CAAP AIRLAWS Flashcards
1
Q
republic act 9497 is also known as
A
civil aviation regulations
2
Q
what documents must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft of philippine registry
A
valid pilot license or special purpose authorization issued under these regulations
3
Q
The operator of any Philippine-registered civil aircraft, or any State aircraft not operated by the military, or any foreign aircraft shall report, and by the most expeditious means available, notify the Authority/Chairman when an aircraft accident or incident listed in IS 13.030, IS 13.175-1 to IS 13.175-3 occur.
A
immediately
4
Q
the operator of a civil, state or foreign aircraft shall file a report in the form and manner prescribed by the authority ________ after an accident or incident
A
within 10 days
5
Q
the operator of a civil, state or foreign aircraft shall file a report in the form and manner prescribed by the authority ________ if an overdue aircraft is still missing
A
after 7 days
6
Q
the validity period of the class 2 medical certificate is
A
24 months
7
Q
the validity period of the medical certificate is ______ when the holders have passed their 40th birthday
A
12 months
8
Q
the validity period of the class 2 medical certificate below 40th birthday is
A
24 months
9
Q
the validity period of class 2 medical certificate when the holders have passed their 40th birthday
A
12 months
10
Q
which class of medical is required for issuance of ppl, spl, glider pilot license and free balloon pilot license
A
class 2 medical certificate
11
Q
with respect to certification of airmen, which is a category of aircraft
A
airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter than air
12
Q
with respect to the certification of airmen, which are classes of aircraft
A
single engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea
13
Q
what is on pcar 2.2.2.2
A
ratings
14
Q
which pcar part corresponds to icao annex I
A
part 2 personnel licensing
15
Q
the applicant for a student pilot authorization shall be not less than ______ of age
A
16 years
16
Q
the applicant for a PPL shall not be less than _______ of age
A
17 years
17
Q
the applicant for a PPL shall have completed in airplane not less than ______ of flight time as pilot of airplanes
A
40 hours
18
Q
a PPL applicant shall have completed not less than _____ of flight time if he has satisfactorily completed a course of approved training
A
40 hours
19
Q
the applicant shall have completed in airplanes not less than 10 hours of solo flight time under the supervision of an authorized flight instructor, including 5 hours of solo cross country flight time with
A
at least one cross country totaling not less than 270km (150nm) in the course of which full stop landings at two different aerodromes shall be made
20
Q
the validity of PPL license
A
5 years
21
Q
what is the privilege of PPL
A
shall be to act, but not for remuneration, as pilot in command or co-pilot of any airplane engaged in non-revenue flights
22
Q
the definition of night time is
A
the hours between end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight / hours between sunset and sunrise
23
Q
with respect to certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft
A
normal, utility, aerobatic
24
Q
with respect to certification of aircraft, which is a class for aircraft
A
airplane, helicopter, glider, free balloon
25
no person may take-off on an aircraft with inoperative instruments or equipment installed, except as
authorized by the authority
26
can a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an airworthiness directive
no. it is mandatory to comply
27
who is primarily responsible to maintain an aircraft in airworthy conditions
the registered owner or operator of an aircraft
28
who is responsible for ensuring airworthiness directives are complied with
the registered owner or operator of an aircraft
29
what documents must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as PIC of an aircraft
appropriate and current license and a valid medical certificate
30
when must a current pilot certificate be in the pilot's personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft
when acting as PIC or in any other capacity as a required flight crew member of a civil aircraft
31
no person may act as a PIC or a co-pilot of an aircraft unless within the preceding 90 days that pilot has
made 3 takeoffs and landings as the sole manipulator of the flight controls in an aircraft of the same category and class and if a type rating is required of the same type or in a flight simulation training device approved for the purpose
32
the responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the
owner or the operator
33
who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight
pilot in command or PIC
34
the final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the
pilot in command or PIC
35
during the preflight inspection, who is responsible for determining that the aircraft is safe for flight
pilot in command or PIC
36
what is the blood alcohol limit for a person to act as a crew member even if they have not consumed alcohol in the previous 8 hours
0.04% (while under the influence of alcohol)
37
a person may not act as a crew member of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding
within 8 hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage
38
a person may not act as a crew member of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding
within 8 hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage
39
under what condition if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft
(1) within 8 hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage (2) while under the influence of alcohol or (3) while using any drug that affects the person's faculties in any way contrary to safety
40
flight crew members are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during
during the takeoff and landing phases - unless the shoulder straps interfere with the performance of their duties, in which case the shoulder straps may be unfastened but the seat belt must remain fastened
41
each flight crew member shall have his or her seatbelt fastened during
takeoff and landing and all other times when seated at his or her station
42
how many minutes should a pilot submit a flight plan, prior to his flight, to the appropriate ATC facility
at least 60 minutes before departure
43
when are flight plans filed
at least 60 minutes before departure
44
what is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane
at least 45 minutes thereafter
45
what is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane
at least 30 minutes thereafter
46
which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight
(0) before commencing a flight, the PIC shall be familiar with all available meteorological information appropriate to the intended flight (1) an alternate course of action if flight cannot be completed as planned (2) determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data
47
the PIC shall include, during preparation for a flight away from the vicinity of the place of departure, and for every flight under the IFR
(1) a study of available current weather reports and forecasts (2) the planning of an alternative course of action to provide for the eventuality that the flight cannot be completed as planned, because of weather conditions
48
during aircraft operations on the ground, no person may taxi on the movement area of an airport unless the person at the controls
(1) has been authorized by the owner, the lessee, or a designated agent; (2) is fully competent to taxi the aircraft; (3) is qualified to use the radio if radio communications are required; and (4) has received instruction from a competent person in respect of airport layout, and where appropriate, information on routes, signs, marking, lights, ATC signals and instructions, phraseology and procedures, and is able to conform to the operational standards required for safe aircraft movement at the airport.
