BSC + CSS: WK5-6 Flashcards
true or false: typical ribs (3-10) are flattened in the superior-inferior place
false: anterior posterior plane
which hormone produced by trophoblast cells that surround the growing embryo, which eventually forms the placenta.
human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
true or false: gastrulation is the formation of the palcenta from embryoblastic cells and the differentiation of the inner cell mass into the amniotic sac and epiblast
false: trophoblastic cells do this
daptomycin inhibit:
a) protein synthesis
b) DNA/RNA synthesis
c) cell membrane synthesis
d) folate synthesis
c
true or false: Terminal bronchioles contain no cartilage and are lined by simple cuboidal epithelial and contain smooth muscle and connective tissue.
true
what are the structures you will go through to perform an intercostal nerve block? starting from skin:
skin, superficial fascia, serratus anterior/external oblique (depending on location), external intercostals, internal intercostal
true or false: the left and right recurrent laryngeal nerves are a branch of the vagus nerve and supply the extrinsic musucles of the larynx
false: intrinsic muscles, but not cricothyroid muscle
what drug binds to D-alanyl-D-alanine in peptidoglycan precursor to inhibit cell wall synthesis?
a) glycopeptides
b) penicillin
c) beta-lactams
d) quinolones
a
what virus is this?
- one of the most contagious viruses, transmitted via airborne droplets
- enveloped RNA virus that causes respiratory infection
- causes flu like symptoms and a characteristic skin rash
- 10 to 14 days incubation
- vaccine available
measles
true or false: the ductus deferens is medial to the seminal vesicles
false: it is lateral
true or false: warfarin and propranolol are metabolised by more than one cytochrome P450 enzyme
true
morula formation usually occurs at:
a) day 2
b) day 3
c) day 4
d) day 7
c
true or false: the root of the lung is covered by the pulmonary ligament and enables stretching and recoiling of teh lungs during respiration. It contains the bronchi
false: the lung hilum contains the bronchi
what nerve innervates the cricothyroid muscle?
superior laryngeal nerve –> branch of vagus nerve.
true or false: gram negative bacteria have intrinsic resistance to glycopeptides because they can’t penetrate the outer membrane
true
the period of fertilization to implantation typically takes ___ days
6
match the name and definition: necessary cause, sufficient cause, component cause
a) a factor or combination of factors that will inevitably cause disease
b) a factor that contributes to disease but is not sufficient on its own (a risk factor) e.g. smoking
c) a factor that is required for the develop of disease e.g. influenza virus
necessary - c
sufficient - a
component - b
when does the oocyte complete its second meiosis division?
after fertilization
what are the two pleural recesses of the lung? where are they?
costodiaphragmatic recess: between thoracic cage and diaphragm
costomediastinal recess: between rib cage and mediastinum medially
which of these statements regarding ribs 3-10 is false:
a) costal groove on teh lateral side containing neurovascular bundle
b) roughened, flat blunt anterior end for attachment to costal cartilage
c) rounded superior border and sharpened inferior border
d) two demi-facets for vertebrae and one tubercle
a) medial side.
most drugs move across the cell membrane via passive diffusion by combining with a ______ ______ transporter protein
solute carrier
movement of a drug from its site of administration into the blood is:
a) absorption
b) distribution
c) metabolism
d) excretion
a
list 5 drug routes that don’t undergo first pass metabolism
- Sublingual
- Rectal
- Transdermal
- Subcutaneous
- Intramuscular injections
anterior supply of the intercostal muscles is from the _____ _____ arteries which come off the ______ artery. The lower spaces come from the ______ artery. posterior supply is directly off the aorta and rains into superior and inferior _____ ____ veins and then to the _____ vein.
internal thoracic, subclavian, musculophrenic, internal thoracic, hemiazygous, azygous
tetanus is a type of exotoxin. which type?
a) cytotoxin
b) neurotxin
c) enterotoxin
b
true or false: prevalence is the number of new instances of illness in a population of a fixed period of time
false: this is incidence
tuberculuosis is caused by ___________ ___________ which is an acid-fast ____. it is very slow growing and can remain dormant.
mycobacterium tuberculosis, bacilli
swine flu is:
a) H1N2
b) H3H2
c) H5N1
d) H2N2
a
what day of SARS are you most infectious on?
a) day 1
b) day 4
c) day 7
d) day 10
d
during the secon week of development, the embryoblast forms two layers:
hypoblast
epiblast
true or false: the blood brain barrier is a water-soluble barrier and thus lipid drugs have difficulty entering
false: it is a lipid barrier so lipid solible drugs can dissolve, but water soluble have trouble
type II pneumocytes secrete pulmonary surfactant that maintains surface tension in the alveolar and prevents collapsing. which of the following is false?
a) granular and roughly cuboidal in shape
b) can proliferate and differentiate into type I cells
c) numerous but only cover 5% of the surface
d) involved in gas exchange
d
the notochord forms the _________
mesoderm
meningococcal disease is caused by _______ _____, a small gram-negative diplococci. It is commensal in 20% of the population and resides in the ___________ region. it is transmitted via saliva and _______ ______ from a carrier.
neisseria meningitidis, nasopharyngeal, respiratory droplets
what are the four criteria for Koch’s postulates?
