BSC + CSS: WK5-6 Flashcards
true or false: typical ribs (3-10) are flattened in the superior-inferior place
false: anterior posterior plane
which hormone produced by trophoblast cells that surround the growing embryo, which eventually forms the placenta.
human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
true or false: gastrulation is the formation of the palcenta from embryoblastic cells and the differentiation of the inner cell mass into the amniotic sac and epiblast
false: trophoblastic cells do this
daptomycin inhibit:
a) protein synthesis
b) DNA/RNA synthesis
c) cell membrane synthesis
d) folate synthesis
c
true or false: Terminal bronchioles contain no cartilage and are lined by simple cuboidal epithelial and contain smooth muscle and connective tissue.
true
what are the structures you will go through to perform an intercostal nerve block? starting from skin:
skin, superficial fascia, serratus anterior/external oblique (depending on location), external intercostals, internal intercostal
true or false: the left and right recurrent laryngeal nerves are a branch of the vagus nerve and supply the extrinsic musucles of the larynx
false: intrinsic muscles, but not cricothyroid muscle
what drug binds to D-alanyl-D-alanine in peptidoglycan precursor to inhibit cell wall synthesis?
a) glycopeptides
b) penicillin
c) beta-lactams
d) quinolones
a
what virus is this?
- one of the most contagious viruses, transmitted via airborne droplets
- enveloped RNA virus that causes respiratory infection
- causes flu like symptoms and a characteristic skin rash
- 10 to 14 days incubation
- vaccine available
measles
true or false: the ductus deferens is medial to the seminal vesicles
false: it is lateral
true or false: warfarin and propranolol are metabolised by more than one cytochrome P450 enzyme
true
morula formation usually occurs at:
a) day 2
b) day 3
c) day 4
d) day 7
c
true or false: the root of the lung is covered by the pulmonary ligament and enables stretching and recoiling of teh lungs during respiration. It contains the bronchi
false: the lung hilum contains the bronchi
what nerve innervates the cricothyroid muscle?
superior laryngeal nerve –> branch of vagus nerve.
true or false: gram negative bacteria have intrinsic resistance to glycopeptides because they can’t penetrate the outer membrane
true
the period of fertilization to implantation typically takes ___ days
6
match the name and definition: necessary cause, sufficient cause, component cause
a) a factor or combination of factors that will inevitably cause disease
b) a factor that contributes to disease but is not sufficient on its own (a risk factor) e.g. smoking
c) a factor that is required for the develop of disease e.g. influenza virus
necessary - c
sufficient - a
component - b
when does the oocyte complete its second meiosis division?
after fertilization
what are the two pleural recesses of the lung? where are they?
costodiaphragmatic recess: between thoracic cage and diaphragm
costomediastinal recess: between rib cage and mediastinum medially
which of these statements regarding ribs 3-10 is false:
a) costal groove on teh lateral side containing neurovascular bundle
b) roughened, flat blunt anterior end for attachment to costal cartilage
c) rounded superior border and sharpened inferior border
d) two demi-facets for vertebrae and one tubercle
a) medial side.
most drugs move across the cell membrane via passive diffusion by combining with a ______ ______ transporter protein
solute carrier
movement of a drug from its site of administration into the blood is:
a) absorption
b) distribution
c) metabolism
d) excretion
a
list 5 drug routes that don’t undergo first pass metabolism
- Sublingual
- Rectal
- Transdermal
- Subcutaneous
- Intramuscular injections
anterior supply of the intercostal muscles is from the _____ _____ arteries which come off the ______ artery. The lower spaces come from the ______ artery. posterior supply is directly off the aorta and rains into superior and inferior _____ ____ veins and then to the _____ vein.
internal thoracic, subclavian, musculophrenic, internal thoracic, hemiazygous, azygous
tetanus is a type of exotoxin. which type?
a) cytotoxin
b) neurotxin
c) enterotoxin
b
true or false: prevalence is the number of new instances of illness in a population of a fixed period of time
false: this is incidence
tuberculuosis is caused by ___________ ___________ which is an acid-fast ____. it is very slow growing and can remain dormant.