49
which is true with respect to formation flights
(1) has been authorized by the owner, the lessee, or a designated agent; (2) is fully competent to taxi the aircraft; (3) is qualified to use the radio if radio communications are required; and (4) has received instruction from a competent person in respect of airport layout, and where appropriate, information on routes, signs, marking, lights, ATC signals and instructions, phraseology and procedures, and is able to conform to the operational standards required for safe aircraft movement at the airport.
50
no person may operate an aircraft in formation flight except
by arrangement with the PIC of each aircraft in the formation
51
no person may operate an aircraft in formation flight _________ as to create a collision hazard
close to another aircraft
52
which of the following aircraft has the right of way among all aircrafts in flight and on the ground
an aircraft in distress
53
airplane A is overtaking airplane B, which has the right of way
airplane B. Each aircraft that is being overtaken has the right of way and each pilot of an overtaking aircraft shall alter course to the right to pass well clear
54
which category of aircraft must give right of way to all others in normal circumstances
towing or refueling. An aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft has the right of way over all other engine driven aircraft, except aircraft in distress
55
which aircraft has the right of way over all other air traffic
a balloon or an airship has the right of way over a power driven heavier than air aircraft
56
what action is required when 2 aircraft of the same category converge but not head on
aircraft on the right has the right of way
57
an airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane's position, which aircraft has the right of way
the airship
58
what action should the pilot of a glider and an airplane take of on a head on collision course
when aircraft are approaching each other head on, or nearly so, each pilot of each aircraft shall alter course to the right
59
when 2 or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right of way belongs to each aircraft
the aircraft at the lower altitude has the right of way
60
the action required when two aircraft of the same category converge, approximately at the same altitude, but not head on
the aircraft to the right has the right of way
61
which aircraft has the right of way over all other air traffic
an aircraft in distress
62
what action is required when 2 aircraft of the same category converge but not head on
the aircraft on the right has the right of way
63
which aircraft has the right of way over the other aircraft listed? Glider. Airship. Aircraft refueling other aircraft
glider
64
an airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane's position, which aircraft has the right of way
the airship
65
which aircraft ahs the right of way over the other aircraft listed? Gyroplane. Airship. Aircraft towing other aircraft
aircraft towing other aircraft
66
when two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right of way belongs to the aircraft
at lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another
67
what action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head on collision course
both pilots should alter its course to the right
68
except when necessary for takeoff and landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere
an altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an amergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface
69
from which direction should an aircraft overtake
right
70
helicopter overtaking an airplane, where should the helicopter overtake from
from the right
71
no person may operate an aircraft in simulated instrument flight unless
(1) That aircraft has fully functioning dual controls,(2) The other control seat is occupied by a safety pilot who holds at least a private pilotlicense with category and class ratings appropriate to the aircraft being flown(3) The safety pilot has adequate vision forward and to each side of the aircraft, or acompetent observer in the aircraft adequately supplements the vision of the safetypilot.
