Burns pt.2🔥 Flashcards

1
Q

Massive cell destruction can result in ___________ immediately after a burn. ____________ can occur later in the acute phase with fluid shifts and inadequate K+ replacement

A

hyperkalemia; hypokalemia

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2
Q

surgical debridement done in a timely manner has many benefits to burn patients. Why is it one of the most important factors that contributes to survival after a burn?

A

-reduces complications related to infection
-shorter hospital stay

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3
Q

Why is the hematocrit elevated in the emergent phase of a burn?

A

due to plasma loss - this higher concentration of blood cells is happening because fluid is shifting out of the bloodstream and into the interstitial spaces

hyponatremia is also occurring due to this same fluid shift

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4
Q

How many sones are there in a burn?

A

3

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5
Q

The zone of coagulation, is the innermost zone, this is where cellular death occurs. does this zone sustain the most or least damage?

A

the most

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6
Q

The zone of stasis, is the middle zone. What are the characteristics of this zone?

A

-tissue injury
-compromised blood supply
-inflammation

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7
Q

The zone of hyperemia is the outermost zone, this zone sustains the ______ amount of damage.

A

least

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8
Q

superficial partial thickness burns are ____ degree burns. deep partial thickness burns are ____ degree burns. And full thickness burns are ____ degree burns.

A

1st; 2nd; 3rd

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9
Q

_____ degree burns are associated with scalds and flash flames.

A

2nd

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10
Q

____ degree burns are associated with sunburns.

A

1st

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11
Q

_____ degree burns are associated with direct flame, electric currents or chemical contact.

A

3rd

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12
Q

An ________ is a biologic source of skin similar to the patients, like from a cadaver.

A

homograft

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13
Q

A _________ is obtained from pigs skin, sometimes cows.

A

xenograft

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14
Q

An ______ is when the skin graft comes directly from the patients own skin.

A

autograft

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15
Q

How would you describe the appearance of a full thickness burn?

A

pale white
leathery
dry
charred

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16
Q

How much protein does a burned patient need to meet nutritional needs?

A

1.5 -2g/kg/ day

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17
Q

How soon is the dressing changed after an autograft surgery is performed?

A

2-5 days post op

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18
Q

Snug fitting dressings or garments are worn 23 hours a day to apply continuous pressure. This can __________ burn scars and help to smooth the skin.

A

minimize

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19
Q

About how long will it take for a deep partial thickness burn to heal?

A

2-4 weeks

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20
Q

Why should elastic bandages be wrapped distally to proximally on dependent areas?

(from extremities, inward to the center of the body)

A

-limits edema
-decreases bleeding
-promotes graft acceptance

(pushes fluid back to the heart to prevent accumulation)

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21
Q

Burns should be wrapped ________ to _______ because it promotes venous return and prevents edema.

A

proximal to distal

(from the center of the body, out to the extremities)

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22
Q

After a serious burn, what is the most serious complication related to the GI system?

A

paralytic ileus

23
Q

What is Biobrane?

A

a nylon silicone membrane that is coated with protein

24
Q

What is Mederma?

A

a topical gel used to reduce scarring

25
Q

What is Integra?

A

a 2 layered membrane; 1 layer is a synthetic epidermis and the other later is made of collagen fibers to mimic the dermis

26
Q

true or false?
Transcyte is made by culturing human fibroblasts and a nylon mesh layer to make a double layered skin substitute.

27
Q

When does the greatest amount of fluid loss occur after a burn?

A

24-36 hours after the burn

28
Q

When a patient is using mafenide acetate it is important to educate them to __________ before application because it can cause a severe burning pain.

A

premedicate

29
Q

Silver Nitrate stains everything ______.

30
Q

What 2 electrolytes need to be monitored while a patient is using silver nitrate?

A

sodium and potassium

31
Q

What are 4 of the complications to monitor for related to burns?

A

1.sepsis
2. MSOF
3.Shock
4. Delirium

32
Q

During fluid resuscitation, how much fluid is given over 8 hours, and what it given in the remaining 16 hours?

A

half of the total fluids needed to be given is delivered in the first 8 hours, then the second half of fluids is given over the remaining 16

33
Q

How will a severe burn cause the kidneys to become clogged?

A

the severe burn can cause damage to your muscles which will cause excess myoglobin to be released, which will overload the kidneys

34
Q

Monitor for compartment syndrome!! what should we be assessing for?

A

-pain
-redness
-swelling
-tightness/ firmness
-paresthesia
-weak/ absent pulse

35
Q

Why do we need to be monitoring GI function and assessing bowel sounds in burn patients?

A

paralytic ileus is a huge complication common in burns

36
Q

A _______ ulcer is a specific kind of peptic ulcer that’s a complication of severe burns or trauma (induced by stress) - may require gastric decompression w/ an NG tube

A

curling’s

37
Q

What are the 2 procedures called when a dr. needs to cut through eschar or fascia to correct compartment syndrome and relieve pressure ?

A

escharotomy + fasciotomy

38
Q

What 4 factors contribute to thrombocytopenia and prolonged clotting + PTT with severe burns?

A

inflammation
vascular damage
fluid loss
infection/ sepsis

39
Q

What are the priorities in the rehabilitation phase of a burn?

A

-wound healing
-psychosocial support
-self image + lifestyle
-restoring maximum function for best quality of life
-possible reconstructive surgery
-counseling

40
Q

What are the 3 different types of debridement?

A

mechanical
natural
surgical

41
Q

______ _______debridement is your body producing enzymes to produce healthy tissue and a special hydrogel dressing is used to cover.

A

natural autolytic

42
Q

_________ ________ debridement is the use of a variety of chemicals to dissolve nonviable tissue, but this method can also affect viable tissue.

A

chemical enzymatic

43
Q

________ ________ aka “maggot therapy” is when larvae are applied to the wound and consume only dead tissue.

A

Biological debridement

44
Q

Mechanical debridement is when a ______ is used to remove dead tissue.

45
Q

Surgical debridement is when the patient is under anesthesia where a graft is placed or a _______ ______ is placed to suck the dead tissue away to promote wound healing.

46
Q

When caring for a autograft site post op, after how many days is the dressing changed?

A

3-5 days
exercise will begin 7-14 days post op, to careful not to disrupt the graft site

47
Q

The donor site (after an autograft) will need to be cared for as a partial thickness wound. About how long should it take to be healed?

48
Q

Homograft’s and xenografts are used as temporary wound coverage to protect against
1.
2.
3.

A

fluid loss
protein loss
infection

49
Q

The ________ will become raised as the re-epithelialization occurs and it will just need to be cut away.

50
Q

Biosynthetic and synthetic dressings are good for pain management and fluid balance, but have issues with _______.

51
Q

true or false?

skin donations (cadaver) need to match the blood type of the recipient?

52
Q

What are ways were preventing a paralytic ileus while taking care of a burn patient?

A

-repositioning/ activity
-non narcotics
-fluids

53
Q

why are homograft’s the biggest risk of infection?

A

because the donor could have pathogens that the recipient’s body doesn’t have immunity to/ introducing new agents

54
Q

Hydrotherapy can not be used as treatment until the patients wounds are _______ healed.

A

completely