mycobacterium tuberculosis, bacilli
swine flu is:
a) H1N2
b) H3H2
c) H5N1
d) H2N2
a
what day of SARS are you most infectious on?
a) day 1
b) day 4
c) day 7
d) day 10
d
during the secon week of development, the embryoblast forms two layers:
hypoblast
epiblast
true or false: the blood brain barrier is a water-soluble barrier and thus lipid drugs have difficulty entering
false: it is a lipid barrier so lipid solible drugs can dissolve, but water soluble have trouble
type II pneumocytes secrete pulmonary surfactant that maintains surface tension in the alveolar and prevents collapsing. which of the following is false?
a) granular and roughly cuboidal in shape
b) can proliferate and differentiate into type I cells
c) numerous but only cover 5% of the surface
d) involved in gas exchange
d
the notochord forms the _________
mesoderm
meningococcal disease is caused by _______ _____, a small gram-negative diplococci. It is commensal in 20% of the population and resides in the ___________ region. it is transmitted via saliva and _______ ______ from a carrier.
neisseria meningitidis, nasopharyngeal, respiratory droplets
what are the four criteria for Koch’s postulates?
- microbes must be present in every case
microbes must be isolated from diseased host and grown in a pure culture
- disease must be reproduced in pure culture and introduced to non-diseased suceptible host
- microbes must be recoverable from experimentally infected host
the gastrula is a monolaminar/bilaminar/trilaminar cellular structure that occurs after implantation.
trilaminar
attributable risk is:
a) the probability of risk occuring for non-exposed group
b) ratio of the risk for exposed vs. non-exposed
c) difference between risk for exposed - risk for non-exposed
d) none of the above
c
amlodipine, cyclosporin, ethinyloestradiol are ____ substrates:
a) CYP1A2
b) CYP2D6
c) CYP2E1
d) CYP3A4
d
intercostal nerve block is performed along what line?
anterior axillary line
can something be both a mediating variable and a confounder? why or why not?
no it cant. confounding factors are not part of the causal chain, but mediators are.
true or false: outer membrane porin changes prevent entry of beta-lactams in gram positive bacteria
false: gram negative, they don’t target gram positive
during gastrulation of the 3rd week, what causes the formation of the endoderm?
a) bilateral migration from the primitive streak
b) hypoblast cell invasion and differentiation
c) formation of the neural crest
d) epiblast differentiation
b
cleavage ends with the formation of the _____, a hollow spehre with an inner fluid cavity called a ________. This is usually formed by day 6
blastocyst, blastocoel
what causes non-specific activation of T cells, resulting in polyclonal T cell activation and massive cytokine release.
superantigens
ethinyloestradiol and levonorgestrel are _____ substrates. grapefruit juice will act as an inhibitor/inducer and thus reduce/speed up metabolism whilst st. johns wort is an inhibitor/inducer and thus reduce/speed up metabolism
CYP3A4, inhibitor, reduce, inducer, speed up
what is the small fluid-filled sac that contains the immature egg called in a graafian follicle?
antrum
what is associated with both the independent and dependent variables but is part of the causal chain between the independent and dependent variables?
mediator variable
true or false: cleavage is multiple, rapid rounds of mitotic cell division where the overall size of the embryo increases significantly
false: size does not increase
match the names and definitions. type I error, type II error:
a) claim there is an assocition with the null hypothesis, but there isnt
b) claim there is no association with the null hypothesis, but there is
a, b
true or false: the left superior lobar bronchi will enter the hilum at T5 and the right superior bronchi will enter unbranched at T6
false: left side is unbranched at T6, right is branched at T5
what nerves innervate the posterior muscles of the vocal cords, the only muscles that can open them?
left and right recurrent laryngeal nerve
Trichophyton, microsporum, Epidermophyton are all types of:
fungal ringworm
match the name and defintion of luteinizing and folicle stimulating hormone
a) stimulates maturation of primordial germ cells and initiates follicular growth
b) triggers ovulation and development of corpus luteum. increases progesterone levels to prepare endometrium for possible implantation
A - FSH
B - LH
a child has been diagnosed with gastroenteritis (viral). what category is the viral substance from?
