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PPL > CAAP AIRLAWS > Flashcards

CAAP AIRLAWS Flashcards

1
Q

republic act 9497 is also known as

A

civil aviation regulations

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2
Q

what documents must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft of philippine registry

A

valid pilot license or special purpose authorization issued under these regulations

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3
Q

The operator of any Philippine-registered civil aircraft, or any State aircraft not operated by the military, or any foreign aircraft shall report, and by the most expeditious means available, notify the Authority/Chairman when an aircraft accident or incident listed in IS 13.030, IS 13.175-1 to IS 13.175-3 occur.

A

immediately

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4
Q

the operator of a civil, state or foreign aircraft shall file a report in the form and manner prescribed by the authority ________ after an accident or incident

A

within 10 days

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5
Q

the operator of a civil, state or foreign aircraft shall file a report in the form and manner prescribed by the authority ________ if an overdue aircraft is still missing

A

after 7 days

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6
Q

the validity period of the class 2 medical certificate is

A

24 months

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7
Q

the validity period of the medical certificate is ______ when the holders have passed their 40th birthday

A

12 months

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8
Q

the validity period of the class 2 medical certificate below 40th birthday is

A

24 months

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9
Q

the validity period of class 2 medical certificate when the holders have passed their 40th birthday

A

12 months

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10
Q

which class of medical is required for issuance of ppl, spl, glider pilot license and free balloon pilot license

A

class 2 medical certificate

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11
Q

with respect to certification of airmen, which is a category of aircraft

A

airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter than air

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12
Q

with respect to the certification of airmen, which are classes of aircraft

A

single engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea

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13
Q

what is on pcar 2.2.2.2

A

ratings

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14
Q

which pcar part corresponds to icao annex I

A

part 2 personnel licensing

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15
Q

the applicant for a student pilot authorization shall be not less than ______ of age

A

16 years

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16
Q

the applicant for a PPL shall not be less than _______ of age

A

17 years

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17
Q

the applicant for a PPL shall have completed in airplane not less than ______ of flight time as pilot of airplanes

A

40 hours

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18
Q

a PPL applicant shall have completed not less than _____ of flight time if he has satisfactorily completed a course of approved training

A

40 hours

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19
Q

the applicant shall have completed in airplanes not less than 10 hours of solo flight time under the supervision of an authorized flight instructor, including 5 hours of solo cross country flight time with

A

at least one cross country totaling not less than 270km (150nm) in the course of which full stop landings at two different aerodromes shall be made

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20
Q

the validity of PPL license

A

5 years

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21
Q

what is the privilege of PPL

A

shall be to act, but not for remuneration, as pilot in command or co-pilot of any airplane engaged in non-revenue flights

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22
Q

the definition of night time is

A

the hours between end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight / hours between sunset and sunrise

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23
Q

with respect to certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft

A

normal, utility, aerobatic

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24
Q

with respect to certification of aircraft, which is a class for aircraft

A

airplane, helicopter, glider, free balloon

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25
Q

no person may take-off on an aircraft with inoperative instruments or equipment installed, except as

A

authorized by the authority

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26
Q

can a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an airworthiness directive

A

no. it is mandatory to comply

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27
Q

who is primarily responsible to maintain an aircraft in airworthy conditions

A

the registered owner or operator of an aircraft

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28
Q

who is responsible for ensuring airworthiness directives are complied with

A

the registered owner or operator of an aircraft

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29
Q

what documents must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as PIC of an aircraft

A

appropriate and current license and a valid medical certificate

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30
Q

when must a current pilot certificate be in the pilot’s personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft

A

when acting as PIC or in any other capacity as a required flight crew member of a civil aircraft

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31
Q

no person may act as a PIC or a co-pilot of an aircraft unless within the preceding 90 days that pilot has

A

made 3 takeoffs and landings as the sole manipulator of the flight controls in an aircraft of the same category and class and if a type rating is required of the same type or in a flight simulation training device approved for the purpose

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32
Q

the responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the

A

owner or the operator

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33
Q

who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight

A

pilot in command or PIC

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34
Q

the final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the

A

pilot in command or PIC

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35
Q

during the preflight inspection, who is responsible for determining that the aircraft is safe for flight