- microbes must be present in every case
microbes must be isolated from diseased host and grown in a pure culture
- disease must be reproduced in pure culture and introduced to non-diseased suceptible host
- microbes must be recoverable from experimentally infected host
the gastrula is a monolaminar/bilaminar/trilaminar cellular structure that occurs after implantation.
trilaminar
attributable risk is:
a) the probability of risk occuring for non-exposed group
b) ratio of the risk for exposed vs. non-exposed
c) difference between risk for exposed - risk for non-exposed
d) none of the above
c
amlodipine, cyclosporin, ethinyloestradiol are ____ substrates:
a) CYP1A2
b) CYP2D6
c) CYP2E1
d) CYP3A4
d
intercostal nerve block is performed along what line?
anterior axillary line
can something be both a mediating variable and a confounder? why or why not?
no it cant. confounding factors are not part of the causal chain, but mediators are.
true or false: outer membrane porin changes prevent entry of beta-lactams in gram positive bacteria
false: gram negative, they don’t target gram positive
during gastrulation of the 3rd week, what causes the formation of the endoderm?
a) bilateral migration from the primitive streak
b) hypoblast cell invasion and differentiation
c) formation of the neural crest
d) epiblast differentiation
b
cleavage ends with the formation of the _____, a hollow spehre with an inner fluid cavity called a ________. This is usually formed by day 6
blastocyst, blastocoel
what causes non-specific activation of T cells, resulting in polyclonal T cell activation and massive cytokine release.
superantigens
ethinyloestradiol and levonorgestrel are _____ substrates. grapefruit juice will act as an inhibitor/inducer and thus reduce/speed up metabolism whilst st. johns wort is an inhibitor/inducer and thus reduce/speed up metabolism
CYP3A4, inhibitor, reduce, inducer, speed up
what is the small fluid-filled sac that contains the immature egg called in a graafian follicle?
antrum
what is associated with both the independent and dependent variables but is part of the causal chain between the independent and dependent variables?
mediator variable
true or false: cleavage is multiple, rapid rounds of mitotic cell division where the overall size of the embryo increases significantly
false: size does not increase
match the names and definitions. type I error, type II error:
a) claim there is an assocition with the null hypothesis, but there isnt
b) claim there is no association with the null hypothesis, but there is
a, b
true or false: the left superior lobar bronchi will enter the hilum at T5 and the right superior bronchi will enter unbranched at T6
false: left side is unbranched at T6, right is branched at T5
what nerves innervate the posterior muscles of the vocal cords, the only muscles that can open them?
left and right recurrent laryngeal nerve
Trichophyton, microsporum, Epidermophyton are all types of:
fungal ringworm
match the name and defintion of luteinizing and folicle stimulating hormone
a) stimulates maturation of primordial germ cells and initiates follicular growth
b) triggers ovulation and development of corpus luteum. increases progesterone levels to prepare endometrium for possible implantation
A - FSH
B - LH
a child has been diagnosed with gastroenteritis (viral). what category is the viral substance from?
a) paramyxovirus
b) rhinovirus
c) picornovirus
d) adenovirus
c
true or false: Superior thyroid artery, superior laryngeal vein and superior laryngeal nerve run close to the external carotid artery
true
true or fals regarding skin: As you go up the layers of epidermis, capacity of daughter cells to proliferate increases and they keratinise.
false: capacity to proliferate is lost
what forms the primitive yolk sac?
a) trophoblast
b) epiblast
c) hypoblast
d) none of the above
c
true or false: at fertilization, meiosis II is completed for oocytes. three polar bodies can be formed from the primary and secondary oocyte in total
true
clostridium and bacillus are types of
endospores
which of the following is not an enzyme involved in phase I drug reactions of the liver:
a) cytochrome P450
b) N-acetyl transferase (NAT)
c) alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH)
d) monoamine oxidase (MAO)
b
true or false: efflux pumps are typically an inducible form of antibiotic resistance
false: constitutive
fluoroquinolones and rifamycin inhibit:
a) protein synthesis
b) DNA/RNA synthesis
c) cell wall synthesis
d) folate synthesis
b
list the 5 major ways that a bacteria can get acquired resistance
- plasmids
- transposons
- conjugation
- transduction
- transformation
the diaphragm has two domes joined by the central tendon. what are the attachments at the following surfaces?
a) sternal
b) costal
c) lumbar
d) central tendon
sternal: back of xiphoid process
costal: lower 6 costal cartilages and ribs, transversus abdominus muscle
lumbar: left and right crus
central tendon: base of pericardial sac
the four major stages of pharmocokinetics are:
- absorption
- distribution
- metabolism
- excretion
after gastrulation is complete, the _____ is calle the ectoderm
epiblast
true or false: Low P-value, higher confidence that what you’re saying is right (<0.05) “I have enough information to accept the null hypothesis”
false: reject the null hypothesis
caffeine, naproxen, diazepman, paracetamol, and warfarin are ____ substrates:
a) CYP1A2
b) CYP2D6
c) CYP2E1
d) CYP3A4
a
true or false: antigenic shift involves the mixing of genes from different strains, whereas antigen drift is natural minor mutations over time of known strains
true
list the 6 sequence of events in microbial infection
- access and entry
- spread
- evasion of host defences
- damage to host
- resolution
- transmission
a survey of 8000 people was conducted to determine the prevalence of asthma. 907 people responded “yes” to having asthma. What is the prevalence per 1000 people?
