

https://www.apls.org.au/algorithm-newborn-life-support

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39
Q

42. An adult weighing 80 kg has sustained full-thickness burns to 40% of their body. The recommended volume of fluid resuscitation in the first 24

“A 8000-9600
B 9600-12800
C 12800-14000”

A

mParkland
3mL/kg x TBW x %TBSA
3-4ml so B

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40
Q

43. In a can’t intubate, can’t oxygenate (CICO) scenario when using a 14G cannula and a Rapid-O2 oxygen delivery device, the initial rescue breath should be

“4 sec at 15L/m
4s at 10L/m
2s at 15L/m
2s at 10L/m

A

a 4 second/1000mL (250x60, /1000)= A 15L/m) initial rescue breath, followed by 2 second/500mL subsequent breaths guided by SpO2 measurement. These volumes are suggested for an “average adult”.

EMAC CICO

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41
Q

44. The maximum recommended cumulative dose of Intralipid 20% for the treatment of local anaesthesia systemic toxicity is

8ml/kg
9ml/kg
12ml/kg

A

840mL

840mL/70kg =

12ml/kg

1.5mL/kg bolus over 2-3 mins
15mL/kg/hr to 30mL/kg/h

AAGBI

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42
Q

MH

4, 6, 8, 10, 12years

A

10 years old (30kg) (need quadraceps bulk)

MH
AD
Early/developing/later signs

Most freq
CO2 high
tachy
masseter spasm
temp abn

MH

MH ANZ - https://malignanthyperthermia.org.au/mh-for-anaesthetists/

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43
Q

46. A medication that should be avoided in a patient with thyroid storm is

“Aspirin
PTU
K iodine
B blocker
Steroid

A

Aspirin
NSAIDs - displaces thyroxine from TBP

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44
Q

47. A patient with a perioperative troponin rise above normal, chest pain, left ventricular anterior regional wall motion abnormality, and atheroma without thrombus occluding 70% of the left anterior descending coronary artery has had a/an

A acute MI
B T1 infarct
C T2 infarct
D chronic myocardial unjury

A
  • Myo injury - cTn > 99th percentile URL
    Acute if rise or fall

- Myo INFARCTION Myo Injury +clinical evidence of AMI + at least 1 of
1. MI sx
2. New ischaemia ECG changes
3. Path Q waves
4. Imaging - new loss myo or RWMA
5. ID cor thrombus by angio/autopsy

A rise and fall of cardiac troponin above the 99th percentile upper reference limit with clinical evidence of ischemia demonstrated by at least one of the following: symptoms of ischemia, new ECG changes, or imaging evidence of a new regional wall motion abnormality1. The absence of thrombus on angiography is a critical distinguishing feature that virtually eliminates Type 1 MI from the differential diagnosis1.

https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S0735109718369419?via%3Dihub#sec6

Fourth Universal Definition of Myocardial Infarction (2018) ESC

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45
Q

48. Regarding sex differences in the incidence of connected consciousness (ability to respond to command during general anaesthesia) in adults after tracheal intubation as measured by the isolated forearm technique,

Higher in females due to lower propofol ml/kg dose

Higher in females despite same dose propofol

Higher in males due to lower propofol ml/kg dose

Higher in males despite same propofol dose

No sex difference

A

Higher in females despite same dose propofol

Responses consistent with connected consciousness occurred in 37 of 338 subjects (11%), and were twice as likely to occur in female (13%) than in male (6%) subjects.

There were no differences in medical comorbidity, dosing of anaesthetic drugs, or performance of tracheal intubation to explain why some subjects experienced connected consciousness.

Lennertz
Connected consciousness after tracheal intubation in young adults: an international multicentre cohort study
Br J Anaesth. 2023 Feb; 130(2): e217–e224.

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46
Q

49. A patient who underwent a thoracotomy six months ago reports shooting pain on the chest wall occurring without any trigger. This is known as

  • Paraesthesia
    abnormal sensation, un or provoked, not painful
  • Dysaesthesia spont or evoked, unpleasant abnormal sensation
  • Allodyina
  • Hyperalgesia
A

Chronic pain after thoracotomy afflicts up to 57% of patients at 3 months and 47% at 6 months.8

This incidence has not improved since the 1990s despite improvements in perioperative care.8

Patients present to the pain clinic describing a burning, numbness, or a cutting sensation along the thoracotomy scar, which may be constant or intermittent, and may be evoked by non-painful stimuli such as changes in temperature or donning clothing.

ALLODYNIA
Pain due to a stimulus that does not normally provoke pain.

DYSESTHESIA
An unpleasant abnormal sensation, whether spontaneous or evoked.

Paraesethsia
An abnormal sensation, whether spontaneous or evoked (not unpleasant)

HYPERALGESIA
Increased pain from a stimulus that normally provokes pain.

https://www.iasp-pain.org/resources/terminology/

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47
Q

50. In Australia and New Zealand, a return to practice program is recommended after an absence from consultant anaesthetic practice for more than

1, 2, 4, 6 12 months

A

12mo

PS50
https://www.anzca.edu.au/fellowship/fellows-toolkit/taking-a-career-break-and-returning-to-anaesthesia

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48
Q

51. In this ultrasound image, the cricothyroid membrane is at the position marked

A

Advanced airway assessment techniques https://www.bjaed.org/article/S2058-5349(21)00056-1/pdf

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49
Q

52. A superficial cervical plexus block will block all of the following nerves EXCEPT the

“a) Greater occipital
b) greater auricular
c) lesser occipital
d) supraclav
e) transverse cervical”

A

GOn
LOGAn
SCTC

Cervical roots C2-4

Plexus branches =
great auricular n,
lesser occipital, supraclavicular, transverse cervical.

https://www.nysora.com/topics/regional-anesthesia-for-specific-surgical-procedures/head-and-neck/ultrasound-guided-cervical-plexus-block/

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50
Q

53. A drug which is unlikely to interfere with skin testing is oral

“a) diphenhydramine
b) amitriptyline
c) prednisolone
d) risperidone
e) ranitidine”

A

Oral corticosteroids probably do not significantly diminish the skin test reaction even after prolonged use

https://www.allergy.org.au/images/stories/pospapers/ASCIA_SPT_Manual_March_2016.pdf

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51
Q

54. According to the ANZCA guideline on fatigue risk management in anaesthesia practice the duration of an ideal nap is

a) 20 mins
b) 30 mins
c) 60 mins
d) 90 mins

A

10-20 mins nap (ideal) appendix 7

Minimisation

Effects may be minimised by:

Naps
2 hour nap prior to night duty
** 30 minute nap during night duty**

  • Naps are followed by a period of “sleep inertia”
  • 15-30 minute period of impaired performance after waking.

PG43A 2020 Fatigue
Minimising the effects of night-time shift work may be achieved by taking a 60- 90 minute afternoon sleep prior to the night duty, taking a 20-30 minute nap during the shift, eating proper meals, and sleeping as soon as possible after completing their shift.9,10

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52
Q

55. A 39-year-old requires anaesthesia for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. They have a history of mastocytosis and have never had an anaesthetic in the past. The non-depolarising muscle relaxant to avoid using is

A

Atrac
Miv

https://pubs.asahq.org/anesthesiology/article/120/3/753/13713/Perioperative-Management-of-Patients-with

For a 39-year-old patient with mastocytosis undergoing laparoscopic cholecystectomy, atracurium and mivacurium are the non-depolarizing muscle relaxants to avoid due to their high potential to trigger mast cell degranulation and hypersensitivity reactions[1][4][5][6]. These benzylisoquinolinium compounds directly activate mast cells, increasing the risk of severe perioperative complications like anaphylaxis[1][4].

Safer alternatives include rocuronium, vecuronium, and cisatracurium, which have minimal mast cell activation effects[1][5][6]. For laparoscopic procedures, cisatracurium combined with rocuronium has demonstrated stable muscle relaxation with reduced dosing requirements[3]. Prophylactic H1/H2 antihistamines and corticosteroids are recommended preoperatively to mitigate mast cell mediator release[1][5].