A

pilot in command or PIC

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36
Q

what is the blood alcohol limit for a person to act as a crew member even if they have not consumed alcohol in the previous 8 hours

A

0.04% (while under the influence of alcohol)

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37
Q

a person may not act as a crew member of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding

A

within 8 hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage

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38
Q

a person may not act as a crew member of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding

A

within 8 hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage

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39
Q

under what condition if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft

A

(1) within 8 hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage (2) while under the influence of alcohol or (3) while using any drug that affects the person’s faculties in any way contrary to safety

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40
Q

flight crew members are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during

A

during the takeoff and landing phases - unless the shoulder straps interfere with the performance of their duties, in which case the shoulder straps may be unfastened but the seat belt must remain fastened

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41
Q

each flight crew member shall have his or her seatbelt fastened during

A

takeoff and landing and all other times when seated at his or her station

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42
Q

how many minutes should a pilot submit a flight plan, prior to his flight, to the appropriate ATC facility

A

at least 60 minutes before departure

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43
Q

when are flight plans filed

A

at least 60 minutes before departure

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44
Q

what is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane

A

at least 45 minutes thereafter

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45
Q

what is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane

A

at least 30 minutes thereafter

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46
Q

which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight

A

(0) before commencing a flight, the PIC shall be familiar with all available meteorological information appropriate to the intended flight (1) an alternate course of action if flight cannot be completed as planned (2) determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft’s takeoff and landing distance data

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47
Q

the PIC shall include, during preparation for a flight away from the vicinity of the place of departure, and for every flight under the IFR

A

(1) a study of available current weather reports and forecasts (2) the planning of an alternative course of action to provide for the eventuality that the flight cannot be completed as planned, because of weather conditions

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48
Q

during aircraft operations on the ground, no person may taxi on the movement area of an airport unless the person at the controls

A

(1) has been authorized by the owner, the lessee, or a designated agent; (2) is fully competent to taxi the aircraft; (3) is qualified to use the radio if radio communications are required; and (4) has received instruction from a competent person in respect of airport layout, and where appropriate, information on routes, signs, marking, lights, ATC signals and instructions, phraseology and procedures, and is able to conform to the operational standards required for safe aircraft movement at the airport.

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49
Q

which is true with respect to formation flights

A

(1) has been authorized by the owner, the lessee, or a designated agent; (2) is fully competent to taxi the aircraft; (3) is qualified to use the radio if radio communications are required; and (4) has received instruction from a competent person in respect of airport layout, and where appropriate, information on routes, signs, marking, lights, ATC signals and instructions, phraseology and procedures, and is able to conform to the operational standards required for safe aircraft movement at the airport.

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50
Q

no person may operate an aircraft in formation flight except

A

by arrangement with the PIC of each aircraft in the formation

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51
Q

no person may operate an aircraft in formation flight _________ as to create a collision hazard

A

close to another aircraft

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52
Q

which of the following aircraft has the right of way among all aircrafts in flight and on the ground

A

an aircraft in distress

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53
Q

airplane A is overtaking airplane B, which has the right of way

A

airplane B. Each aircraft that is being overtaken has the right of way and each pilot of an overtaking aircraft shall alter course to the right to pass well clear

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54
Q

which category of aircraft must give right of way to all others in normal circumstances

A

towing or refueling. An aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft has the right of way over all other engine driven aircraft, except aircraft in distress

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55
Q

which aircraft has the right of way over all other air traffic

A

a balloon or an airship has the right of way over a power driven heavier than air aircraft

56
Q

what action is required when 2 aircraft of the same category converge but not head on

A

aircraft on the right has the right of way

57
Q

an airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane’s position, which aircraft has the right of way

A

the airship

58
Q

what action should the pilot of a glider and an airplane take of on a head on collision course

A

when aircraft are approaching each other head on, or nearly so, each pilot of each aircraft shall alter course to the right

59
Q

when 2 or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right of way belongs to each aircraft

A

the aircraft at the lower altitude has the right of way

60
Q

the action required when two aircraft of the same category converge, approximately at the same altitude, but not head on

A

the aircraft to the right has the right of way

61
Q

which aircraft has the right of way over all other air traffic

A

an aircraft in distress

62
Q

what action is required when 2 aircraft of the same category converge but not head on