a) 0.11 per 1000 people
b) 11 per 1000 people
c) 113 per 1000 people
d) 1100 per 1000 people
c
regarding the right lung, the oblique fissure separates the _____ and _____ lobes and the horizontal fissure separates the _____ and _____ lobes.
middle, inferior
middle, superior
two main types of paramyxovirus are:
parainfluenza, respiratory syncytial virus
True or false: rib 6 will articulate with the transverse process of vertebrae 6, the superior articular process of vertebrae 6, and the inferior articular process of vertebrae 7
false: inferior articular process of vertebrae 5
what are the two things that are required for a confounder?
- associated with exposure
- risk factor for disease/outcome
true or false: UV-C activates a synthesis pathway which leads to the production of melanin by melanocytes in the basal layer of the epidermis. This melanin is secreted and then can be taken and accumulated in keratinocytes.
false: UV-A
what type of pathogen causes disease due to presence of activity within the normal health host
primary pathogen (as opposed to opportunistic)
why are objects more likely to fall down the right primary bronchus?
shorter, wider, and more vertical
anencepahly is called by failure to close of the ______ _____ at the cranial end whereas spina bifida is failure to close at the ______ end.
neural tube, caudal
what virus group is this? a group of RNA viruses that are predominately responsible for acute respiratory diseases and are usually transmitted by airborne droplets.
paromyxovrirus
there are two classes of toxins, endotoxins and exotoxins. what are the three subclasses of exotoxins?
cytotoxins
neurotoxins
enterotoxins
remnant of the notochord forms the:
nucleus pulposus
the inferior thyroid artery runs close to the recurrent laryngeal nerve and internal carotid artery. where does it originate?
thyrocervical trunk which comes off the subclavian artery
maturation of normal sperm occurs in the:
a) seminal vesicles
b) ductus deferens
c) testis
d) epididymis
d
the pleura of the lung meet at the middle of rib _. the left side diverges at rib _ to make room for the heart whilst the right side continues to rib _. The midclavicular line occurs on both sides at rib _ and then the midaxillary line at rib _. The posterior chest is met at rib 12.
2, 4, 6,8, 10
which of these is FALSE regarding first pass metabolism:
a) IV drugs can undergo first pass metabolism
b) all drugs orally taken undergo first pass metabolism
c) if a drug is extensively metabolised, only a small amount of non-metabolised drug my leave the liver
d) drugs taken orally will have to go through the portal circulation
a
which route of administration will have an oral biolavailability of 100%?
a) rectal
b) transdermal
c) sublinguinal
d) intravenous
d
on what lung would you see the following impressions? azygous vein, subclavian artery, SVC, right atrium, oesophageal groove
right lung
a blastomere has ___ cells
a morula is a compact mass with __ cells
8, 32
pethidine is a:
a) weak acid
b) strong acid
c) weak base
d) strong base
c
what does PICO stand for?
Population/patient/problem
Intervention/exposure
Comparator
Outcome
a respiratory virus that prefers warmer, moist areas is likely to replicate in:
a) lower respiratroy tract
b) uuper respiratory tract
c) any part of respiratory tract
d) nasopharynx
a
true or false: malaria causes infection of red blood cells. it needs to be transmitted via a female mosquito which breeds in stagnant water and can survive up to 5 days in stored blood.
true
bird flu is:
a) H1N1
b) H3H2
c) H5N1
d) H2N2
b
by the end of what week is the following established? two layers in the germ disc, two cavities in the embryoblast (amniotic + yolk sac), utero placental circulation established
2nd week
the trachea begins and ends at what vertebral levels?
C6 to T4
match the names and origins: ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm, archenteron
a) epidermis, nervous system, neural crest
b) muscle, bone, connective tissue, heart and blood vessels
c) epithelium of digestive tract and respitatory tract and associated organs
d) digestive tract
a - ectoderm
b - mesoderm
c - endoderm
d - archenteron
true or false: endotoxins are produced by both gram negative and positive bacteria. They are secreted, soluble and diffusible but can be destroyed by heating.
false: this is exotoxins
what is this the definition of? lowest concentration of antibiotic which inhibits growth in broth or agar dilution of antibiotic with standard inoculum.
minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)
list 6 methods of antibiotic targeting:
- cell wall
- cell membrane
- protein synthesis
- DNA synthesis inhibition
- RNA synthesis inhibition
- folate synthesis
measles and mumps are a type of:
a) adenovirus
b) paramyxovirus
c) retrovirus
d) pneumovirus
b
what am i describing? ______ is defined by 11/12th rib and T12, xiphisternal joint, costal margin of ribs 7-10 anteriorly, diaphragm.
