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Radiation Therapy Principles and Procedures Test 1 > Cancer Overview PJ > Flashcards

Cancer Overview PJ Flashcards

1
Q

what occurs when a stem cell divides into daughter cells which eventually develop into mature cells with higher functions?

A

cellular differentiation

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2
Q

what are tumors a result of?

A

abnormal cellular proliferation

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3
Q

cancer is disease of ___

A

the genes

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4
Q

what non-reproductive cells contain genes that promote or suppress cell growth?

A

somatic cells

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5
Q

what allows for over-proliferation or under-proliferation?

A

mutations in genes that promote or suppress growth

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6
Q

are proto-oncogenes normal genes play a part in normal growth and differentiation?

A

yes

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7
Q

what are pre-cursors to oncogenes?

A

proto-oncogenes

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8
Q

what are cancer genes?

A

oncogenes

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9
Q

what do oncogenes develop from?

A

proto-oncogenes

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10
Q

what are to blame for abnormal proliferation of cells?

A

oncogenes

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11
Q

what are tumor suppressor genes?

A

antioncogenes

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12
Q

inactivation of what allows the malignant process to flourish?

A

antioncogenes or tumor suppressor genes

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13
Q

mammalian cells proliferate though what process?

A

mitosis

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14
Q

what are the 5 phases of the cell cycle?

A

G0, G1, S, G2 and M

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15
Q

during which phase of the cell cycle is the cell fully functional but not preparing for DNA replication?

A

G0

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16
Q

which phase of the cell cycle is the growth phase characterized by rapid growth and active metabolism?

A

G1

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17
Q

which phase of the cell cycle synthesizes RNA and proteins?

A

G1

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18
Q

during which phase of the cell cycle does the cell commit to DNA replication

A

G1

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19
Q

how long is the G1 stage of the cell cycle?

A

can be short or last for years

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20
Q

during which phase of the cell cycle is DNA replicated?

A

S

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21
Q

which phase of the cell cycle is the growth phase characterized by preparation for cell division?

A

G2

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22
Q

which phase of the cell cycle synthesizes enzymes and proteins?

A

G2

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23
Q

during which phase of the cell cycle is the cell most sensitive to radiation

A

G2-M

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24
Q

are rapidly-dividing or slowly-dividing cells more sensitive to radiation and chemotherapy?

A

rapidly-diving cells

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25
Q

tumors are classified by what three things?

A

anatomic site, cell of origin and biologic behavior

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26
Q

what cells make up connective tissue?

A

mesenchymal

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27
Q

what are tumors made up of mesenchymal cells?

A

sarcomas

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28
Q

what are tumors made up of connective tissue?

A

sarcomas

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29
Q

what are tumors made up of epithelial cells?

A

carcinomas

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30
Q

what is the most common histology of the oral cavity?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

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31
Q

what is the most common histology of the pharynx?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

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32
Q

what is the most common histology of the lung?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

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33
Q

what is the most common histology of the breast?

A

infiltrating ductal carcinoma

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34
Q

what is the most common histology of the colon and rectum?

A

adenocarcinoma

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35
Q

what is the most common histology of the anus?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

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36
Q

what is the most common histology of the cervix?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

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37
Q

what is the most common histology of the endometrium?

A

adenocarcinoma

38
Q

what is the most common histology of the prostate?

A

adenocarcinoma

39
Q

what is the most common histology of the brain?

A

astrocytoma

40
Q

excluding skin carcinoma what are the most common malignancy in the US?

A

prostate, lung, & colorectal in men; breast, lung, & colorectal in women

41
Q

what is the study of the cause of disease?

A

etiology

42
Q

what is used to establish prevention programs and identify high risk patients?

A

etiology

43
Q

what is the study of disease incidence?

A

epidemiology

44
Q

what is used to help determine trends in disease?

A

epidemiology

45
Q

what is used to help assess prevention/screening programs?

A

epidemiology

46
Q

what is the ability for a test to identify the tumor in its early stages?

A

sensitivity

47
Q

what is the ability for a test to identify a particular type of cancer?