72
except when necessary for takeoff and landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere
Anywhere. An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, continuation of flight or an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface. Over congested areas. Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement, or over any open-air assembly of persons, an altitude of 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft.Over other than congested areas. An altitude of 500 feet above the surface, except over open water or sparsely populated areas where the aircraft may not be operated closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
73
an ATC clearance provides
authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace
74
in which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited
class A airspace
75
no person may land or takeoff an aircraft under VFR from an aerodrome located within a control zone or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or traffic pattern airspace unless the
reported ceiling is atleast 1500 feet and reported ground visibility is atleast 5 km or except when a clearance is obtained from ATC
76
no person may land or takeoff an aircraft under VFR from an aerodrome located within a control zone or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or traffic pattern airspace unless the
reported ceiling is atleast 1500 feet and reported ground visibility is atleast 5 km or except when a clearance is obtained from ATC
77
no person may conduct a special VFR flight operation to enter the traffic pattern, land or takeoff an aircraft under special VFR from an airport located in class B, class C, class D, or class E airspace unless
(1) authorized by an ATC clearance, under exceptional circumstances (2) the aircraft remains clear of clouds (3) the flight visibility is at least 5 km
78
no person may conduct a special VFR flight operation in an aircraft between
sunset and sunrise
79
if radio failure occurs in VFR while under ATC control, or if VFR conditions are encountered after the failure, each pilot shall
(1) continue the flight under VFR (2) land at the nearest suitable airport and (3) report arrival to ATC by the most expeditious means possible
80
if radio failure occurs in VFR while under ATC control, or if VFR conditions are encountered after the failure, each pilot shall
(1) continue the flight under VFR (2) land at the nearest suitable airport and (3) report arrival to ATC by the most expeditious means possible
81
V speed that represents maneuvering speed
Va
82
V speed that represents maximum landing gear extended speed
Vle
83
V speed that represents maximum flaps extended speed
Vfe
84
Vno is defined as the
maximum structural cruising speed
85
after takeoff, which airspeed would provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during climb
Vx
86
after takeoff, which airspeed would the pilot use to gain most altitude in a given period of time
Vy
87
PCAR Part 1
general policies, procedures, and definitions
88
PCAR Part 2
personnel licensing
89
PCAR Part 3
approved training organization
90
PCAR Part 4
aircraft registration and marking
91
PCAR Part 5
airworthiness
92
PCAR Part 6
approved maintenance organization
93
PCAR Part 7
instrument and equipment
94
PCAR Part 8
operations
95
PCAR Part 9
air operator certification and administration
96
PCAR Part 10
safe transportation by foreign air carriers within the republic of the philippines
97
PCAR Part 11
aerial work
98
PCAR Part 13
accident and incident investigation
99
PCAR Part 18
safe transportation of dangerous goods by air
100
according to regulations pertaining to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may not pay less than the
(not pay less than the) pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees
101
before beginning any flight under IFR the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight including
the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the aircraft's takeoff and landing data
102
in accordance with the table of sanction - failure to use preflight cockpit checklist
15 to 30 days suspension
103
in accordance with the table of sanction - failure to adhere to taxi clearance or instruction
30 to 60 days suspension
104
in accordance with the table of sanction - collision while taxiing
30 to 120 days suspension
105
in accordance with the table of sanction - takeoff against instruction or clearance
60 to 120 days suspension
106
in accordance with the table of sanction - deviation from clearance or instruction
30 to 90 days suspension
107
in accordance with the table of sanction - operating VFR within clouds
90 days suspension to revocation
108
in accordance with the table of sanction - operation of un-airworthy aircraft
30 to 180 days suspension
109
in accordance with the table of sanction - operation without medical certificate
15 to 60 days suspension
110
in accordance with the table of sanction - operation with lack of a type rating
180 days suspension to revocation
111
light gun signal steady green directed to aircraft on the ground
cleared for takeoff
112
light gun signal flashing green directed to aircraft on the ground
cleared for taxi
113
light gun signal steady red directed to aircraft on the ground
stop
114
light gun signal flashing red directed to aircraft on the ground
taxi, clear of runway in use
115
light gun signal flashing white directed to aircraft on the ground
return to starting point on aerodrome
116
light gun signal alternating red and green
exercise extreme caution
117
light gun signal steady green directed to aircraft in flight
cleared to land
118
light gun signal flashing green directed to aircraft in flight
return for landing
119
light gun signal steady red directed to aircraft in flight
give way to other aircraft and continue circling
120
light gun signal flashing red directed to aircraft in flight
airport unsafe, do not land
121
light gun signal flashing white directed to aircraft in flight
land at this airport and proceed to apron
122
which VFR cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight flying above 3000 feet AGL on a magnetic course of 185
even thousand plus 500
123
which VFR cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight flying above 3000 feet AGL on a magnetic course of 135
odd thousand plus 500
124
which VFR cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight flying above 3000 feet AGL on a magnetic course of 179
odd thousand plus 500
125
which VFR cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight flying above 3000 feet AGL on a magnetic course of 359
even thousand plus 500
126
VFR cruising altitudes are required to be maintained when flying at what altitude and course
more than 3000 ft AGL and based on magnetic course
127
each person operating an aircraft at a VFR cruising altitude shall maintain an odd thousand plus 500 foot altitude while on a magnetic course of
360 to 179
128
each person operating an aircraft at a VFR cruising altitude shall maintain an even thousand plus 500 foot altitude while on a magnetic course of
180 to 359
129
the creation of civil aviation authority is based on which republic act
RA 9497
130
in regards to privileges and limitations a private pilot
the holder of a PPL (1) shall be to act, but not for remuneration, as pilot in command or co-pilot of any airplane engaged in non revenue flights
131
prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should
visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance
132
when approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator, the pilot shall
maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope
133
a slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is
three whites and one red light
134
preflight actions as required for all flight away from the vicinity of an airport shall include
(1) an alternate course of action if flight cannot be completed as planned (2) determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data (3) before commencing a flight, the PIC shall be familiar with all available meteorological information appropriate to the intended flight
135
an ATC clearance provides
authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace
136
purpose of flight plan is for
search and rescue
137
search and rescue is based on
ICAO