Sources
[1] [PDF] Mastocytosis and Anaesthesia Advice for patients https://www.rcoa.ac.uk/sites/default/files/documents/2020-09/Mastocytosis2014.pdf
[2] Mast cell activation syndrome—anesthetic challenges in two … https://pmc.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/articles/PMC9724157/
[3] Effects of Combined Rocuronium and Cisatracurium in … https://pmc.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/articles/PMC5332119/
[4] [PDF] NAP6 Chapter 6 - Summary of main findings.pdf https://www.nationalauditprojects.org.uk/downloads/NAP6%20Chapter%206%20-%20Summary%20of%20main%20findings.pdf
[5] [PDF] Anaesthesia recommendations for Systemic mastocytosis https://www.orphananesthesia.eu/en/rare-diseases/published-guidelines/systemic-mastocytosis/1710-systemic-mastocytosis-2/file.html
[6] Surgery and Anesthesia - Mastocytosis.ca https://www.mastocytosis.ca/en/treatment/surgery-and-anesthesia
[7] Succinylcholine Chloride - StatPearls - NCBI Bookshelf https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK499984/
[8] Neuromuscular physiology and pharmacology: an update https://academic.oup.com/bjaed/article/12/5/237/289170
[9] Anaesthesia in a patient with mastocytosis - PMC https://pmc.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/articles/PMC9511845/
[10] [PDF] Neuromuscular blocking agents and reversal agents - ? Heading 16 https://www.nationalauditprojects.org.uk/downloads/NAP6%20Chapter%2016%20-%20Neuromuscular%20blocking%20agents%20and%20reversal%20agents.pdf
[11] Perioperative Management - TMS - The Mast Cell Disease Society, Inc https://tmsforacure.org/perioperative-management/
[12] Neuromuscular Blocking Agents - StatPearls - NCBI Bookshelf https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK537168/
[13] Muscle Relaxants Allergy - Sage Journals https://journals.sagepub.com/doi/pdf/10.1177/03946320110240S306
[14] Mastocytosis: anaphylaxis following emergency anaesthesia https://associationofanaesthetists-publications.onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/pdf/10.21466/ac.MAFEA2.2015
[15] atracurium journal articles from PubMed - Unbound Medicine https://www.unboundmedicine.com/medline/research/atracurium
[16] Challenges in Drug and Hymenoptera Venom Hypersensitivity … https://www.mdpi.com/2075-4418/14/2/123
[17] Is Muscle Relaxant Necessary for Cardiac Surgery? - ResearchGate https://www.researchgate.net/publication/8215133_Is_Muscle_Relaxant_Necessary_for_Cardiac_Surgery
[18] Successful Management of Hypothermic Cardiopulmonary Bypass https://journals.lww.com/aoca/fulltext/2020/23030/successful_management_of_hypothermic.28.aspx
[19] Selecting Neuromuscular-Blocking Drugs for Elderly Patients https://www.researchgate.net/publication/10945622_Selecting_Neuromuscular-Blocking_Drugs_for_Elderly_Patients
[20] [PDF] A Practical Guide for Treatment of Pain in Patients with Systemic … https://www.painphysicianjournal.com/current/pdf?article=NDYxNQ%3D%3D&journal=107

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53
Q

56. A healthy woman with an uncomplicated pregnancy has an American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) Physical Status classification of

A

2

https://www.asahq.org/standards-and-practice-parameters/statement-on-asa-physical-status-classification-system

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54
Q

57. The antibiotic considered safest to be administered to a patient with myasthenia gravis in the perioperative period is

A

? Cephlosporins? not specifically told not to use them?

aminoglycosides: pre and post NMJ blockade.

Fluroquinolones: umnask and worsen MOA ?.

Fluroquinolones: avoid.

macrolides and telithromycin: avoid.

Based on the available information, the antibiotic considered safest to be administered to a patient with myasthenia gravis in the perioperative period is:

Amoxicillin

Rationale:

While no antibiotic is completely without risk in myasthenia gravis (MG) patients, amoxicillin appears to have the lowest risk profile among the options discussed in the search results:

  1. Penicillins, including amoxicillin, are generally considered low-risk antibiotics for MG patients[2][4].
  2. Amoxicillin is used as a reference antibiotic “not associated with MG risk” in comparative studies[6].
  3. Other antibiotic classes have higher reported risks of exacerbating MG:
    • Aminoglycosides have a high risk and should be used cautiously, if at all[1][2][5].
    • Fluoroquinolones have a high risk and carry a black box warning against use in MG patients[2][5].
    • Macrolides have a moderate risk and should be used cautiously, if at all[2][5].
  4. While there are rare case reports of MG exacerbations with amoxicillin, the overall risk appears lower compared to other antibiotic classes[4].

It’s important to note that any antibiotic can potentially cause issues in MG patients, so close monitoring is always recommended regardless of the antibiotic chosen[4][5].

Citations:
[1] https://periop-handbook.ukclinicalpharmacy.org/drug/pyridostigmine/
[2] https://www.aliem.com/antibiotics-and-myasthenia-gravis/
[3] https://www.neurologyadvisor.com/features/guidance-for-antibiotic-use-in-myasthenia-gravis/
[4] https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/32296986/
[5] https://pmc.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/articles/PMC8520038/
[6] https://consultqd.clevelandclinic.org/myasthenia-gravis-exacerbation-with-quinolone-and-macrolide-antibiotics-what-is-the-risk
[7] https://www.myaware.org/abn-guidelines
[8] https://www.orphananesthesia.eu/en/rare-diseases/published-guidelines/myasthenia-gravis/730-myasthenia-gravis-2/file.html
[9] https://pmc.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/articles/PMC8038781/
[10] https://www.neurology.org/doi/10.1212/WNL.0000000000011124
[11] https://myasthenia.org/wp-content/uploads/Portals/0/Cautionary%20Drugs.pdf
[12] https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK572091/
[13] https://academic.oup.com/ofid/article/4/suppl_1/S342/4294794
[14] https://www.ccjm.org/content/90/2/81
[15] https://rightdecisions.scot.nhs.uk/nhs-dumfries-galloway-antimicrobial-handbook/additional-resources-incl-dosing-generaldrug-specific-advice-pils-sapg-guidance/general-antimicrobial-prescribing/myasthenia-gravis-and-antibiotics/
[16] http://www.scielo.org.mx/scielo.php?script=sci_arttext&pid=S2524-177X2019000200098
[17] https://www.safetyandquality.gov.au/sites/default/files/migrated/3.8-Surgical-Antibiotic-Prophylaxis.pdf
[18] https://ccmsfiles.tg.org.au/s5/PDFs/ABG16-Surgical-antibiotic-prophylaxis-Collated-table-v4.pdf?type=Surgical+prophylaxis+-+summary+tables

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55
Q

58. The clinical laser type with the greatest tissue penetration is

A

“a) argon weakest, used in retinal surgery
b) Nd:YAG strongest laser
c) Er:YAG
d) CO2
e) holmium *lithotrypsy**”

Laser danger is proportional to penetration.
Penetration inversely prop

Based on comprehensive analysis of the available evidence, the ranking of these lasers from least to greatest tissue penetration is:

Er:YAG laser (least penetration)

CO₂ laser

Holmium lithotripsy laser

Argon laser

Nd:YAG laser (greatest penetration)
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56
Q

59. The accompanying image is obtained while doing an ultrasound guided erector spinae plane block at the level of the transverse process of the fourth thoracic vertebra. The muscle marked by the arrow is the

A
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57
Q

60. Risk factors for delirium after hip fracture surgery include all EXCEPT

a) Frailtyee
b) Age
c) GA vs neuraxial
d) male”

A

“a) Frailtyee
b) Age
** c) GA vs neuraxial**
d) male”

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58
Q

61. The effects of empagliflozin include a decrease in

“a) ketone production
b) intravasc volume
c) serum Cr
d)

A

“a) ketone production
b) intravasc volume **
c) serum Cr
d) “

https://www.tga.gov.au/sites/default/files/auspar-empagliflozin-171026-pi.pdf

59
Q

62. Oral naltrexone should be ceased preoperatively for

A

Patients may need to be transitioned to oral naltrexone for this period, which can then be stopped 72 hours prior to surgery

Blue book 2023 P.106 107

60
Q

63. A medication that has NOT been associated with arrhythmogenic potential in patients with Brugada syndrome is

A

Volatile appears safe

Avoid propofol infusion. Can give propofol bolus for induction if thio and etomidate not available

Beta agonism reduce STE
Isoprenaline (b1 and b1 AGONIST)

Note:
Medications that worsen STE in the precordial leads (V1–V3) consistent with Brugada pattern indicate a pro-arrhythmogenic state.

https://www.brugadadrugs.org/
Miller’s 10e P.879

61
Q
  1. Borders of the anterior triangle of the neck DO NOT include the
A

Anterior triangle borders
1. midline of neck
2. anterior border of SCM,
3. inferior border of mandible

Posterior
1. A: posterior SCM
2. P: anterior traps
3. Inferior: mid 1/3 clavicle

EJV, SCV, SCA

https://teachmeanatomy.info/neck/areas/anterior-triangle/

62
Q
  1. In a patient presenting with an Addisonian crisis, the electrolyte disturbances MOST LIKELY to be seen are

a) hypocalcaemia, hyperkalaemia, hypoNa
b) high BGL, hyperK, hypoNa
c) low BSL, hyperK, hypoNa
d) low BSL, hyperK, hypoNa
e) hyperCa, hyperK, hypoNa

A

Hyperkalemia,
hyponatremia
Occasionalhypoglycemia
Hypercalcemia

KaCa high

Salt and sugar low

Miller’s 10e P. 895
OHA P. 229

63
Q
  1. A local anaesthetic agent that is considered safe to use in a patient with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is

“a) articaine
b) bupivacaine
c) lig
d) prilocaine
e) benzocaine”

A

Bup

“Avoid due to methaemaglobinaemia: benzocaine, lidocaine, articaine, prilocaine; https://accessanesthesiology.mhmedical.com/content.aspx?bookid=572&sectionid=42543607
Bupivacaine - https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC9658825/ “

64
Q
  1. The ANZAAG-ANZCA guideline for management of resistant hypotension during perioperative refractory anaphylaxis in an adult includes all of the following EXCEPT


a. Metaraminol
b. Glucagon
c. Promethazine
d. Vasopressin

other remembered answers
a) fluid bolus 20mL/kg
b) cont Ad
c) NAd inf
d) vaso bolus
e) glucagon”

A

IV fluid bolus (50mL/kg),
norad infusion +/-
vasopressin +/-
metaraminol/phenylephrine,
glucagon (1-2mg Q5m)