A

the aircraft on the right has the right of way

63
Q

which aircraft has the right of way over the other aircraft listed? Glider. Airship. Aircraft refueling other aircraft

A

glider

64
Q

an airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane’s position, which aircraft has the right of way

A

the airship

65
Q

which aircraft ahs the right of way over the other aircraft listed? Gyroplane. Airship. Aircraft towing other aircraft

A

aircraft towing other aircraft

66
Q

when two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right of way belongs to the aircraft

A

at lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another

67
Q

what action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head on collision course

A

both pilots should alter its course to the right

68
Q

except when necessary for takeoff and landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere

A

an altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an amergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface

69
Q

from which direction should an aircraft overtake

A

right

70
Q

helicopter overtaking an airplane, where should the helicopter overtake from

A

from the right

71
Q

no person may operate an aircraft in simulated instrument flight unless

A

(1) That aircraft has fully functioning dual controls,(2) The other control seat is occupied by a safety pilot who holds at least a private pilotlicense with category and class ratings appropriate to the aircraft being flown(3) The safety pilot has adequate vision forward and to each side of the aircraft, or acompetent observer in the aircraft adequately supplements the vision of the safetypilot.

72
Q

except when necessary for takeoff and landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere

A

Anywhere. An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, continuation of flight or an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface. Over congested areas. Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement, or over any open-air assembly of persons, an altitude of 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft.Over other than congested areas. An altitude of 500 feet above the surface, except over open water or sparsely populated areas where the aircraft may not be operated closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.

73
Q

an ATC clearance provides

A

authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace

74
Q

in which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited

A

class A airspace

75
Q

no person may land or takeoff an aircraft under VFR from an aerodrome located within a control zone or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or traffic pattern airspace unless the

A

reported ceiling is atleast 1500 feet and reported ground visibility is atleast 5 km or except when a clearance is obtained from ATC

76
Q

no person may land or takeoff an aircraft under VFR from an aerodrome located within a control zone or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or traffic pattern airspace unless the

A

reported ceiling is atleast 1500 feet and reported ground visibility is atleast 5 km or except when a clearance is obtained from ATC

77
Q

no person may conduct a special VFR flight operation to enter the traffic pattern, land or takeoff an aircraft under special VFR from an airport located in class B, class C, class D, or class E airspace unless

A

(1) authorized by an ATC clearance, under exceptional circumstances (2) the aircraft remains clear of clouds (3) the flight visibility is at least 5 km

78
Q

no person may conduct a special VFR flight operation in an aircraft between

A

sunset and sunrise

79
Q

if radio failure occurs in VFR while under ATC control, or if VFR conditions are encountered after the failure, each pilot shall

A

(1) continue the flight under VFR (2) land at the nearest suitable airport and (3) report arrival to ATC by the most expeditious means possible

80
Q

if radio failure occurs in VFR while under ATC control, or if VFR conditions are encountered after the failure, each pilot shall

A

(1) continue the flight under VFR (2) land at the nearest suitable airport and (3) report arrival to ATC by the most expeditious means possible

81
Q

V speed that represents maneuvering speed

A

Va

82
Q

V speed that represents maximum landing gear extended speed

A

Vle

83
Q

V speed that represents maximum flaps extended speed

A

Vfe

84
Q

Vno is defined as the

A

maximum structural cruising speed

85
Q

after takeoff, which airspeed would provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during climb

A

Vx

86
Q

after takeoff, which airspeed would the pilot use to gain most altitude in a given period of time

A

Vy

87
Q

PCAR Part 1

A

general policies, procedures, and definitions

88
Q

PCAR Part 2

A

personnel licensing

89
Q

PCAR Part 3

A

approved training organization

90
Q

PCAR Part 4

A

aircraft registration and marking

91
Q

PCAR Part 5

A

airworthiness

92
Q

PCAR Part 6

A

approved maintenance organization

93
Q

PCAR Part 7

A

instrument and equipment

94
Q

PCAR Part 8

A

operations

95
Q

PCAR Part 9

A

air operator certification and administration

96
Q

PCAR Part 10

A

safe transportation by foreign air carriers within the republic of the philippines