inferior thoracic aperture/thoracic outlet
true or false: Most drugs are either weak acids or weak bases, and it is the ionised form of weak acids and bases which is lipid soluble.
false: unionised form
the zona pellucida is:
a thick, transparent membrane that surrounds the oocyte
what are the two factors we use to measure burden of disease?
years life lost (death)
years life lost to disability
when a primary oocyte is at arrest at metaphase meiosis II, it is called a
a) graafian follicle
b) oocyte
c) zygote
d) blastocyst
a
regarding spermatids, the tail is made by __________ on one of the centrioles which turns into a basal body. mitochondria are found in the _____ and undergo chromatic packing forming a condensed nucleus called the _______.
microtubules, axoneme, acrosome
in an acidic environment, weak ____ are more unionised and weak ___ are more ionised. Thus, weak ____ are good for absorption in the stomach
acids, bases, acids
a viral infection of the tonsils or adenoids is likely a:
a) paramyxovirus
b) rhinovirus
c) picornovirus
d) adenovirus
d
which virus type is this? largest known non-enveloped virus. Typically, stable to chemical or physical agents and adverse pH conditions.
adenovirus
drugs are subject to first pass metabolism when administered as:
a) intramuscular injection
b) sublingual tablet
c) oral tablet
d) transdermal patch
c
true or false: bacteria, protozoa, and fungi are prokaryotes
false: just bacteria
a survey of 8000 people was conducted to determine the prevalence of asthma. 907 people responded “yes” to having asthma. What is the prevalence per 100,000 people?
a) 11338 per 100,000 people
b) 11 per 100,000 people
c) 113 per 100,000 people
d) 1100 per 100,000 people
a
true or false: bactericidal requires assistance of the host’s immune response to actually kill the bacteria. The antibiotic will keep the bacteria in the stationary phase of growth i.e. prevents growth and replication.
false: this is bacteriostatic
for someone to be a carrier of a bacterial pathogen, what three factors must they have?
colonised, diseased tissue, asymptomatic
true or false: delayment of gastric emptying will increase absorption.
false
thoracic outlet syndrome will present with pain:
a) on the lateral side of the humerus
b) on the medial side of the humerus
c) on the lateral side of the forearm and hand
d) on the medial side of the forearm and hand
d
a survey of 150 people determined that 67 of them have a cough. of that 67, 30 developed a cough within the last week. what is the prevelance of cough?
a) 28%
b) 20%
c) 47%
d) 45%
d
the ________ terminates at the top of the trachea and becomes the ________. the ____ opens up into the trachea and is responsible for sound production.
laryngopharynx, oesophagus, larynx
true or false: the primitive midline streak occurs in the trophoblast
false: epiblast
if we are cold, sympathetic nerves will induce ______ and reduce cutaneous circulation of the skin, limiting blood flow and heat loss
vasoconstriction
true or false: For evasion of host defence, there needs to be an infectious dose of viable organism to a susceptible host.
false: this is true for transmission
during the foetal stage of oogeneis, follicular cells surround the oocyte to form the:
primordial follicle
1 disability adjusted life year (DALY) is equal to:
years of life lost + years of life lost to disability
which organ does the following? Secretes alkaline fluid that reduces immune response in females and protects the sperm from acidic vagina, also increases semen volume and motility of sperm
a) epididymis
b) seminal vesicles
c) spermatic cord
d) ejaculatory ducts
b
which virus type is this? non-enveloped ssRNA viruses and causes respiratory tract infections
picornavirus/rhinovirus
true or false: sympathetic adrenergic nerves regulate vasoconstriction and vasodilation of cutaneous circulation
true
the erector pili muscle in hair is activated by sympathetic _____ nerves.
adrenergic
what is hatching and when does it occur?
a) when the blastocyst is implanted into the endometrium, the zona pellucida disappears
b) when the blastocyst is implanted into the endometrium, the corona radiata disappears
c) when a blastocyst is formed, the zona pellucida disappears
d) when a blastocyst is formed, the corona radiata disappears
a
sperm travels from the epididymis via which structure?
a) ductus deferens
b) seminal vesicles
c) urethra
d) ejaculatory ducts
a
true or false: antibiotics that interfere with DNA replication can target both gram-positive and gram-negative drugs
true
which of these is most likely a source of giardia?
a) sewage leaking into a local pond that children play in
b) food from a butcher than had a recent power outage
c) undercooked pork
d) cat faeces
a
true or false: Exotoxins are part of the bacterial cell wall/envelope. They are mostly released upon lysis or when killed by antibiotics.
false: this is endotoxins
you want to perform an intercostal nerve block in intercostal space 3. where do you put the needle?
a) above the rib below so above rib 4
b) above the rib below so above rib 3
c) below the rib above so below rib 3
d) below the rib above so below rib 4
a
true or false: paramyxovirus’ do not spread systemically and remain in the respiratory tract
true
the superior thyroid artery suplies the larynx and thyroid gland. it also anastomoses with the inferior thyroid artery. where does it originate?
external carotid artery
true or false: High P-value, means there is still a difference potentially, but we don’t have enough evidence to reject the null hypothesis
true
during the second week, what causes the embryonic disc to become bilaminar?
a) trophoblast
b) epiblast
c) hypoblast
d) none of the above
a
ringworm is a type of:
a) parasitic infection
b) fungal infection
c) viral infection
d) bacterial infection
b
what are the two layers that sperm need to get through to reach the oocyte?