Refrac BRONCHOSPASM
- salbutamol
- Mag
- Inh
- Ketamine

65
Q

68. The abnormalities seen in the electrocardiogram below are consistent with

U waves

a) HyperCa
b) HyperMg
c) HyperPhos
d) HypoK
e) HyperK”

A

HypoK
Long QT–> TdP (polymorphic VT)

Monomorphic VT

https://ecgwaves.com/topic/ecg-electrolyte-imbalance-electrolyte-disorder-calcium-potassium-magnesium/

66
Q

69. The following supraglottic airway devices allow direct intubation EXCEPT for the

A

(probably classic, anything with aperture bars)

67
Q

70. The MELD-Na (Model for End-Stage Liver Disease-Sodium) score includes all of the following parameters EXCEPT

a) Bili
b) INR
c) Alb
d) Cr

A

Dialysis, Cr, Bili, INR, Na

68
Q
  1. Postdural puncture headache in obstetric anaesthesia is associated with a greater likelihood of all of the following EXCEPT

a) Sheehan’s
b) Cortical vein thrombosis
c) Bacterial meningitis
d) post partum dep

A

Sheehan

Post–dural puncture headache is associated with a substan- tially increased risk of
cerebral venous thrombosis and sub- dural hematoma (composite adjusted odds ratio [aOR] 19.0 [95% confidence interval (CI) 11.2–32.1]) and bacterial meningitis

(aOR 39.7 (95% CI 13.6–115.1)]. Therefore rec- ognizing, treating and monitoring patients who suffer PDPH is vitally important.384

In addition to the acute, severe symptoms associated with a PDPH, new studies have shown an increased risk of long-term adverse effects such as
**
- chronic back pain,
- chronic headache,
- decreased breast- feeding, postpartum depression, and posttraumatic stress disorder.218–220**

Miller’s

69
Q

72. A healthy woman is admitted to the obstetric unit with threatened preterm labour at 29 weeks gestation. Her blood pressure is 140/80 mmHg. A magnesium sulfate infusion is indicated for the purpose of

“a) maternal seizure prevention
b) foetal lung dev
c) foetal neuroprotection”

A

BP ok
< 34w

Fetal neuroprotection - red incidence of CP

OHA P 870

70
Q

73. Cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) inhibitors in pregnancy are considered

a) not safe
b) safe
c) safe only in 1st trimes
d) safe only in 1st and 3rd trimes
e) not safe for 3rd trimes and 48h post delivery

A

not safe

“NSAIDS cat c except celecoxib B3
APMSE 2020”

71
Q

74. The commonest symptom or sign of uterine rupture during attempted vaginal birth after caesarean is

a) pain between contractions
b) CTG persistent foetal brady
c) variable decels on CTG
d) PV bleed
shoulder tip pain
haematuria”

A

b) CTG persistent foetal brady

The most common sign of uterine rupture during attempted vaginal birth after cesarean (VBAC) is abnormal fetal heart rate tracing, particularly prolonged deceleration or fetal bradycardia. This is consistently reported across multiple clinical guidelines and studies as the most reliable and frequently observed indicator[1][2][4][6][7][11][12].

  1. Abnormal fetal heart rate (FHR) patterns
    • Present in 55–87% of uterine rupture cases[2][6].
    • Prolonged fetal bradycardia (sudden drop in heart rate) is the most consistent finding[7][11].
    • Occurs due to placental separation or compromised uteroplacental circulation during uterine tearing[4][14].
  2. Other supporting signs
    • Severe abdominal pain persisting between contractions, though this may be masked by epidural analgesia[2][3][6][12].
    • Loss of fetal station (recession of the baby’s head into the birth canal)[1][4][6].
    • Maternal tachycardia, hypotension, or signs of shock[1][3][6].
  • While uterine rupture is rare (<1% in VBAC attempts)[1][5], prompt recognition is critical. Abnormal FHR often precedes maternal symptoms[4][11].
  • Continuous electronic fetal monitoring is mandatory during VBAC due to this risk[4][12].

For example, a study cited by BJA Education notes that FHR abnormalities were the first sign in 66–76% of uterine rupture cases[4][12]. UpToDate similarly highlights FHR changes as the most common initial indicator[11].

In summary, vigilance for fetal bradycardia or prolonged deceleration on cardiotocography is paramount, as delayed intervention beyond 10–40 minutes significantly increases neonatal mortality[5][7].

Sources
[1] Uterine Rupture: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment https://www.healthline.com/health/pregnancy/complications-uterine-rupture
[2] Anaesthetic Considerations for Vaginal Birth After Caesarean Delivery https://resources.wfsahq.org/atotw/anaesthetic-considerations-for-vaginal-birth-after-caesarean-delivery/
[3] Uterine rupture https://patient.info/doctor/uterine-rupture
[4] [PDF] Birth After Previous Caesarean Section - WA Health https://www.kemh.health.wa.gov.au/~/media/HSPs/NMHS/Hospitals/WNHS/Documents/Clinical-guidelines/Obs-Gyn-Guidelines/Birth-After-Previous-Caesarean-Section.pdf?thn=0
[5] Uterine Rupture | Childbirth complications | Treatment https://www.drshivahk.com/uterine-rupture/
[6] [PDF] Guideline for the Management of Uterine Rupture - WISDOM https://wisdom.nhs.wales/health-board-guidelines/cwm-taf-maternity-file/uterine-rupture-management-guideline/
[7] Ruptured Uterus https://www.birthinjuryhelpcenter.org/birth-injuries/delivery-complications/uterine-rupture/
[8] Uterine Rupture - Risk Factors - Management - Surgery - TeachMeObGyn https://teachmeobgyn.com/labour/emergencies/uterine-rupture/
[9] Uterine Rupture - StatPearls - NCBI Bookshelf https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK559209/
[10] What Is Uterine Rupture? https://www.webmd.com/baby/what-is-uterine-rupture
[11] Vaginal Birth After Cesarean Delivery - StatPearls - NCBI Bookshelf https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK507844/
[12] 1 https://www.barnsleyhospital.nhs.uk/sites/default/files/2023-07/uterine-rupture.pdf
[13] [PDF] Anaesthetic Considerations for Vaginal Birth After Caesarean Delivery https://resources.wfsahq.org/wp-content/uploads/atow-450-00-1-6.pdf
[14] Uterine Rupture: Signs, Symptoms, Risks & Treatment https://my.clevelandclinic.org/health/diseases/24480-uterine-rupture
[15] [PDF] Supporting Women in their Next Birth After Caesarean Section (NBAC) https://www1.health.nsw.gov.au/pds/ActivePDSDocuments/GL2014_004.pdf
[16] Uterine Rupture: What Family Physicians Need to Know https://www.aafp.org/pubs/afp/issues/2002/0901/p823.html
[17] [PDF] Birth after Caesarean Section - SA Health https://www.sahealth.sa.gov.au/wps/wcm/connect/public+content/sa+health+internet/resources/policies/birth+after+caesarean+section+-+sa+perinatal+practice+guidelines
[18] [PDF] Guideline for the Management of Uterine Rupture - WISDOM https://wisdom.nhs.wales/health-board-guidelines/cwm-taf-maternity-file/guideline-for-the-management-of-uterine-rupture/

71
Q

75. A 50-year-old has had a headache for the last month which is relieved by lying flat. They have had no medical procedure to their spine such as epidural, spinal or lumbar puncture. Their brain magnetic resonance (MR) imaging scan shows diffuse meningeal enhancement and brain sagging. The neurologist suspects spontaneous intracranial hypotension and asks you to do an epidural blood patch. No spinal imaging has been performed to confirm a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak. You should

“a) do LP to measure pressure and if low, do lumbar patch
b) do blood patch at lumbar level with no further Ix
c) do spine Ix, if CSF leak present, do blood patch at level
d) do spine Ix, if CSF leak present, do lumbar blood patch
e) refuse to do blood patch”

A

crack on and do blood patch at lumbar level!!

“UTD ““Dx and Tx of spontaneous intracranial hypotension””
- Want brain MRI AND spine MRI but spine MRI is not to visualise CSF –> Seems to be to image spinal in case there’s a tumor etc or something else prohibiting you from doing an epidural blood patch”

72
Q

76. Following scoliosis surgery, a patient exhibits neurological changes in both legs. There is loss of power and reduced pain and temperature sensation. Proprioception and vibration sense are intact. The most likely mechanism of injury is

“a) misplaced pedicle screw
b) ant spinal art syndrome
c) posterior spinal art syndrome
d) brown-sequard syndrome
e) epi haematoma”

A

Anterior spinal artery syndrome

Lateral spinothalamic tract

“Deranged phys
Power, pain, temp = anterior tracts
priop + vibration = posterior “

73
Q

77. A seven-year-old child is ventilated in the intensive care unit after an isolated closed head injury. Their serum sodium concentration is 142 mmol/L. The most appropriate intravenous maintenance fluid is

a) 0.45% saline + 5% dex
b) 0.9% NS
c) CSL + 5% dex
d) CSL
e) 0.3% saline + 3% dex

A

0.9% NS

“Maintain serum Na >140mmol/L

Aim isotonic solution
Starship kids hospital guideline NZ”

74
Q

78. You are anaesthetising an 18-year-old who has a Fontan circulation for exploratory laparotomy. They are intubated and ventilated with a ventilator that has been brought from the Intensive Care Unit. Their current arterial oxygen saturation is 70%. To improve oxygenation, you should INCREASE the

possible from similar questions:

A. Increasing the inspiratory time.
B. Decreasing the ventilator tidal volumes.
C. Adding positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP).
D. Positioning reverse trendelenberg.
increase AW pressure
increase PIP
increase expiratory time

A

Dec/short Insp time
Inc Exp time

Blue book - 2021

Maintian pulm bf:
Lim peak insp pressure to < 20cmH2o,
short insp time,
avoid excesive PEEP,
reduce RR to < 20

75
Q

79. A 6-year-old child with a history of asthma is intubated and ventilated for tonsillectomy. During surgery, the SpO2 falls. You increase the FiO2 to 1.0 and hand-ventilate, and note that ventilation is difficult. The next step in the management is to

a) deepen anaes
b) give salbutamol
c) ask surgeon to release gag
d) suction ETT
e) increase relaxant

A

C

In this scenario of sudden hypoxemia and difficult ventilation during tonsillectomy in an intubated asthmatic child, option C (ask surgeon to release gag) is the correct next step. Here’s why:

  1. Mechanical obstruction from gag placement is the most likely immediate cause of difficult ventilation during tonsillectomy surgery. The mouth gag used for surgical exposure can compress the endotracheal tube (ETT) against the hard palate or teeth, particularly in pediatric patients with smaller airways.
  2. First-line intervention should focus on relieving reversible iatrogenic causes before addressing bronchospasm (option B) or tube obstruction (option D). Releasing the gag often immediately improves ventilation by relieving ETT compression.
  3. Sequence of action:
    • Release gag → reassess ventilation
    • If persists → suction ETT (option D)
    • If still problematic → consider bronchospasm treatment (option B)

This approach follows the ASA difficult airway algorithm’s emphasis on addressing positional/mechanical causes first in OR emergencies. While bronchospasm (option B) is important in asthmatics, it wouldn’t typically cause sudden onset of difficult ventilation during gag manipulation.

Sources

76
Q

80. You are called to assist with a patient in the intensive care unit who has had cardiac surgery three days ago and is now in cardiac arrest. External cardiac massage should aim for a systolic blood pressure of

A

> 60mmHg

Note
* 50 mmHg start compress in anaphylaxis

CALS
Bedside Notebook

77
Q

81. A 65-year-old man is undergoing coronary artery bypass grafting. Immediately upon commencing cardiopulmonary bypass and prior to administering cardioplegia, the aortic line blood appears the same colour as the blood in the venous cannulae, and the low venous saturation alarm is activated on the bypass machine. The most appropriate management at this point is to

a. Connect extra O2 line to membrane oxygenator directly
b. Clamp aorta and start cardioplegia and continue lung ventilation
c. Wean from bypass and ventilated. Continue bypass and ventilate lungs FiO2 100% (or reinflate lungs)

A

wean from bypass and ventilate

??Failure of oxygenation via oxygenator

78
Q
  1. During rewarming on cardiopulmonary bypass, the most reliable surrogate for cerebral temperature measurement is

a) Bladder temperature
b) Nasopharyngeal temperature
c) Oxygenator arterial outlet blood temperature
d) Oxygenator venous inflow temperature
e) Pulmonary artery temperature

A

Temperatures measured at the nasopharyngeal,
esophageal,
bladder,
rectal, or
skin surface sites underestimate jugular bulb temperature during rewarming.314,315

Because monitoring jugular bulb temperature is not usually feasible, monitoring the temperature of the blood in the arterial line of the CPB circuit is considered the closest surrogate for brain temperature.315,317

Temperature measured in the PA or the nasopharynx (class IIa, Level C) are also reasonable sites to monitor during weaning from CPB.

Miller 10e P. 1620

79
Q

83. The image below is from the transoesophageal echocardiogram of an adult patient who is about to undergo cardiac surgery. The structure labelled with the arrow is the

A

In TOE 4 chamber view, leaflet closest to septum is **anterior mitral leaflet **

80
Q

84. A patient presents for a trans-urethral resection of the prostate (TURP). He had a single drug-eluting coronary stent for angina pectoris inserted six months ago and is taking clopidogrel and aspirin. The most appropriate preoperative management of his medications is to

“a) cease aspirin, cont clopid
b) cease aspirin for 10/7, cease clopid for 5/7
c) cease clopid for 5/7, cont aspirin
d) cease clopid 10/7, cont aspirin
e) cont both aspirin and clopid”

A

BMS 6/12 DAPT
DES 6-12/12 DAPT

If surg mandatory, cease clopid 5/7, cont aspirin

Cease P2Y12 inhibitor
- In high or intermediate risk surgery
- Restart and reload after 24-72 hours

Bedside Notebook

81
Q

85. A 45-year-old received a heart transplant one month ago. They develop a new supraventricular tachyarrhythmia without hypotension during gastroscopy. The most appropriate therapy is

“a) Adenosine
b) Amiodarone
c) Digoxin
d) Esmolol
e) Verapamil”

A

Adenosine
then
B blocker

ACLS/AL2 tachycardia algorithm
? blue book 2021

82
Q

86. According to the 5th National Audit Project (NAP5), the incidence of awareness during general anaesthesia using a non-relaxant technique with a volatile agent is approximately

“a) 1:700
b) 1:8000
c) 1:10,000
d) 1:19,000
e) 1:136,000”

A

1:8000 with muscle relaxant b)

1:670 GA LSCS a)
1:8600 CTS c)
1:8200 volatile + NMBD b)

Overall 1:19,000 d)

e)

83
Q

87. An open Ivor-Lewis oesophagectomy is performed via a

A

Laparotomy and R thoracotomy

Ivor Lewis Esophagectomy

In the Ivor Lewis esphagectomy, the esophageal tumor is removed through an abdominal incision and a right thoracotomy (a surgical incision of the chest wall). The esophagogastric anastomosis (reconnection between the stomach and remaining esophagus) is located in the upper chest.

The first stage consisted of a laparotomy and mobilization of the stomach, and the second stage performed 10 to 15 days later was a right thoracotomy, resection of the esophagus, and esophagastric anastomosis.

https://stanfordhealthcare.org/medical-treatments/e/esophagectomy/types/ivor-lewis-esophagectomy.html

https://www.optechtcs.com/article/S1522-2942(09)00058-0/fulltext

84
Q

88. A 69-year-old patient is dyspnoeic and complains of right shoulder tip pain while in the post-anaesthesia care unit after a laparoscopic-assisted anterior resection. A focused thoracic ultrasound is performed and an image of the right lung is shown below. This represents

85
Q

89. According to the RELIEF study, in major abdominal surgery a liberal fluid strategy (10 mL/kg of crystalloid at induction followed by 8 mL/kg/hour during the case) compared to a restrictive fluid strategy, results in

a) increased bowel anastamosis breakdown
b) incr mortality
c) decreased mortality
d) no difference in wound infec
e) decreased AKI

A

e) decreased AKI

RELIEF Trial: Key Findings Summary

  • Study Design: Large international RCT with 3,000 patients across 47 hospitals in 7 countries undergoing major abdominal surgery.
  • Fluid Protocols: Liberal strategy (10 mL/kg bolus at induction + 8 mL/kg/hr intraoperatively) vs. Restrictive strategy (5 mL/kg bolus + 5 mL/kg/hr intraoperatively).
  • Total Fluid Volumes: Liberal group received median 6.1L vs. restrictive group 3.7L (p<0.001).
  • Acute Kidney Injury: Liberal strategy resulted in significantly lower AKI rates (5.0%) compared to restrictive strategy (8.6%), p<0.001.
  • Renal Replacement Therapy: Trend toward lower requirement in liberal group (0.3% vs 0.9%, p=0.048), not significant after adjustment.
  • Disability-free Survival: No significant difference at 1 year (82.3% liberal vs 81.9% restrictive).
  • Surgical Site Infections: Lower in liberal group (13.6% vs 16.5%, p=0.02), not significant after adjustment.
  • Anastomotic Leak: No statistically significant difference (2.4% liberal vs 3.3% restrictive).
  • Conclusion: Liberal fluid strategy in major abdominal surgery decreased AKI compared to restrictive strategy.

Answer from Perplexity: pplx.ai/share

ANZCA study! The bottom line:

Primary outcome: No difference in disability-free survival up to 1 year after surgery

–> Acute kidney injury at 30 days occurred more commonly in the restrictive fluid group

  • Liberal group - decreased AKI

No difference in mortality or major septic complications

https://www.thebottomline.org.uk/summaries/relief/

86
Q

90. Soon after a peribulbar block, the patient’s eye rapidly becomes proptosed and tense, and the visual acuity is markedly decreased. A lateral canthotomy is indicated to

a) allow globe to continue to swell
b) drain blood from behind eyeball
c) allow eye to proptose
d) reduce pressure on optic nerve

A

Allow eye to proptose

Retrobulbar haemorrhage
reduces orbital compartment pressure

Vision treatment requires prompt intervention with immediate decompression of the expanding hematoma by dissection of the lateral canthus (lateral canthotomy) and disinsertion of at least the inferior crus of the lateral canthal tendon (inferior cantholysis).