a) paramyxovirus
b) rhinovirus
c) picornovirus
d) adenovirus
c
true or false: Superior thyroid artery, superior laryngeal vein and superior laryngeal nerve run close to the external carotid artery
true
true or fals regarding skin: As you go up the layers of epidermis, capacity of daughter cells to proliferate increases and they keratinise.
false: capacity to proliferate is lost
what forms the primitive yolk sac?
a) trophoblast
b) epiblast
c) hypoblast
d) none of the above
c
true or false: at fertilization, meiosis II is completed for oocytes. three polar bodies can be formed from the primary and secondary oocyte in total
true
clostridium and bacillus are types of
endospores
which of the following is not an enzyme involved in phase I drug reactions of the liver:
a) cytochrome P450
b) N-acetyl transferase (NAT)
c) alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH)
d) monoamine oxidase (MAO)
b
true or false: efflux pumps are typically an inducible form of antibiotic resistance
false: constitutive
fluoroquinolones and rifamycin inhibit:
a) protein synthesis
b) DNA/RNA synthesis
c) cell wall synthesis
d) folate synthesis
b
list the 5 major ways that a bacteria can get acquired resistance
- plasmids
- transposons
- conjugation
- transduction
- transformation
the diaphragm has two domes joined by the central tendon. what are the attachments at the following surfaces?
a) sternal
b) costal
c) lumbar
d) central tendon
sternal: back of xiphoid process
costal: lower 6 costal cartilages and ribs, transversus abdominus muscle
lumbar: left and right crus
central tendon: base of pericardial sac
the four major stages of pharmocokinetics are:
- absorption
- distribution
- metabolism
- excretion
after gastrulation is complete, the _____ is calle the ectoderm
epiblast
true or false: Low P-value, higher confidence that what you’re saying is right (<0.05) “I have enough information to accept the null hypothesis”
false: reject the null hypothesis
caffeine, naproxen, diazepman, paracetamol, and warfarin are ____ substrates:
a) CYP1A2
b) CYP2D6
c) CYP2E1
d) CYP3A4
a
true or false: antigenic shift involves the mixing of genes from different strains, whereas antigen drift is natural minor mutations over time of known strains
true
list the 6 sequence of events in microbial infection
- access and entry
- spread
- evasion of host defences
- damage to host
- resolution
- transmission
a survey of 8000 people was conducted to determine the prevalence of asthma. 907 people responded “yes” to having asthma. What is the prevalence per 1000 people?
a) 0.11 per 1000 people
b) 11 per 1000 people
c) 113 per 1000 people
d) 1100 per 1000 people
c
regarding the right lung, the oblique fissure separates the _____ and _____ lobes and the horizontal fissure separates the _____ and _____ lobes.
middle, inferior
middle, superior
two main types of paramyxovirus are:
parainfluenza, respiratory syncytial virus
True or false: rib 6 will articulate with the transverse process of vertebrae 6, the superior articular process of vertebrae 6, and the inferior articular process of vertebrae 7
false: inferior articular process of vertebrae 5
what are the two things that are required for a confounder?
- associated with exposure
- risk factor for disease/outcome
true or false: UV-C activates a synthesis pathway which leads to the production of melanin by melanocytes in the basal layer of the epidermis. This melanin is secreted and then can be taken and accumulated in keratinocytes.
false: UV-A
what type of pathogen causes disease due to presence of activity within the normal health host
primary pathogen (as opposed to opportunistic)
why are objects more likely to fall down the right primary bronchus?
shorter, wider, and more vertical
anencepahly is called by failure to close of the ______ _____ at the cranial end whereas spina bifida is failure to close at the ______ end.
neural tube, caudal
what virus group is this? a group of RNA viruses that are predominately responsible for acute respiratory diseases and are usually transmitted by airborne droplets.
paromyxovrirus
there are two classes of toxins, endotoxins and exotoxins. what are the three subclasses of exotoxins?
cytotoxins
neurotoxins
enterotoxins
remnant of the notochord forms the:
nucleus pulposus
the inferior thyroid artery runs close to the recurrent laryngeal nerve and internal carotid artery. where does it originate?
thyrocervical trunk which comes off the subclavian artery
maturation of normal sperm occurs in the:
a) seminal vesicles
b) ductus deferens
c) testis
d) epididymis
d
the pleura of the lung meet at the middle of rib _. the left side diverges at rib _ to make room for the heart whilst the right side continues to rib _. The midclavicular line occurs on both sides at rib _ and then the midaxillary line at rib _. The posterior chest is met at rib 12.
