BSC + CCS: WK3-4 Flashcards
true or false: dendritic cells express class I and class II MHCs
true
the epidermis of skin contains melanocytes and keranocytes. what type of epithelium is present?
a) simple squamous
b) stratified squamous
c) simple cuboidal
d) stratified cuboidal
b
karotyping is used to determine:
a) genetic abnormalities
b) chromosomal chromosomal abnormalities
c) chromosomal count only
d) all of the above
b
true or false: DNA pol delta has exonucleas 3’–>5’ activity to correct mistakes
true
a non-competitive inhibitor will:
a) bind to the substrate
b) bind to sites that are not the enzymes active site to change its conformation
c) bind to a different site on the enzyme but still enabling it to bind to the substrate
d) bind to sites on the enzyme to in-activate it
b
adhering junctions of cells is important when mechanical stress occurs in the skin and gut. they anchor the cytoskeleton actin filament network and penetrate the plasma membrane of adjacent cells. they are distinguished by what?
epithelial cadherins (E-Cadherins)
a drug that has the same efficacy but different potencies, will be ___ on a graph?
a) smaller slope
b) greater slope
c) shifted left
d) shifted right
c
which of these is NOT membrane bound?
a) endoplastic reticulum
b) peroxisomes
c) golgi apparatus
d) lysosomes
e) ribosomes
e
for every one molecule of glucose, how many molecules of acetyl-CoA enter the Krebs cycle?
2
true or false: skeletal muscle can occur as a single cell
false: always a fibre
true or false: hilton’s law states that any nerve supply a joint also supplies the muscles moving the joint, but not the skin overlying the insertion of these muscles
false: supplies all of it
true or false: potency is the amount of drug needed to produce a given response
true
which of these is not involved in cell movement?
a) microtubules
b) microfilaments (actin)
c) intermediate filametns
c
SSRIs work by:
a) blocking serotonin receptors
b) blocking serotonin reuptake transporter
c) competitive binding to serotonin receptors
d) binding to serotonin itself to prevent re-uptake
b
partial deletion of chromosome 5 causes:
a) angelman syndrome
b) turner syndrome
c) edward syndrome
d) cri-du-chat syndrome
d
the gluteus medius and minimus both insert into the greater trochanter. which part do they insert on?
medius - lateral surface
minimus - anterior surface
ATP synthase works by the binding change mechanism. which of these statements is false?
a) three catalytic sites on the enzyme containing ADP and phosphate
b) rotation is driven by protons crossing the matrix back to the intermembrane space
c) a second conformational change is required to release ATP
d) a conformational change of ATP synthase enables binding of tight ATP
b
what are the most common lipids in our diet?
triglycerides
golfer’s elbow is the overuse of ______
flexors
which is the site of protein synthesis?
a) rough ER
b) smooth ER
c) golgi apparatus
d) ribosomes
a
the strongest ligament of the hip is:
a) iliofemoral
b) pubofemoral
c) ischofemoral
a) prevents hyperextension
true or false: serratus anterior originates from the occiptal bone and spinous processes of C7-12. the fibres attach to the clavicle, acromion, and scapula spine.
false: this is the trapezius
any drug ending in ‘pril’ is an:
ACE inhibitor
what synthesises proteins?
ribosomes
if a condition skips every second generation but equally affects males and females it is likely:
a) autosomal dominant
b) automsomal recessive
c) X-linked
d) can’t tell
b
the arrector pili muscle is:
a) a smooth muscle
b) contracts and causes goose bumps
c) found in the reticular dermis
d) all of the above
d
the cortex bone is arranged in a disordered/ordered pattern in concentric forms with a central canal called the ______ canal. Osteons contain a mineral matrix and living osteocytes connected by _______ which transports blood. they are aligned with the parallel axis
haversian, canaliculi
how much ATP is produced for 1 glucose molecule in the krebs cycle?
2 (1 each round)
which flexor muscle (anterior compartment) attaches to the thumb?
a) flexor digitorum profundus
b) flexor pollicis longus
c) flexor digitorum superficialis
d) flexor carpi radialis
b
which muscle is responsible for flexion of the wrist?
a) palmaris longus
b) pronator teres
c) pronator quadratus
d) anconeus
a
translation occurs:
a) in the nuclear pores
b) on the mitochondrial memrbane
c) in the nucleus
d) on ribosomes in the cytsol
d
true or false: a small Km value indicates that the rate of breakdown is slow. this means the bonding is tight and the enzyme has a low affinity for the substrate. The product is forming quicker than the rate of breakdown
false: the enzyme has a high affinity
During starvation, glucagon acts on a _____ receptor to stimulate protein kinase A. This increases _____ and phosphorylates ________ _______, which inactivates it. Glucagon will also activate phosphorylase kinase which phisphorylates _______ _________ and this promotes the breakdown of ________.