This will allow for the globe to prolapse anteriorly relieving the pressure within the orbit.

https://surgeryreference.aofoundation.org/cmf/trauma/midface/further-reading/retrobulbar-hemmorage

87
Q

91. An 85-year-old is scheduled for open reduction and internal fixation of a fractured neck of femur today. They have no significant past medical history. Preoperative review including physical examination, full blood count, electrolyte profile and electrocardiogram performed yesterday were normal. In the anaesthetic bay, the monitor shows the patient to be in atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate of 110 to 145 beats per minute. The blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg. The best initial treatment for the atrial fibrillation is

A. Amiodarone
B. DC cardioversion post induction GA
C. Digoxin
D. Metoprolol
E. Anticoagulate

A

Irregular narrow-complex tachycardia

In the acute care setting the simplest approach to managing this condition is to control the rate of ventricular response. This can be achieved with agents such as oral or intravenous beta blockers (metoprolol 5mg IV) (contraindications would include a history of bronchospasm or evidence of decompensated heart failure) or digoxin (250 mcg to 500mcg IV or PO). In cases of paroxysmal (intermittent) atrial fibrillation many patients revert to a normal heart rhythm spontaneously.

The common symptoms of tachycardia include syncope (fainting), shortness of breath, dizziness, chest pain or palpitations. The following adverse features suggest a need for immediate treatment (see tachycardia algorithm):

  • sBP < 90 mmHg;
  • HR > 150/min;
  • chest pain;
  • heart failure; or
  • drowsiness or confusion

Add:

Regular broad complex tachy = amiodarone 300mg then 900

Irregular broad complex tachy =
AF = BBB = avoid adeno/dig/verap/diltiazem

TdP VT = mag 5mmol over 10min; repeated x1; infusion 20mmmol over 4 hrs

TdP from HB and brady = pacing, sync DC
Avoid amiodarone

https://www.anzcor.org/home/adult-advanced-life-support/guideline-11-9-managing-acute-dysrhythmias/

+ AHA guideline

88
Q

92. A ten-year-old boy (weight 30 kg) has a displaced distal forearm fracture that requires manipulation and application of plaster. The volume of 0.5% lidocaine that should be used for intravenous regional anaesthesia (Bier block) is

A

18mL

Local anaesthetic for the block:

  • Dilute lidocaine (lignocaine) 1% with an equal quantity of normal saline to make a 0.5% solution
    • Lidocaine (lignocaine) dose: 3 mg/kg **(0.6 mL/kg of 0.5%; max 200 mg or 40 mL) **

RCH guidelines - Rec dilute lig to 0.5%

https://www.rch.org.au/clinicalguide/guideline_index/Bier_block/

89
Q

93. A patient for elective general anaesthesia has been noted to be chewing gum in the pre-operative area. The most appropriate course of action is to

A

“Chewing gum and boiled sweets should be discarded prior to inducing anaesthesia to avoid them being
inhaled as a foreign body but do not constitute an indication for delaying any procedure unless they have been ingested.”

PG07

90
Q

94. An eight-year-old child with sickle cell disease is scheduled for emergency fixation of a fractured radius. Their preoperative haemoglobin (Hb) is 80 g/L. The most appropriate management is

a) Blood type and screen
b) exchange transfusion for HbSS < 30%
c) transfuse for Hb >100
d) careful haemostasis

91
Q

95. In neonates, an imaginary line joining the most superior points of the iliac crests will cross the spinal interspace of

A

Intercristal line in NEONATES = L5/S1

92
Q

96. A normal systolic arterial blood pressure in the awake term neonate is approximately

“a) 55mmHg
b) 70
c) 80
d) 90”

A

70mmHg

Oxford Handbook

93
Q

97. A 10-year-old child (weight 30 kg) presents to the emergency department in status epilepticus. They have received one dose of 15 mg midazolam buccally prior to arrival to hospital. According to Advanced Paediatric Life Support Australia guidelines the next drug treatment should be intravenous

“a) midaz
b) prop
c) levetiracetam
d) phenytoin”

A

Midaz 0.15mg/kg

https://www.apls.org.au/algorithm-status-epilepticus

94
Q

98. In a 5-year-old child with severe life-threatening anaphylaxis and no intravenous access, the recommended initial dose of intramuscular adrenaline is

A

IM Ad (paeds)
0-6yo = 150mcg
6-12yrs = 300mcg
q5m in lateral thigh

95
Q

99. A four-year-old child weighing 15 kg develops severe laryngospasm during an inhalational induction. Intravenous access is unobtainable. The recommended dose of intramuscular suxamethonium is

a) 15mg
b) 30mg
c) 60mg

A

4mg/kg

60mg

96
Q

100. In a patient who sustained significant burn injury, the blood concentration of propofol is

a) increased due to reduced CO
b) increased due to dehydration and reduced circ volume
c) reduced due to increased VD and Cl
d) increased due to reduced renal Cl
e) reduced due to increased inflamm cytokines

A

Reduced due to incr VD and Cl

The pharmacokinetic characteristics of a propofol bolus administered in patients with major burns were enhanced clearance and expanded volume of distribution. BURN and WT were the important covariates.
Population pharmacokinetics of a propofol bolus administered in patients with major burns - 2010

97
Q

101. The following is a chest X-ray from a patient with dyspnoea after thoracic surgery. The diagnosis is

a) dextrocardia
b) cardiac herniation
c) LLL collapse
d) tension PTX

A

sail sign

Probably LLL collapse? Look for sail sign or double R heart border

98
Q

102. A patient has blunt chest trauma. A thoracotomy is indicated if the immediate blood drainage after closed thoracostomy is greater than

a) 500mL
b) 750mL
c) 1L
d) 1.2L
e) 1.5L

A

ANZCOR - 1L

2.1.5L

“LITFL:
Massive hemothorax is defined by the need for thoracotomy — the indications are:

Blood loss > 1,500 mL or 1/3rd of blood volume
Blood loss >200 mL/h (3 mL/kg/h) for 2-4 hours”

99
Q

103. B lines (comet tails) in lung ultrasound are NOT observed in

ARDS
ILD
PTX
Normal lung

A

pneumothorax or lung apex

https://academic.oup.com/bjaed/article/16/2/39/2897763

100
Q

104. You have been asked to provide general anaesthesia for a complex thoracic endovascular aortic aneurysm repair. After the placement of a lumbar drain the recommended safe time before the administration of intravenous heparin is

101
Q

105. A 74-year-old presents for a femoral popliteal artery bypass procedure for peripheral limb ischaemia. Regarding its role in modifying their perioperative cardiovascular risk, clonidine

a) increased stroke
b) no change in complications
c) increased death
d) increased non fatal MI
e) increased risk of non fatal cardiac arrest

A

incr risk non fatal cardiac arrest

POISE2 trial: Conclusions: Administration of low-dose clonidine in patients undergoing noncardiac surgery did not reduce the rate of the composite outcome of death or nonfatal myocardial infarction; it did, however, increase the risk of clinically important hypotension and nonfatal cardiac arrest.

102
Q

106. A 65-year-old presents with an acute dissection of their thoracic aorta. Their blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg. The best medication to reduce the blood pressure is

a) esmolol
b) SNP
c) HTN
d) hydralazine

A

esmolol

Answer:
a) esmolol

Rationale:
In acute aortic dissection, the primary therapeutic goals are to reduce systolic blood pressure (target <120 mmHg) and lower the rate of pressure rise (dP/dt) to minimize aortic wall stress. Beta-blockers like esmolol are first-line agents because they achieve both objectives by reducing heart rate and myocardial contractility[1][2][5][7]. Esmolol’s ultra-short half-life (9 minutes) allows precise titration, making it ideal for unstable patients[1][2].

Vasodilators like sodium nitroprusside (SNP) or hydralazine are contraindicated as monotherapy due to reflex tachycardia, which increases dP/dt and propagation risk[2][8]. Guidelines explicitly state hydralazine should not be used in aortic dissection[3][6][8]. SNP may be added after beta-blockade for additional blood pressure control[2][7]. HTN (hypertension) is not a medication. Thus, esmolol is the optimal initial choice[1][5][7][10].

Citations:
[1] https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/32354528/
[2] https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/2062452-medication
[3] https://www.bhs.org.au/bhsapps/govdoc/gdhtml/GDDRG0034-25949-63479.pdf
[4] https://nyulangone.org/conditions/aortic-dissection/treatments/medication-for-aortic-dissection
[5] https://institutionalrepository.aah.org/cgi/viewcontent.cgi?article=1077&context=sciday
[6] https://www.ahajournals.org/doi/10.1161/ATVBAHA.118.310956
[7] https://journals.sagepub.com/doi/10.1177/17511437231162219
[8] https://www.uhbw.nhs.uk/assets/1/22-201_aortic_dissection_redacted.pdf
[9] https://aci.health.nsw.gov.au/networks/eci/clinical/tools/cardiology/aortic-dissection
[10] https://litfl.com/acute-aortic-dissection/
[11] https://www.annalscts.com/article/view/4188/pdf
[12] https://pmc.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/articles/PMC10726980/
[13] https://www.emra.org/emresident/article/thoracic-aortic-dissection
[14] https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK518965/
[15] https://coreem.net/core/aortic-dissection/
[16] https://academic.oup.com/bjaed/article/9/1/14/465697
[17] https://www.ahajournals.org/doi/10.1161/CIR.0000000000001106
[18] https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK470296/
[19] https://www.bloodpressureclinic.ed.ac.uk/sites/default/files/atoms/files/type_b_aortic_dissection.pdf
[20] https://emcrit.org/ibcc/htn/
[21] https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK441963/
[22] https://www.ahajournals.org/doi/10.1161/CIRCRESAHA.118.312436