- corona radiata
- zona pellucida
if 10 people have a cough in a group of 50, what is the probability of cough?
a) 10
b) 0.2
c) 20%
d) 0.25
c
aspirin is a:
a) weak acid
b) strong acid
c) weak base
d) strong base
a
what passes through the diaphragm at T8, T10, and T12?
T8: IVC –> right hand side of midline + right phrenic nerve
T10: oesophagus + vagus plexus –> left side of midline
T12: aorta + thoracic duct + azygous vein + sympathetic trunk –> behind oesophagus
what is a molar pregnancy?
when the tropoblast gives rise to the placenta, but the embryoblast doesnt give rise to the foetus
what bacterial structure is this? Can survive lots of high heat, chemicals, radiation, acid, lysozyme and lay dormant for long periods of time
endspore
true or false: naproxen, diazepam, and propranolol are highly protein bound
true
true or false: the right phrenic nerve can pass through the diaphragm at T8, but the left will always have its own aperture
true
a ___ ____ is inactive an after administration they are metabolised to active metabolites.
pro drug
true or false: constitutive resistance will show routinely on tests whilst inducible resistance may not show on tests
true
the following drugs will inhibit cell wall synthesis, label if they target gram + or -:
- penicillin
- beta-lactams
- glycoproteins
- +
- +
- -
what route of drug administration bypasses absorption? why?
intravenous - goes directly into the blood system
what enzyme inactivates beta-lactam drugs?
beta-lactamase
the respiratory tract is lined with:
a) pseudostratified cuboidal epithelium
b) psuedostratified columnar epithelium
c) simple cuboidal epithelium
d) simple columnar epithelium
b
implantation of the blastocyst usually occurs at:
a) day 4
b) day 5
c) day 6-7
d) day 8-9
d
true or false: by the end of the 2nd week, primordial germ cells have migrated by the yolk sac to the genital ridge, where they are gametes
false: end of 4th week
which virus has 8 negative stranded RNA segments?
a) rhinovirus
b) coronavirus
c) adenovirus
d) influenza
d
true or false: biolfilms are mainly found in gram-negative bacteria
true
The xiphisternum junction corresponds to what vertebrae?
a) T4 angle of louie
b) T8
c) T10
d) T12
c
what demarcates the oropharynx and larynx?
epiglottis
true or false: tuberculosis induces a cell-mediated immune response. it typically induces granulomas of the liver.
false: of the lungs.
true or false: all SSRIs will inhibit CYP2D6 enzyme
true
state whether the orientation is front pocket or back pocket:
a) external intercostals
b) internal intercostals
c) innermost intercostals
front pocket, back pocket, back pocket
a high pKa indicates a _____ acid.
weak
true or false: the right superior lobal bronchi will begin just outside the lung, anterior to the pulmonary artery at T5
false: posterior to the pulmonary artery
in the foetal stage of oogenesis, primary oocyte formation occurs from week 4-20 and then remains dormant until puberty. which stage do they stop at?
a) prophase meiosis I
b) metaphase meiosis I
c) prophase meiosis II
d) metaphase meiosis II
a
during an emergency, an incision in the cricothyroid membrane can be made to establish a patent airway. where does this membrane sit?
between thyroid cartilage and cricoid cartilage
true or false: toxins from bacteria can be leftover after the bacteria has gone. it is often the most important virulence factor
true
true or false: The glycoproteins in corona radiata crosslink with each other to prevent entering of anymore sperm.
false: its glycoproteins from the zona pellucida
what does H and N standard for in influenza?
Haemagglutinin
Neuraminidase
true or false: confounders can distort the effect of exposure
true
true or false: a disease with a high mortality rate will have a significantly greater prevalence than incidence
false - will be similar or prevalence slightly higher
true or false: a chronic disease will have a significantly higher prevalence rate than incidence
true
most oral drug absorption takes place in the:
duodenum
tetracyclines, macrolides, and aminoglycosides inhibit:
a) protein synthesis
b) DNA/RNA synthesis
c) cell wall synthesis
d) folate synthesis
a
Many features are found at the angle of louie (T4/T5 vertebral junction, manubriosternal joint). What does RATPLANT stand for?
Rib 2 and 2nd costal cartilage
Aortic arch
Tracheal bifurcation/carina
Pulomonary trunk bifurcation
Ligamentum arteriosum
Azygous vein drains into SVC
Nerves:loop of recurrent laryngeal nerve, parasympathetic cardiopulmonary plexuses, sympathetic branches of the cardiopulmonary splanchnic nerves
Thoracic duct moves right to left
bias is a type of _____ error.
systematic
true or false: Splanchnic nerves will go through the left and right crus to supply the foregut and midgut
true
if we are hot, sympathetic nervous system will induce vasodilation which _______ blood flow between arteriovenous anastomoses and teh dermal venous plexus (only present in hairless skin), which increases heat loss
increases
there are 12 ribs and __ intercostal spaces, with __ only anteriorly. true ribs are __ to __, false ribs are __ to ___ and floating ribs are __ to __.
