Canine Top 20 Diseases - Part 4 Flashcards

1
Q

what is the classic case presentation of a dog with pancreatitis?

A

can be acute, chronic, or subclinical

history of dietary indiscretion/high-fat diet/blunt abdominal trauma

vomiting, anorexia, diarrhea, abdominal pain, weakness/dehydration

med history of KBr, azathioprine, l-asparaginase, phenobarbital, & thiazide diuretics

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2
Q

what dog breed is over-represented by pancreatitis?

A

mini schnauzers

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3
Q

how is pancreatitis in a dog diagnosed?

A

snap cPL test (very sensitive)

if positive, confirm with spec cPLI test (highly specific for both acute & chronic pancreatitis)

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4
Q

what is seen on abdominal ultrasound of a dog with pancreatitis?

A

enlarged hypoechoic pancreas

hyperechoic peri-pancreatic fat

fluid around the pancreas

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5
Q

T/F: 4-5X elevation of lipase & amylase are only suggestive towards a diagnosis of pancreatitis (only 50% sensitivity/specificity)

A

true

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6
Q

how is pancreatitis treated?

A

aggressive fluid therapy with appropriate additives based on lab work

pain meds - opioids or lidocaine CRI, anti nausea meds, enteral nutrition support

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7
Q

T/F: antibiotics should be avoided if possible when treating a dog for pancreatitis

A

true

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8
Q

what does the prognosis of pancreatitis depend on? what are negative prognostic factors?

A

depends on the severity of disease

multiple organ failure, acidosis, hypocalcemia, peritonitis, & DIC

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9
Q

T/F: corticosteroids are considered to be a cause of pancreatitis

A

false - used to be, but no longer contraindicated

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10
Q

what is the classic case presentation of kennel cough?

A

exposure to or housed with large numbers of other animals

acute onset non-productive cough that may end in a retch

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11
Q

what is the etiology that causes kennel cough?

A

viruses - canine parainfluenza, canine influenza, canine adenovirus-2, & sometimes distemper

b. bronchiseptica

mycoplasma

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12
Q

how is kennel cough diagnosed?

A

history/clinical signs are strongly suggestive

bacterial culture or PCR of bordetella bronchiseptica from nasal or oropharyngeal swabs, TTW, or BAL

thoracic rads - signs of bronchopneumonia if severe

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13
Q

if there is no secondary pneumonia, how long will it take for kennel cough to resolve?

A

7-10 days

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14
Q

what is the recommended treatment for kennel cough?

A

cough suppressants for persistent dry cough - hydrocodone or torb

for bronchopneumonia - antibiotics, nebulization with sterile saline +/- gentamicin, iv fluids, & oxygen therapy

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15
Q

how is kennel cough prevented?

A

vaccination - modified live combo or intranasal can reduce infection rate/severity

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16
Q

T/F: kennel cough is highly contagious, so if an animal needs to be hospitalized for treatment, it needs to be quarantined

A

true

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17
Q

what is the classic case presentation of megaesophagus?

A

regurgitation, coughing/drooling, weight loss, weakness (if due to MG, polyneuropathy, or polymyopathy), & +/- signs of pneumonia

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18
Q

how is megaesophagus diagnosed?

A

thoracic rads - air-filled dilated esophagus +/- secondary aspiration pneumonia best seen on the VD view

test for underlying conditions - MG, ACTH stim for addison’s, free T4 for hypothyroid

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19
Q

how is megaesophagus treated?

A

treat the underlying condition & aspiration pneumonia

upright feeding with gruel or meatballs

cisapride - aid in gastric emptying to reduce esophageal reflux

proton pump inhibitors - help decrease gastric reflux

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20
Q

what breeds are predisposed to congenital megaesophagus?

A

german shepherds, mini schnauzers, & fox terriers

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21
Q

what cardiac abnormality should be ruled out in a puppy with megaesophagus?

A

vascular ring anomaly

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22
Q

what are 2 drugs that can temporarily cause megaesophagus?

A

ketamine & xylazine

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23
Q

T/F: most dogs with megaesophagus usually die secondarily due to aspiration pneumonia

24
Q

what is the classic case presentation of osteosarcoma?