“Up TO Date
Initial treatment consists typically of an intravenous beta blocker to reduce the heart rate to 60 to 80 beats/minute [75]. Esmolol is useful in the acute setting due to its short half-life and ability to titrate to effect –> Then SNP”

103
Q
  1. The strongest independent preoperative predictor of chronic postsurgical pain after knee arthroplasty is

A. Anxiety
B. Catastrophising
C. Depression
D. Female
E. Pain at other sites

A

Catastrophising

APMSE p24

104
Q
  1. The analgesic drug with the most favourable Number Needed to Treat (NNT) for neuropathic pain is

A. Gabapentin 6.3
B. Venlafaxine 6.4
C. Pregabalin 7.7
D. Tramadol
E. Methadone
F. Duloxetine
G. Amitriptyline

A

Amitriptyline 3.6

Tramadol (NNT 4.4)

APMSE p 137

105
Q

109. Self-report of pain in children is usually possible by the age of

A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

A

RCH guidelines

Wong-baker by age 4

Visual analogue scale by age 8

106
Q

110. A 30-year-old has had a free-flap operation of eight hours duration. They received an intraoperative remifentanil infusion and 10 mg morphine 30 minutes before the end of the operation. During recovery their pain score increased from 6/10 on arrival to 9/10 despite a further 10 mg of intravenous morphine. The most likely diagnosis is

A. Acute behav change
B. OIH
C. Inadequate analgesia
D. Physical dependence

107
Q

111. Tranexamic acid is NOT useful in the management of

a) post cardiac bypass
b) neurotrauma
c) PPH
d) trauma
e) UGI bleed

A

Tranexamic Acid Efficacy in Different Clinical Scenarios

Tranexamic acid (TXA) is an antifibrinolytic agent that inhibits the enzymatic breakdown of fibrinogen and fibrin by plasmin. While it has proven beneficial in several clinical scenarios involving hemorrhage, its efficacy is not universal across all bleeding conditions.

Evaluation of Tranexamic Acid Across Clinical Settings

Cardiac Surgery Applications

TXA demonstrates significant benefit in cardiac surgery settings. The ATACAS trial, which examined tranexamic acid use in patients undergoing coronary artery surgery, found that TXA was “associated with a lower risk of bleeding than was placebo, without a higher risk of death or thrombotic complications within 30 days after surgery”[3]. While TXA did increase the risk of postoperative seizures, its hemostatic benefits were clear, with significantly reduced blood product transfusion requirements and fewer reoperations for bleeding[3][8].

Neurotrauma Management

In traumatic brain injury (TBI), the CRASH-3 trial demonstrated that timely TXA administration reduces mortality in specific patient groups. Particularly beneficial effects were observed “in patients with reactive pupils and those with a mild to moderate GCS at baseline”[4]. The trial emphasized that treatment delay reduces benefit, highlighting the importance of early administration[4][9].

Postpartum Hemorrhage

The WOMAN trial provided compelling evidence for TXA in postpartum hemorrhage (PPH). Results showed that when administered within 3 hours of birth, TXA “can reduce the risk of death due to bleeding by one-third and the need for surgery to stop bleeding by over one-third”[5][10]. With PPH being a leading cause of maternal mortality worldwide, this represents a significant clinical advance in obstetric care.

Trauma-Related Hemorrhage

The landmark CRASH-2 trial established TXA’s role in trauma management. This international study demonstrated mortality benefits when TXA was administered to bleeding trauma patients, particularly when given early after injury[6][11]. The evidence has been robust enough to influence trauma protocols globally.

Gastrointestinal Bleeding

In stark contrast to the aforementioned scenarios, the HALT-IT trial found that TXA provides no mortality benefit in gastrointestinal bleeding. This international, randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled trial involving 12,009 patients conclusively demonstrated that “tranexamic acid did not reduce death from gastrointestinal bleeding”[16]. The trial reported “death due to bleeding within 5 days of randomisation occurred in 222 (4%) of 5956 patients in the tranexamic acid group and in 226 (4%) of 5981 patients in the placebo group (risk ratio [RR] 0·99, 95% CI 0·82-1·18)”[16].

More concerning, the study found that TXA was “associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolic events (deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism)”[16]. The trial investigators explicitly concluded that “tranexamic acid should not be used for the treatment of gastrointestinal bleeding outside the context of a randomised trial”[16].

Conclusion

Based on the comprehensive evidence from major clinical trials, tranexamic acid has proven beneficial in cardiac surgery, traumatic brain injury, postpartum hemorrhage, and general trauma management. However, the HALT-IT trial clearly establishes that TXA is not useful in the management of upper gastrointestinal bleeding, where it shows no benefit and potential harm.

Therefore, the correct answer is e) UGI bleed.

Citations:
[1] https://pmc.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/articles/PMC6668177/
[2] https://txacentral.lshtm.ac.uk/gi-bleeding/
[3] https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/27774838/
[4] https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/32076783/
[5] https://www.thebottomline.org.uk/summaries/icm/woman-trial/
[6] https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/23477634/
[7] https://bmjopen.bmj.com/content/bmjopen/13/2/e059982.full.pdf
[8] https://www.ahajournals.org/doi/10.1161/CIRCULATIONAHA.124.069606
[9] https://pmc.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/articles/PMC3481366/
[10] https://txacentral.lshtm.ac.uk/post-partum-haemorrhage/
[11] https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1155/2015/874920
[12] https://www.thebottomline.org.uk/summaries/halt-it/
[13] https://bmjopen.bmj.com/content/13/2/e059982
[14] https://www.theresusroom.co.uk/courses/txa-in-gi-bleeds/
[15] https://www.thelancet.com/journals/lancet/article/PIIS0140-6736(20)308485/fulltext
[16] https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/32563378/
[17] https://ashpublications.org/ashclinicalnews/news/5319/Tranexamic-Acid-for-Gastrointestinal-Bleeding-Time
[18] https://www.thelancet.com/journals/lancet/article/PIIS0140-6736(20)30975-2/fulltext
[19] https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/7793735/
[20] https://txacentral.lshtm.ac.uk/wp-content/uploads/2021/03/CRASH-3_neuroprotective-effect-of-tranexamic-acid.pdf
[21] https://pmc.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/articles/PMC2864262/
[22] https://www.journalslibrary.nihr.ac.uk/hta/HTA17100
[23] https://jamanetwork.com/journals/jama/fullarticle/2794565
[24] https://www.thebottomline.org.uk/summaries/crash-3/
[25] https://www.thelancet.com/journals/lancet/article/PIIS0140-6736(17)30638-4/fulltext
[26] https://www.thelancet.com/journals/lancet/article/PIIS0140-6736(10)60835-5/fulltext
[27] https://www.thelancet.com/journals/lancet/article/PIIS0140-6736(19)32233-0/fulltext
[28] https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/28456509/
[29] https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK260390/
[30] https://www.thelancet.com/article/S0140-6736(19)32312-8/fulltext

Answer from Perplexity: pplx.ai/share

“Multiple trials with TXA
- CRASH-2 showed reduction in 28-day mortality in patients who received TXA within 3 hours of injury
- CRASH-3 was a trial of TXA in head injured patients. The group with mild-moderate head injury benefited from TXA, but overall there was no significant effect
- TRAAP2 showed the use of prophylactic TXA for caesarean delivery reduces the rates of PPH as defined by an estimated blood loss of > 1000ml or red cell transfusion by day 2
- HALT-IT showed TXA does not reduce death from GI bleeding and should not be used as part of a uniform approach to treat GI bleeding + harm shown
- ATACAS 2017 showed the use of TXA was associated with a lower risk of bleeding post-operatively and was not associated with increased risk of death or thrombotic effects when compared to the administration of a placebo”

108
Q

112. A drug that is contraindicated for a patient with a history of heparin induced thrombocytopaenia is

a) bivalirudin
b) danaparoid
c) prothrombinex
d) fib conc
e) argatroban

A

Prothrombinex - contains heparin

“Bivalirudin is the non-heparin agent of choice for anticoag in HIT - UTD
Danaparoid is a non-heparin anticoagulant used to treat HIT - NSW Guideline”

109
Q

113. The use of intraoperative dexamethasone for tonsillectomy

a) Increased oedema
b) Increased post tonsillectomy bleed
c) Increased Analgesic requirement
d) Reduced time to resumption of oral intake

A

Reduced time to resumption of oral intake

110
Q

114. A patient experiences a postpartum haemorrhage associated with uterine atony that is unresponsive to oxytocin and ergometrine. The recommended intramuscular dose of carboprost (15-methyl prostaglandin F2 alpha) to be administered is

“a) 250mcg IM once
b) 250mcg IM Q15min, up to 2mg
c) 500mcg IM
d) 250mcg IV
e) 500mcg IV”

A

“250mcg IM Q15min, up to 2mg

111
Q
  1. The oral morphine equivalent of tapentadol 50 mg (immediate release) is

“a) 5mg
b) 10mg
c) 15mg
d) 20mg
e) 25mg”

112
Q

116. A patient with known suxamethonium allergy is most likely to demonstrate cross reactivity with

“a) pancuronium 11
b) vecuronium 22
c) atracurium
d) rocuronium 33
e) cisatracurium”

A

rocuronium (24% - fig 4)

NAP6

113
Q

117. The correct blood collection tube for a mast cell tryptase test is a

“a. Potassium EDTA
b. serum separating tube
c. sodium citrate
d. sodium oxalate something
heparin
lithium”