11, 9, 1 to 7, 8 to 10, 10/11 to 12
if 10 people have a cough in a group of 50, what are the odds of someone developing a cough?
a) 10
b) 0.2
c) 20%
d) 0.25
d
something is deemed a risk factor if the odds ratio is:
a) greater than 1
b) less than 1
c) between 0 and 1
d) none of the abov
a - odds of exposure (in disease present)/odds of exposure (in disease absent)
what is it called when bacteria start to act as a community rather than single cell?
biofilm
what is the study of the distribution and determinants of health-related states or events (including disease), and the application of this study to control of disease and other health problems?
epidemiology
which is false regarding viruses?
a) cannot lead to cancer
b) can only replicate within living cells
c) can have a lipid envelope
d) nucleic acid surrounded by protein coat
a
true or false: often bacterial illness’ lead to opportunistic viral illnesses
false
what is the name of the fissure on the left lung?
oblique
what nerve innervates the diaphragm and acts as a pain receptor in the pericardial sac? whats its origin?
phrenic nerve - C3, 4, 5 keeps the diaphragm alive
what bacterial structure is this? a dormant, tough, and non-reproductive structure in which some bacteria can reduce themselves to
endospore
what part of the blastocyst forms the placenta?
trophoblast
true or false: phase II conjugation reactions involve the addition of a polar group which increases water solubility of the drug. they resulting conjugate is usually active
false: all true except resulting conjugate is usually inactive
true or false: during the first week of development, cells migrate from the hypoblast to form a seconary yolk sac, and the primary yolk sac is pushed aside
false: during 2nd week
true or false: the parietal pleura covers teh outer surface of the lungs and is not sensitive to pain
false: this is teh visceral pleura
true or false: the oogonium is a n haploid
false: 2n diploid
the neural plate forms first at the ____ end of the embryo. neural crest cells arise from the _____ edges of teh neural plate. it is broad cranially and tapered caudally
cranil, lateral
true or false: the root of the lung is formed from the parietal pleura and is medial to the lungs. It forms a loose sleeve extending down from the hilus.
false: this is the pulmonary ligament
a risk difference and relative risk of 0.12 indicates that:
a) exposure increases the risk
b) exposure decreases the risk
c) exposure has no effect on the risk
d) cannot determine
b
which condition is infectious but not contagious?
a) diphtheria
b) tetanus
c) cholera
d) influenza
b
which of the following is incorrect?
a) the oral bioavailbility of a drug is the fraction of the unchanged drug which reaches the systemic circulation following oral administration
b) as a general rule, anything which delays gastri emptying increases the rate of drug absorption
c) the administration of a drug intravenously bypasses absorption
d) in passive diffusion, drugs move across the cell membrane wihtout the need for energy expenditure
b
where does fertilization occur?
ampulla of fallopian tubes
diphtheria is a type of exotoxin. which type?
a) cytotoxin
b) neurotxin
c) enterotoxin
a
the secondary oocyte will remain at arrest of metaphase II until:
fertilization occurs
match the names and definitions. symbosis, commensal, pathogen
a) parasite benefits and the host is unharmed
b) both host and parasite benefit
c) parasite benefits and the host is harmed
a - commensal
b - symbiosis
c- pathogen
broth dilution and agar diffusion/disc method are example of what kind of testing for antibiotics?
susceptibility testing
____ ________ _____ transporters are active pumps which source their energy from ___. they can transport drugs against a concentration gradient e.g. iron and _____ to treat parkinson’s
ATP binding cassete, levodopa
which hormone stimulates the diploid oocyte completing meiosis I, to form 2 haploid daughter cells?
a) gonadotropin releasing hormone
b) follicle stimulating hormone
c) luteinizing hormone
d) none of the above
c
what are the two features that lie anterior to the anterior scalene muscle and the two features that lie posterior?
anterior - phrenic nerve and subclavian vein
posterior - brachial plexus and subclavian artery
malaria is caused by a _____ _____ parasite and transmitted via the mosquito vector, Anophelese mosquito
plasmodium protozoal
define relative risk and risk difference.
relative risk (RR): risk exposed/risk nonexposed
risk difference = risk exposed - risk nonexposed
which of these is NOT involved in protein binding of a drug?
a) chylomicrons
b) lypoproteins
c) glycoproteins
d) albumin
a
A subclinical infection is one that is:
a) symptomatic
b) asymptomatic
c) contagious in a hospital setting
d) non-contagious
b
enzymes in the cytochrome P450 system contain ___ and ____. cytchromes are structures with the ___ bound to a protein (located in cells “cyto”) and the haem moeity absorbs coloured like “_____”.