97
Q

PCAR Part 11

A

aerial work

98
Q

PCAR Part 13

A

accident and incident investigation

99
Q

PCAR Part 18

A

safe transportation of dangerous goods by air

100
Q

according to regulations pertaining to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may not pay less than the

A

(not pay less than the) pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees

101
Q

before beginning any flight under IFR the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight including

A

the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the aircraft’s takeoff and landing data

102
Q

in accordance with the table of sanction - failure to use preflight cockpit checklist

A

15 to 30 days suspension

103
Q

in accordance with the table of sanction - failure to adhere to taxi clearance or instruction

A

30 to 60 days suspension

104
Q

in accordance with the table of sanction - collision while taxiing

A

30 to 120 days suspension

105
Q

in accordance with the table of sanction - takeoff against instruction or clearance

A

60 to 120 days suspension

106
Q

in accordance with the table of sanction - deviation from clearance or instruction

A

30 to 90 days suspension

107
Q

in accordance with the table of sanction - operating VFR within clouds

A

90 days suspension to revocation

108
Q

in accordance with the table of sanction - operation of un-airworthy aircraft

A

30 to 180 days suspension

109
Q

in accordance with the table of sanction - operation without medical certificate

A

15 to 60 days suspension

110
Q

in accordance with the table of sanction - operation with lack of a type rating

A

180 days suspension to revocation

111
Q

light gun signal steady green directed to aircraft on the ground

A

cleared for takeoff

112
Q

light gun signal flashing green directed to aircraft on the ground

A

cleared for taxi

113
Q

light gun signal steady red directed to aircraft on the ground

A

stop

114
Q

light gun signal flashing red directed to aircraft on the ground

A

taxi, clear of runway in use

115
Q

light gun signal flashing white directed to aircraft on the ground

A

return to starting point on aerodrome

116
Q

light gun signal alternating red and green

A

exercise extreme caution

117
Q

light gun signal steady green directed to aircraft in flight

A

cleared to land

118
Q

light gun signal flashing green directed to aircraft in flight

A

return for landing

119
Q

light gun signal steady red directed to aircraft in flight

A

give way to other aircraft and continue circling

120
Q

light gun signal flashing red directed to aircraft in flight

A

airport unsafe, do not land

121
Q

light gun signal flashing white directed to aircraft in flight

A

land at this airport and proceed to apron

122
Q

which VFR cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight flying above 3000 feet AGL on a magnetic course of 185

A

even thousand plus 500

123
Q

which VFR cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight flying above 3000 feet AGL on a magnetic course of 135

A

odd thousand plus 500

124
Q

which VFR cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight flying above 3000 feet AGL on a magnetic course of 179

A

odd thousand plus 500

125
Q

which VFR cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight flying above 3000 feet AGL on a magnetic course of 359

A

even thousand plus 500

126
Q

VFR cruising altitudes are required to be maintained when flying at what altitude and course

A

more than 3000 ft AGL and based on magnetic course

127
Q

each person operating an aircraft at a VFR cruising altitude shall maintain an odd thousand plus 500 foot altitude while on a magnetic course of

A

360 to 179

128
Q

each person operating an aircraft at a VFR cruising altitude shall maintain an even thousand plus 500 foot altitude while on a magnetic course of

A

180 to 359

129
Q

the creation of civil aviation authority is based on which republic act

A

RA 9497

130
Q

in regards to privileges and limitations a private pilot

A

the holder of a PPL (1) shall be to act, but not for remuneration, as pilot in command or co-pilot of any airplane engaged in non revenue flights

131
Q

prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should

A

visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance

132
Q

when approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator, the pilot shall

A

maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope

133
Q

a slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is

A

three whites and one red light

134
Q

preflight actions as required for all flight away from the vicinity of an airport shall include

A

(1) an alternate course of action if flight cannot be completed as planned (2) determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft’s takeoff and landing distance data (3) before commencing a flight, the PIC shall be familiar with all available meteorological information appropriate to the intended flight

135
Q

an ATC clearance provides

A

authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace

136
Q

purpose of flight plan is for

A

search and rescue

137
Q

search and rescue is based on

A

ICAO

PPL (10 decks)

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