A

SST/serum tube (Gold top)

https://www.rcpa.edu.au/Manuals/RCPA-Manual/Pathology-Tests/T/Tryptase

114
Q

118. Once a unit of fresh packed red blood cells has been removed from controlled refrigeration the transfusion should be completed within

“a. 2 hours
b. 4 hours
c. 6 hours
d. 8 hours
e. 10 hours”

A

4 hrs

https://www.lifeblood.com.au/health-professionals/clinical-practice/transfusion-process/administration

115
Q

119. A previously healthy 22-year-old man is involved in an altercation and sustains a ruptured spleen. During splenectomy he is transfused with packed red blood cells. One hour into the transfusion his SpO2 rapidly decreases, his ventilator pressures increase, frothy sputum appears in the endotracheal tube and he is febrile. The likely cause is

“a) TRALI
b) TACO
c) Resus incompatibility
d) Anaphylaxis
e) infection”

A

TRALI

https://www.lifeblood.com.au/health-professionals/clinical-practice/adverse-events/TRALI

116
Q
  1. The main difference between a size 5 microlaryngeal tube (MLT) and a standard size 5 endotracheal tube is that the size 5 MLT

“A. Smaller cuff
B. Longer length
C. Larger external diameter”

A

longer length

https://aam.ucsf.edu/microlaryngoscopy-tube-mlt%C2%AE

117
Q

121. When using an endotracheal tube in an adult, the highest recommended cuff pressure to avoid mucosal ischaemia is

“a. 10cmH2O
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40
e. 50”

A

30cmH20

30cmh20 - thats the top of the green zone

118
Q

122. The sensor on a NIM (Nerve Integrity Monitor) endotracheal tube used for thyroid surgery directly records

“a. Electromyography of internal laryngeal muscles
b. Recurrent laryngeal nerve action potential
c. Movement of the vocal cords on the endotracheal tube
d. Pressure of the vocal cords on the endotracheal tube

119
Q

123. Double sequential external defibrillation is performed by applying two shocks from


a. Single set of pads, < 1 second apart
b. Single set of pads, < 5 seconds apart
c. Two sets of pads, < 1 second apart
d. Two sets of pads, < 5 seconds apart
e. Two sets of pads, simultaneously”

A

“Two defibrillators with pads in 2 different planes (AL, AP)
note - DSED better neurologic outcomes and survival to d/c vs standard defib in refractory VF
< 1 sec”

“https://www.nejm.org/doi/full/10.1056/NEJMoa2207304

"”two near-simultaneous defibrillation shocks provided by two defibrillators”””

120
Q

124. The initial management for a seizure during an awake craniotomy is

“a) cold saline irrigation
b) midaz
c) prop
d) keppra”

A

Cold saline irrigation

SMACC quick reference guidelines #9

121
Q
  1. A new antiemetic reduces the risk of post-operative vomiting by 20%. In a population with a baseline risk of post-operative vomiting of 10%, the number needed to treat is

“a) 2
b) 5
c) 10
d) 20
3) 50”

122
Q

126. A risk factor which increases the likelihood of developing local anaesthetic systemic toxicity is

“a) Hypoxia
b) Alkalaemia
c) High alpha1-acid glycoprotein
d) Hypocarbia
e) Increased carnitine levels”

A

“a) Hypoxia
b) Alkalaemia
c) High alpha1-acid glycoprotein
d) Hypocarbia
e) Increased carnitine levels”

hypoxia (decreases protein binding as per BJA)

“https://litfl.com/local-anaesthetic-toxicity-ccc/
risk factors: type of LA and dose, site of injection, the patient’s comorbidities, extremes of age, and small size or limited muscle mass, organ dysfunction (cardiac, hepatic, renal), the serum level of the binding proteins, and age. Worse with hypoxia, hypercarbia, acidosis. Carnitine deficiency may predispose to toxicity - https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/21537157/
alpha 1 GP binds amide LA. Lower levels -> increased toxicity risk”

123
Q

127. The image below shows results from non-inferiority trials. The trial labelled ‘M’ is best described as

“a) Non-inferiority is not demonstrated
b) Non-inferiority is demonstrated
c) Superiority is demonstrated
d) Inferiority is demonstrated”Non-inferiority is not demonstrated

A

Non-inferiority is not demonstrated

124
Q

128. A 30-year-old athlete undergoing a knee arthroscopy under general anaesthesia develops intraoperative tachycardia. A 12-lead electrocardiogram is obtained and shown below. The most likely diagnosis is

“a) Atrial fibrillation
b) Atrial flutter
c) Sinus tachycardia
d) WPW”

125
Q

129. Analysis of variance (ANOVA) is a statistical test to determine

“a) comparisons of means between two groups in normally distributed data
b) comparisons of means between two groups in non-normally distributed data
c) comparisons of means between three groups (unpaired) in normally distr data
d) comparisons of means between three groups (unpaired) in non-normally dist data”

A

comparisons of means between three groups (unpaired) in normally distr data

BJA

126
Q

130. When performing a brachial plexus block at the level of the axilla, the structure indicated by the arrow is the

127
Q

131. A third heart sound at the apex may be heard in

a) pulm stenosis
b) pulm HTN
c) pericarditis
d) preg
Mitral regurg
Normal in ages up to 40yrs

A

Pregnancy - 3rd heart sound reflects rapid LV distension along with increased AV flow

128
Q

132. In pulmonary function testing the presence of airflow limitation is defined by a post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio less than

a) 0.5
b) 0.6
c) 0.7
d) 0.8

129
Q

133. Local anaesthetic-induced myotoxicity is most likely to be associated with

A. Biers
B. Interscalene
C. Sciatic
D. Adductor Canal
E. femoral block

A

Adductor Canal

adductor canal block - https://www.bjanaesthesia.org/article/S0007-0912(18)30572-5/pdf

130
Q

134. Regarding healthcare research, the PICO framework describes

“a) critical appraisal
b) meta-analysis
c) observational study
d) systematic review”

A

Critical appraisal

131
Q

135. The 12-lead electrocardiogram shown is most consistent with acute total occlusion of the

a) Post desc
b) RCA
c) LAD
d) OM

A

RCA - inferior - II III aVF
LAD - anterior - V3 V4
OM - LCx - lateral - I aVL V5 V6
Post - RCA/RCx - V7 V8 V9 (reciprocal STD V1-V3)

132
Q

136. A 70-year-old patient booked for a revision total hip replacement is reviewed in preadmission clinic ten days before surgery. The following blood test results are noted: haemoglobin 110 g/L; ferritin 51 mcg/L; CRP (c-reactive protein) 10 mg/L. The most appropriate management for this patient should be to

a) tf 2u PRBC
b) give oral Fe therapy and cont surgery
c) give ora Fe therapy and defer surgery
d) give IV Fe
e) do nothing

A

Give IV iron **

Serum ferritin level < 30 μg.l−1 is the most sensitive and specific test used for the identification of absolute iron deficiency. However, in the presence of inflammation (C-reactive protein > 5 mg.l−1) and/or transferrin saturation < 20%, a serum ferritin level < 100 μg.l−1 is indicative of iron deficiency.

Hb 110 (< 130) = anaemia
CRP 10mg/L = inflammation
Ferritin < 100 = iron deficiency
10 days pre op ( < 6 weeks dx)

= IV iron

https://associationofanaesthetists-publications.onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1111/anae.13773

International consensus statement on the peri-operative management of anaemia and iron deficiency

Sufficient data exist to support intravenous iron as efficacious and safe. Intravenous iron should be used as front-line therapy in patients who do not respond to oral iron or are not able to tolerate it, or if surgery is planned for < 6 weeks after the diagnosis of iron deficiency.

Ferritin < 30 = PO iron
Ferritin 30-100 = IV iron

133
Q

137. A 55-year-old with no past history of ischaemic heart disease is three days post-total hip replacement surgery. They have an episode of chest pain at rest with features typical of angina that lasts 30 minutes before fully resolving. There are no electrocardiogram changes and no troponin rise. The diagnosis is

a) no Dx made
b) unstable angina
c) STEMI
d) NSTEMI
e) MINS

A

Unstable angina (no trop rise)

(NSTEMI and MINS will both have trop rise)

134
Q

138. The QRS axis of the attached electrocardiograph is closest to

a) -90
b) -45
c) +45
d) +90

A

Normal 0 to 90 deg
LAD 0 to - 90
extreme axis -90 to 180

135
Q

139. In septic shock, the recommended target mean arterial pressure in an adult is

“50mmHg
55
60
65
70
75”

A

65

Norad first line

Surviving sepsis guidelines 2021

136
Q

140. A 50-year-old patient with carcinoid syndrome undergoing resection of a peripheral hepatic metastasis develops a sudden fall in blood pressure from 110/70 mmHg to 85/50 mmHg without significant bleeding. The most appropriate management is

“a. Normal saline bolus
b. Octreotide 50mcg bolus
c. Metaraminol 0.5mg
d. Noradrenaline 5mcg bolus
e. Calcium 6.8mmol”

A

octreotide bolus

https://academic.oup.com/bjaed/article/11/1/9/285683

137
Q

141. In cardiac surgery a low-normal central venous pressure and a low blood pressure with a hyperdynamic heart is suggestive of

“a) hypovol
b) vasopleg
c) LV dysFx
cardiomyopathy”

A

Vasoplegia

Hemodynamic Profile in Cardiac Surgery: Low-Normal CVP, Hypotension, and Hyperdynamic Heart

Hemodynamic monitoring during cardiac surgery provides critical information about a patient’s cardiovascular status. When confronted with a pattern of low-normal central venous pressure (CVP), low blood pressure, and a hyperdynamic heart, clinicians must correctly identify the underlying pathophysiology to implement appropriate treatment strategies. This specific hemodynamic profile strongly suggests vasoplegia, but it’s important to understand why this is the case and rule out other potential conditions.