haem, iron, haem, chrome
in order for antibiotics to inhibit wall biosynthesis, they must enter:
a) gram-positive cells
b) gram-negative cells
c) dormant cells
d) growing cells
d
true or false: T1-T11 anterior rami spinal nerves supply the intercostal nerves. The posterior rami supply the synovial joints of the spinal column. T12 is a subcostal nerve that runs anterior on the abdominal wall
true
the epidemiological triangle regarding infectious disease has what three factors?
host
agent
environmental
what is the most significant feature of the 3rd week of development?
gastrulation
true or false: bird flu is a triple reassortment virus
false - swine flu is
what infectious disease causes this? Initial sign is early rash, which later develops into purpuric haemorrhagic rash and peripheral gangrene due to septicaemia
meningococcal
true or false: vasoconstriction of skin vessels ia adrenergic based and vasodilation is acetylcholine based
true
PAMPs recognise ____ which is an intermediate of most viral replication strategies
dsRNA
beta-lactams, pencillins, and vancomycin inhibit:
a) protein synthesis
b) DNA/RNA synthesis
c) cell wall synthesis
d) folate synthesis
c
which of these is false regarding type I pneumocytes?
a) cover 95% of alveolar surface and involved in gas exchange
b) squamous epithelium, thin and larger than type II
c) secrete pulmonary surfactant
d) cannot replicate itself
c
list 4 mechanisms of drug resistance
- permeability barriers
- efflux pump
- antibiotic target modification
- inactivating enzymes
the joint between the bony rib and costal cartilage of the rib is _______ joint. The joint betweeen the costal cartilage of the rib and the sternum is the _______.
costochondral, sternocostal
which of these is not a feature of the blood brain barrier?
a) endothelial cells have very tight junctions
b) basement membrane is continuous
c) limited number of small, aqueous pores
d) consists of influx trasporters e.g. P-glycoprotein and efflux transporters e.g. GLUT1
d) P-glycoprotein is an efflux transporter, GLUT-1 is an influx transporter
the two major forms of drug resistance are ______, which is predictable in a genus/species and _______ which is unpredictabl
intrinsic, acquired
in the menstrual cycle, estrogen is most proliferant at the _______ phase, luteinizing hormone at the ________ phase, and progesterone at the _________ phase.
follicular, ovulation, luteal
at what costal cartilage does the anterior border of the left pleura (lung) deviate?
4th costal cartilage
true or false: the spinal cord travels through the vertebral foramen and the nerve roots exit via the foramen intervertebrae
true
the superior laryngeal nerves innervate the cricothyroid muscle. it conists of internal sensory nerves and external motor nerves. cutting the internal and external branches will cause:
internal: inability to cough
external: inability to tense vocal cords and control pitch
the scrotum is involved in movement of the testis and heat regulation. which two muscles do this?
movement - cremasteric muscle
heat - dartos muscle
what layer does the neurovascular bundle lie between?
a) outermost and internal
b) internal and innermost
c) innermost and rib
d) outermost and innermost
b
list the degrees to insert the following injections:
- intramuscular
- subcutaneous
- intravenous
- intradermal
90, 45, 25, 15
absorption of a drug:
a) only occurs following the oral administration of a drug
b) occurs when a drug moves from its site of administration into the blood
c) occurs when a drug moves out of the blood into the tissue
d) only occurs if a drug is in the ionised form
b
match the following with their definitions: cohort study, case-control study, cross-sectional study
a) exposure –> outcome
b) outcome –> exposure
c) exposure & outcome relative to time
a, b, c in order
movement of a drug out of teh blood and into the tissues is:
a) absorption
b) distribution
c) metabolism
d) excretion
b
What am i describing? _____ is definined by the 1st rib and T1, suprasternal notch, manubrium, and pleura of the lungs. The brachial plexus exits here
superior thoracic aperture/thoracic inlet
list 3 common bacterial factors that enable evasion of host defences
- capsule
- enzymes
- cell wall components
order the stages of spermatogenesis
- spermatocytes (2n) become seconary spermatocytes (n) via meiosis I
- spermatids differentiate to form spermatozoa known as spermiogenesis
- secondary spermatocytes undergo meiosis II to become spermatids (n)
- spermatogonia become primary spermatocytes (2n)
4, 1, 3, 2
why are multiple stool samples required to confirm presence of giardia?
not always releasing cysts which is the micrscopic identifying feature
scalenus anterior and medius attach to rib _ and scalenus posterior attaches to rib _
1, 2
capsules are common in gram negative bacteria. they are made of _________ and resistant to _______ by polymorphs and macrophages. they also make ________ difficult as they render the bacterial cell slippery.
polysaccharides, phagocytosis, opsonisation
spermatogenesis is the formation of _________ (2n) to form 4 ________ (n)
spermatogonia, spermatazoa
protozoa are a type of:
a) fungus
b) parasite
c) bacteria
d) algae
b
true or false: a tracheostomy is performed just above the cricoid cartilage and cricothyroid muscle to avoid injury to vocal cords
false: just below
which cell is involved in glucose uptake in the blood brain barrier?
a) astrocyte
b) pericyte
c) endothelial cell
d) neuron
a
cholera is a type of exotoxin. which type?