A

specificity

48
Q

what allows for the detection of activity of cells that previously would have been undetectable with conventional imaging?

A

PET scan

49
Q

what is a mean of defining tumor size and extension at the time of diagnosis?

A

staging

50
Q

what staging system is used for GYN tumors?

A

FIGO

51
Q

what provides information about the tumor’s aggressiveness?

A

grade

52
Q

what is a tumor’s grade based on?

A

degree of differentiation

53
Q

during what procedure are cells collected in a needle from several areas of the suspected tumor?

A

fine needle aspiration

54
Q

what is the advantage of a fine needle aspiration?

A

minimal patient discomfort

55
Q

what are two disadvantages of a fine needle aspiration?

A

neighboring cells are not examined and seeding can occur

56
Q

during what procedure is cell architecture throughout the tumor determined using a large gauge needle?

A

core needle biopsy

57
Q

during what procedure are tumors imaged and sampled with tiny pinchers?

A

endoscopy

58
Q

during what procedure is only a sample of the tumor removed?

A

incisional biopsy

59
Q

during what procedure is the entire tumor and any local spread removed?

A

excisional biopsy

60
Q

what produces gamma rays?

A

cobalt-60 units (Co-60)

61
Q

when is chemotherapy most successful?

A

when a tumor is small

62
Q

what is the easiest way to deliver chemotherapy but requires patient compliance?

A

oral

63
Q

which method of administration can chemotherapy be delivered by the patient or a nurse?

A

injection

64
Q

which method of administering chemotherapy requires an infusion pump?

A

intra-arterial

65
Q

where is chemo infused via intra-arterial administration?

A

chemo infused at the tumor

66
Q

where is chemo infused via intracavitary administration?

A

chemo infused directly into cavity (such as the bladder)

67
Q

where is chemo infused via intrathecal administration?

A

directly into CSF through the spinal canal

68
Q

what is the most common method of administering chemotherapy?

A

IV

69
Q

what increases effectiveness of radiation?

A

radio-sensitizer

70
Q

what protects normal cells from radiation?

A

radio-protector

71
Q

what is it called when multiple drugs are given to minimize size effects and maximize drug effectiveness?

A

combination therapy

72
Q

what uses the body’s own disease fighting mechanism to destroy cancer?

A

immunotherapy

73
Q

during immunotherapy, ____ are produced and introduced to the patient to fight tumor cells.

A

monoclonal antibodies

74
Q

what is the estimation of life expectancy?

A

prognosis

75
Q

what is prognosis based on?

A

all information about tumor and clinical trials

76
Q

what is the most common metastatic site is the primary site is lung?

A

liver, adrenal glands, bone, brain

77
Q

what is the most common metastatic site is the primary site is breast?

A

lungs, bone, brain

78
Q

what is the most common metastatic site is the primary site is stomach?

A

liver

79
Q

what is the most common metastatic site is the primary site is anus?

A

liver, lungs

80
Q

what is the most common metastatic site is the primary site is bladder?

A

lungs, bone, liver

81
Q

what is the most common metastatic site is the primary site is prostate?

A

bone, liver, lungs

82
Q

what is the most common metastatic site is the primary site is uterine cervix?

A

lungs, bone, liver

83
Q

what clinical trials has treatment already occurred and information is collected and analyzed?

A

retrospective

84
Q

what clinical trials are planned before treatment?

A

prospective

85
Q

what phase of a clinical trial is used to determine the maximum tolerance dose for a particular treatment?

A

phase I

86
Q

what phase of a clinical trial is used to determine whether phase I treatment is significantly effective?

A

phase II

87
Q

what phase of a clinical trial is used to compare the experimental treatment with the standard treatment?

A

phase III

88
Q

what determines the endpoint of the study and calculates the survival rates?

A

survival reporting

89
Q

in clinical trials what counts all patients alive and deceased but cause of death is not considered?

A

absolute survival reporting

90
Q

in clinical trails what considers patients who died from other causes but had no evidence of disease?

A

adjusted survival reporting

Radiation Therapy Principles and Procedures Test 1 (6 decks)

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