Vasoplegia as the Correct Answer

Vasoplegia is defined as hypotension and low systemic vascular resistance (SVR) despite normal or elevated cardiac index, a complication frequently following cardiac surgery[1]. This hemodynamic profile perfectly matches the scenario described: low blood pressure (hypotension) with a hyperdynamic heart (indicating normal or elevated cardiac output) and a low-normal CVP.

The pathophysiology of vasoplegia involves profound vasodilation leading to increased vascular capacitance. This excessive vasodilation results in relative hypovolemia despite potentially normal total blood volume, explaining the low-normal CVP[8]. The heart attempts to compensate for this decreased vascular resistance by increasing cardiac output, resulting in the hyperdynamic state described in the question.

Vasoplegia is a common complication following cardiovascular surgery with cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB), with an incidence varying from 5% to 44%[4]. It represents a distributive form of shock characterized by a significant drop in vascular resistance. The pathophysiology involves multiple mechanisms, including activation of inflammatory pathways, excessive nitric oxide production, and vascular smooth muscle cell hyperpolarization through potassium channel activation[6][8].

Why Hypovolemia is Incorrect

Hypovolemia refers to a decreased intravascular volume state. While hypovolemia can certainly cause low blood pressure and low CVP, it doesn’t typically maintain a hyperdynamic cardiac state when severe enough to cause hypotension[5]. In significant hypovolemia, the heart initially becomes hyperdynamic as a compensatory mechanism, but as volume depletion continues, cardiac output eventually decreases due to inadequate preload.

The extreme hyperdynamic state (EHS) described in one study is characterized by SVR below 450 dynes × s/cm^5 and a cardiac output above 7 L/min/m^2, but this was observed in conditions like cirrhosis and sepsis rather than pure hypovolemia[5]. In cardiac surgery, persistent hyperdynamic circulation with hypotension despite adequate volume replacement strongly points toward vasoplegia rather than simple hypovolemia.

Why LV Dysfunction is Incorrect

Left ventricular dysfunction presents with a fundamentally different hemodynamic profile than the one described. LV dysfunction typically causes:

  1. Elevated CVP (not low-normal) due to backward failure and congestion in the venous system
  2. Low blood pressure due to reduced forward flow
  3. Reduced cardiac output (not hyperdynamic)[2]

Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction is actually a risk factor for developing vasoplegia, with studies showing increased incidence of vasoplegia up to 74% in patients with poor LV function (EF < 37%) exposed to prolonged CPB duration[4]. This suggests that the hyperdynamic state described in the question cannot be attributed to LV dysfunction.

Why Cardiomyopathy is Incorrect

Cardiomyopathy, particularly dilated cardiomyopathy, presents with hemodynamics similar to LV dysfunction:

  1. Elevated filling pressures, including increased CVP
  2. Low blood pressure from decreased forward flow
  3. Reduced cardiac output

The hemodynamic profile would show a failing heart unable to generate adequate cardiac output, not the hyperdynamic state described in the question[7]. Like LV dysfunction, cardiomyopathy is characterized by impaired contractility, which is inconsistent with the hyperdynamic heart mentioned in the scenario.

Conclusion

The combination of low-normal CVP, low blood pressure, and a hyperdynamic heart in cardiac surgery most strongly suggests vasoplegia. This distributive shock state commonly occurs after cardiopulmonary bypass due to systemic inflammatory response, nitric oxide overproduction, and vasopressin deficiency, leading to pathologic vasodilation[1][4]. The other options—hypovolemia, LV dysfunction, and cardiomyopathy—each have hemodynamic profiles that differ significantly from the pattern described in the question, making vasoplegia the correct diagnosis.

Citations:
[1] https://www.eajm.org/Content/files/sayilar/221/92-100.pdf
[2] https://litfl.com/cvp-measurement/
[3] https://www.ahajournals.org/doi/10.1161/JAHA.117.008377
[4] https://pmc.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/articles/PMC9658078/
[5] https://pmc.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/articles/PMC29017/
[6] https://www.mdpi.com/2077-0383/11/21/6407
[7] https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1111/jocs.15805
[8] https://pmc.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/articles/PMC6035427/
[9] https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK519493/
[10] https://pmc.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/articles/PMC10402787/
[11] https://www.racgp.org.au/afp/2014/may/dizziness
[12] https://www.medintensiva.org/en-how-use-echocardiography-manage-patients-articulo-S217357272300200X
[13] https://www.mdpi.com/1648-9144/60/12/2064
[14] https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1111/liv.13589
[15] https://criticalcarenow.com/vasoplegia/
[16] https://academic.oup.com/ejcts/article/25/3/327/379777
[17] https://emcrit.org/pulmcrit/mythbusting-empty-ivc-hyperkinetic-heart-%E2%89%A0-volume-depletion/
[18] https://jeccm.amegroups.org/article/view/5248/html
[19] https://www.medintensiva.org/en-factors-associated-with-vasoplegic-shock-articulo-S217357272400081X
[20] https://www.ahajournals.org/doi/10.1161/circulationaha.108.803965

Answer from Perplexity: pplx.ai/share

138
Q
  1. One metabolic equivalent (1MET) is defined as the

“a) O2 consump during walking 4km/h (METS 2-3)
b) O2 consump at rest
c) Energy consump while walking at 4km/h
d) Energy consump during rest”

A

O2 consumption at rest

139
Q
  1. According to the Australian and New Zealand Committee on Resuscitation guidelines, the minimum distance a defibrillation pad should be placed away from a pacemaker or implantable cardiac defibrillator generator is

“a. 4 cm
b. 8 cm
c. 12 cm
d. 16 cm
e. 20 cm”

A

8cm

https://www.resus.org.nz/assets/Uploads/ANZCOR-Guideline-11.4-Elect-Jan16.pdf

140
Q
  1. A 25-year-old sustains a burn to 30% of their total body surface area. A physiological change expected within the first 24 hours is

“a) incr Cl
b) decr SVR
c) incr PVR
d) incr hepatic bf”

A

Incr pulmonary vascular resistance

-

“UTD
- decrease in cardiac output up to 60% therefore decrease in cardiac index
- Increased SVR due to vasopressin
- increased hep bf only after 48h”

141
Q

145. When inadvertent total spinal anaesthesia occurs in an awake neonate, the first sign is most likely to be

“a) decre HR
b) decr BP
c) desat
d) LOC”

A

Desat

In an awake neonate experiencing inadvertent total spinal anaesthesia, desaturation due to respiratory compromise is most likely to be the first observable clinical sign, followed by cardiovascular changes and eventually loss of consciousness if the condition progresses without intervention. (Perplexity)

Cote’s Practice of Anaes for Infants

142
Q

146. A bleeding patient has ROTEM results including: [table attached]. The most appropriate treatment is

143
Q

147. A 54-year-old has a laryngeal mask airway inserted for a surgical procedure. The following day it is noted that the tongue is deviated to the right. The most likely site of nerve injury is the right

“a) Glossopharyngeal nerve - posterior 1/3 tongue sensation and taste
b) Lingual nerve - anterior 2/3 tongue sensation
c) Facial nerve
d) Vagus nerve
e) Hypoglossal nerve - tongue motor function”

A

More serious injury results from neuropraxia associated with pressure on cranial nerves from the tube (lingual nerve), or cuff (hypoglossal and recurrent laryngeal nerves) of the SAD have been reported in small case series. Injury to the lingual nerve usually presents as loss of taste and sensation to the tip of the tongue,hypoglossal nerve as dysphagia, and recurrent laryngeal nerve as altered voice and rarely, stridor.

Iatrogenic airway injury BJA Education, 18(10): 310e316 (2018)

144
Q

148. The nerve marked by the arrow is the

145
Q

149. In an adult weighing 70 kg, a bedside assessment of haemodynamic status shows a left ventricular end-diastolic diameter of 2.4 cm. This finding suggests

“a) hypovol
b) normal
c) hypervol”

A

hypovolaemia

Normal ED cm = 3.5-5.6cm

146
Q

150. For driving pressure guided ventilation, driving pressure is the

a) Pplat - PEEP
b) Peak pressure-peep
c) plateau pressure”

A

ΔP = Pplat – PEEP

Clinical need

Protective lung ventilation strategies and ‘open lung’ approaches are associated with less ventilator-induced lung injury (VILI), improved oxygenation and improved outcomes
Important components of these strategies all decrease stress on the lung:
    lower tidal volumes
    lower plateau pressure
    higher PEEP

Conclusion:
1. Titrating VT to prevent ΔP >13 cmH2O, if has minimal costs in terms of CO2 clearance, appears to be a reasonable adjunct to a protective lung ventilation approach
2. However, the use of driving pressure is yet to be subjected to a high quality randomised controlled trial confirming its clinical utility and safety
3. Optimal threshold for ΔP, if any, is unknown (various studies suggests targets in the range of 10-15 cmH2O).

“https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC7280884/

https://litfl.com/driving-pressure/”