a) cytotoxin
b) neurotxin
c) enterotoxin
c
how many families (main ones) of the cytochrome P450 system?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 6
d) 7
b
list the order of lung structures starting at trachea and ending at alveoli
trachea, primary bronchi, lobar bronchi, segmental bronchi, terminal bronchiole, alveolar ducts, alveoli
fertilization produces a:
a) gamete
b) zygote
c) primordial germ cell
d) blastocyst
b
a survey of 150 people determined that 67 of them have a cough. of that 67, 30 developed a cough within the last week. what is the incidence rate of cough per week?
a) 28%
b) 36%
c) 20%
d) 45%
b
codeine, amitriptyline, tamoxifen, parxetine, and risperidone are ____ substrates:
a) CYP1A2
b) CYP2D6
c) CYP2E1
d) CYP3A4
b
the notochord is formed by the notochordal plate detatching from the _______ and the free end rolls up into the ______
endoderm, mesoderm
giardia lamblia is a type of protozoa known as _______. it forms ____ and ______. Best treatment is ___________.
flagellates, cysts and trophozoites, metronidazole
true or false: the neural crest defines all major body axes
false: primitive streak
drug metabolism often has two phases. label the correct phase and definition
a) reactions which are conjugation reactions and involve the attachment of a chemical group to the drug e.g. glucuronidation, sulphation
b) reactions which involve oxidation, reduction and hydrolysis
a) phase II reaction
b) phase I reaction
match the names and definitions: UV-A, UV-B, UV-C
a) most of this is absorbed by the o-zone layer
b) we receive a small amount of this but it can cause DNA mutations
c) predominant light we receive and can cause DNA mutations
UV-A: C
UV-B:B
UV-C: A
which of these would NOT cause fail chest or paradoxical chest movement?
a) 3 more adjacent ribs are broken in at least 2 places
b) one shattered rib in at least 4 places
c) 5 or more adjacent rib fractures
d) two ribs broken in at least 2 places
b
95% confidence intervals are a type of ____ error.
random
A _____ _____ is associated with both exposure and disease/outcome. If unknown/ignored, it will distort the association between the exposure and outcome.
confounding factor
true or false: sweat glands are activated by sympathetic adrenergic nerves
false: sympathetic cholinergic nerves
______ ___ conjugation is the most common phase II reaction. These include paracetamol, oestrogen, lorazepam, and sertraline
glucuronic acid
true or false: flora is not present in the blood, CNS, brain, or muscle
true
if your null hypothesis is rejected by your sample, but true at a population level, it is a _____ error. if your null hypothesis is accepted by your sample, but rejected at a population level, it is a ______ error.
type I, type II
a relative risk greater than 10 suggests:
a) the association is likely to be weak
b) the association is likely to be confounding
c) the association is likely to be causal
d) none of the above
c
true or false: it is appropriate to give a bactericidal drug to someone with a compromised immune system
true: wouldn’t want to give them bacteriostatic
true or false: the term risk factor is often used to describe an outcome variable.
false: describes an exposure variable
which of the following drugs inhibits the enzyme cyclooxygenase and reduces the formation of prostaglandins?
a) morphine
b) ramipril
c) amlodipine
d) ibuprofen
d
if 10 people have a cough in a group of 50, what is the frequency of cough?
a) 10
b) 0.2
c) 20%
d) 0.25
a
simvastatin is a _____ substrate. erythromycin and intraconazole will act as an inhibitor/inducer and thus reduce/speed up metabolism.
CYP3A4, inhibitor, reduce
what is the mnemonic used to identify pulmonary arteries at the hilum of the lungs?
RALS (pulmonary arteries relative to bronchi)
Right anterior
Left superior
P-glycoprotein is a carrier molecule (efflux pump) which plays an important role in the absorption, distribution, and elimination of some drugs. It is an ___ ____ cassette transporter that requires energy. It is located in several tissues including the brain, gastrointestinal tract, and the _____.
ATP binding, kidneys
the four parts of the fallopian tube from lateral to medial are:
fimbriae, infundibulum, ampulla, isthmus
a survey of 10,000 people was conducted to determine to incidence rate of prostate cancer. 318 males answered yes to prostate cancer. approximately 75% of people surveyed had a prostate. what is the incidence rate?
a) 32 per 1000 people
b) 42 per 1000 people
c) 31800 per 100,000 people
d) 42300 per 100,000 people
b
true or false: Medications taken by the mother may distribute into breast milk via active diffusion. For some commonly used drugs, the dose received via milk is generally much less than the known safe dose of the same drug given directly to neonates and infants.
false: passive diffusion
what pleura covers the root of the lungs and is sensitive to pain. it is innervated by phrenic and intercostal nerves.
parietal pleura
the two layers of the dermis are ______ layer and ______ layer. The most superficial layer, the ______ layer, is formed by loose connective tissue and provides resistance to ____ stress. The deeper layer is formed by fibrous connective tisse and provies resistance to mechanical trauma and some level of ______.
papillary, reticular, papillary, shear, elasticity
what layer of the skin is multiple layers of dead and fully keratinised cells?
stratum corneum