2, 4, 6,8, 10
which of these is FALSE regarding first pass metabolism:
a) IV drugs can undergo first pass metabolism
b) all drugs orally taken undergo first pass metabolism
c) if a drug is extensively metabolised, only a small amount of non-metabolised drug my leave the liver
d) drugs taken orally will have to go through the portal circulation
a
which route of administration will have an oral biolavailability of 100%?
a) rectal
b) transdermal
c) sublinguinal
d) intravenous
d
on what lung would you see the following impressions? azygous vein, subclavian artery, SVC, right atrium, oesophageal groove
right lung
a blastomere has ___ cells
a morula is a compact mass with __ cells
8, 32
pethidine is a:
a) weak acid
b) strong acid
c) weak base
d) strong base
c
what does PICO stand for?
Population/patient/problem
Intervention/exposure
Comparator
Outcome
a respiratory virus that prefers warmer, moist areas is likely to replicate in:
a) lower respiratroy tract
b) uuper respiratory tract
c) any part of respiratory tract
d) nasopharynx
a
true or false: malaria causes infection of red blood cells. it needs to be transmitted via a female mosquito which breeds in stagnant water and can survive up to 5 days in stored blood.
true
bird flu is:
a) H1N1
b) H3H2
c) H5N1
d) H2N2
b
by the end of what week is the following established? two layers in the germ disc, two cavities in the embryoblast (amniotic + yolk sac), utero placental circulation established
2nd week
the trachea begins and ends at what vertebral levels?
C6 to T4
match the names and origins: ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm, archenteron
a) epidermis, nervous system, neural crest
b) muscle, bone, connective tissue, heart and blood vessels
c) epithelium of digestive tract and respitatory tract and associated organs
d) digestive tract
a - ectoderm
b - mesoderm
c - endoderm
d - archenteron
true or false: endotoxins are produced by both gram negative and positive bacteria. They are secreted, soluble and diffusible but can be destroyed by heating.
false: this is exotoxins
what is this the definition of? lowest concentration of antibiotic which inhibits growth in broth or agar dilution of antibiotic with standard inoculum.
minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)
list 6 methods of antibiotic targeting:
- cell wall
- cell membrane
- protein synthesis
- DNA synthesis inhibition
- RNA synthesis inhibition
- folate synthesis
measles and mumps are a type of:
a) adenovirus
b) paramyxovirus
c) retrovirus
d) pneumovirus
b
what am i describing? ______ is defined by 11/12th rib and T12, xiphisternal joint, costal margin of ribs 7-10 anteriorly, diaphragm.
inferior thoracic aperture/thoracic outlet
true or false: Most drugs are either weak acids or weak bases, and it is the ionised form of weak acids and bases which is lipid soluble.
false: unionised form
the zona pellucida is:
a thick, transparent membrane that surrounds the oocyte
what are the two factors we use to measure burden of disease?
years life lost (death)
years life lost to disability
when a primary oocyte is at arrest at metaphase meiosis II, it is called a
a) graafian follicle
b) oocyte
c) zygote
d) blastocyst
a
regarding spermatids, the tail is made by __________ on one of the centrioles which turns into a basal body. mitochondria are found in the _____ and undergo chromatic packing forming a condensed nucleus called the _______.
microtubules, axoneme, acrosome
in an acidic environment, weak ____ are more unionised and weak ___ are more ionised. Thus, weak ____ are good for absorption in the stomach
acids, bases, acids
a viral infection of the tonsils or adenoids is likely a:
a) paramyxovirus
b) rhinovirus
c) picornovirus
d) adenovirus
d
which virus type is this? largest known non-enveloped virus. Typically, stable to chemical or physical agents and adverse pH conditions.
adenovirus