A

large or giant breed dogs with a bimodal age incidence (1.5-2 years & 7-9 years)

chronic, progressive lameness or acute if there is a pathologic fracture & a cough if pulmonary mets are present

25
what is the classic case presentation of mammary chain tumors in dogs?
palpable mammary chain mass or ulceration seen in intact or late spayed females
26
what is the classic case presentation of mast cell tumors in dogs?
cutaneous or subcutaneous mass that may shrink/swell intermittently +/- pruritic if degranulation happens - vomiting, diarrhea, & melena
27
what dog breeds are predisposed to getting mast cell tumors?
boxer, boston, goldens, labs, & pugs
28
what is the classic case presentation of canine lymphoma?
generalized lymphadenopathy anorexia, vomiting, weight loss, & dyspnea
29
how are osteosarcomas diagnosed?
rads - bony, moth-eaten lysis & periosteal bone formation, thoracic 3 view rads to look for mets CBC/chem/UA to stage FNA/biopsy to confirm diagnosis CT for axial tumors/surgical planning
30
how are canine mammary gland tumors diagnosed?
excisional biopsy & histopath FNA or regional lymph nodes 3-view thoracic rads & abdominal u/s to look for mets
31
how are mast cell tumors diagnosed?
FNA cytology - blue or purple staining intracytoplasmic granules FNA of draining lymph node to evaluate for mets histopath is required to grade them!!!!
32
how is lymphoma diagnosed?
cytology - predominance of lymphoblasts biopsy required for definitive diagnosis & grading stage with thoracic rads & abdominal ultrasound CBC - anemia, thrombocytopenia, & neutropenia with bone marrow involvement chem - hypercalcemia phenotype with flow cytometry or IHC to determine if B or T cell
33
how are osteosarcoma tumors treated?
mostly palliative - amputation, radiation, & chemo for microscopic disease (doxorubicin or carboplatin)
34
how are mammary chain tumors treated?
surgery depends on size/location but best if you can excise with a minimum of 2 cm margins in all planes inguinal lymph node removal adjuvant chemo for gross mets or advanced disease
35
how are mast cell tumors treated?
surgical excision with 2 cm or greater lateral margins & 1 fascial plane deep histamine blockers - diphenhydramine, famotidine chemo/radiation
36
how is lymphoma treated?
combination protocol chemo
37
what is the survival time associated with osteosarcoma?
4-12 months
38
what percentage of osteosarcomas in dogs are appendicular?
75%
39
T/F: 90% of dogs will have clear thoracic rads at initial diagnosis but will develop chest mets even with amputation
true
40
T/F: 50% of mammary tumors are benign & 50% are malignant
true
41
what are poor prognostic indicators of mammary chain tumors?
if > 3 cm, lymph node involvement, or distant metastasis
42
T/F: spaying a dog older than 2 years old will decrease the risk of mammary chain tumors
false
43
what locations are mast cell tumors more aggressive?
mucocutaneous junctions, prepuce, scrotum, muzzle, digit, pinna
44
T/F: tumor grade of mast cell tumors determine the prognosis
true
45
what type of lymphoma has a poorer prognosis, T cell or B cell?
T cell has a worse prognosis
46
what dog breeds are predisposed to calcium oxalate calculi?
mini schnauzers, lhasa apso, yorkies, shih tzus, pomeranians, & mini poodles
47
what dog breeds are predisposed to urate calculi?
dalmatians & dogs with portosystemic shunts
48
what dog breeds are predisposed to cysteine calculi?
newfoundlands, dachshunds, labs, basset hounds, & yorkies due to a genetic defect causing cystinuria
49
what dog breed is predisposed to silica calculi?
german shepherds
50
what are struvite urinary calculi often secondary to?
bacterial UTI's - staph & proteus spp more common in females
51
what is the classic case presentation of cystitis/cystic calculi?
pollakiuria, stranguria, hematuria, & dysuria inappropriate elimination + malodorous urine
52
how is cystitis/cystic calculi diagnosed?
urinalysis - pyuria, hematuria, bacteriuria, & crystalluria urine culture/sensitivity rads to look for radiopaque stones u/s for radiolucent calculi urolith analysis
53
how are struvite calculi treated?
antibiotics for cystitis/struvite calculi surgical removal or medical dissolution with science diet s/d prevent recurrence with science diet c/d or w/d
54
how are calcium oxalate/calcium phosphate calculi treated?
surgery & treatment of underlying cause of hypercalcemia if present prevent recurrence with low protein, alkaline urine promoting diet (royal canine urinary SO)
55
how are cysteine uroliths treated?
treated with a restricted protein & low methionine diet for 1 month past dissolution & then a low purine diet to prevent recurrent
56
T/F: chronic, low purine diets can cause cardiomyopathy
true