GPCR, cAMP, glycogen synthase, glycogen phoshorylase, glycogen
during glycolysis, 1 molecule of glucose is converted into ___ molecules of pyruvate + __ ATP. This is a 10 step process
2, 2
receptor tyrosine kinase works by what two factors?
dimerization of a ligand and autophosphoyrlation (kinase adds phosphate)
select which statement(s) are true: without oxygen, pyruvate
a) gains a hydrogen from NADH and forms lactate
b) pyruvate forms acetylaldehyde by losing a CO2 and gains a hydrogen from NADH to form ethanol
c) pyruvate forms acetylaldehyde by losing a CO2 and loses from NADH to form ethanol
d) is oxidised by NAD going to NADH and forms lactate
a and b are true
the radial tuberosity is the site of insertion for the:
a) triceps tendon
b) biceps brachii tendon
c) common flexors
d) common extensors
b
in flammation, _______ bind monocytes and neutrophils to the endothelium resulting in flattening. This enables them to migrate out of the interstitial space into the blood stream. chemotaxis is the emigration of _________ toward the site of injury
integrins, leukocytes
match the corresponding label and meaning. periosteum, cortex, medullary cavity, bone marrow
a) contains compact and cancellous bone
b) most outer part which contains fibrous tissue
c) fills medullary cavity
d) opening containing cancellous bone
periosteum - a
cortex - b
medullary cavity - d
bone marrow - c
philadelphia chromosome translocation increases tumour specific marker for chronic myueloid leukemia. what does it involve?
a) reciprocal translocation between chromosome 13 and 21
b) robertsonian translocation between chromosome 13 and 21
c) reciprocal translocation between chromosome 9 and 22
d) robertsonian translocation between chromosome 9 and 22
c
what is the difference between pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics?
pharmacokinetics: what the body does to the drug
pharmacodynamics: what the drug does to the body
which arteries supply roughly the outer one-third of the compact bone of the diaphysis?
a) metaphyseal arteries
b) nutrient arteries
c) periosteal arteries
d) eiphyseal arteries
c
when keranocytes start to develop keratohyaline granules, they begin to die off. what colour does the nuclei change to?
a) pink to white
b) pink to dark purple
c) purple to dark pink
d) no nuclei change
a
name an enzyme that is not a protein
ribozymes (tRNA etc)
true or false: mitosis will result in the generation of four identical daughter cells
false: 2
what happens if a polyA tail does not occur on the mRNA?
it will be degraded and cannot be exported from nucleus to cytoplasm
which is true of transcription?
a) driven by RNA polymerase II
b) produces an RNA transcript from a DNA template
c) occurs in the nucleus of a cell
d) all of the above
d
goblet cells in the GI tract and mucous glands in the airway are an example of:
a) simple tubular glands
b) unicellular glands
c) eccrine glands
d) acinar glands
b
hair roots are found in the:
a) reticular dermis
b) hypodermis
c) stratum basale
d) stratum spinosum
a
a medial meniscus tear is due to damage to what ligament?
a) fibular collateral ligament
b) tibial collateral ligament
c) anterior cruciate ligament
d) posterior cruciate ligament
b
two chromatid pairs form:
a) sister chromatids
b) a chromosome
c) two pairs of sister genes
d) a single gene
a) a chromatid is one copy of a newly copied chromosome which is still joined to the original chromosome by a single centromere
during transamination, glutamate’s amino group is transferred to _______ in a second transamination reaction, yielding ________
a) aspartate, oxaloacetate
b) oxaloacetate, aspartate
c) ketoglutarate, aspartate
d) ketoglutarate, oxaloacetate
b
the iliopsoas attaches to the:
a) greater trochanter
b) lesser trochanter
c) interotrochanteric line
d) adductor tubercle
b
fibres that are fast to contract, less sustained, easily fatigued and less vascular are:
pale type II fibres e.g. mobility focused
Thelpercells has class __ MHC and when activated they secrete cytokines that contirbute to activation of _ cell and __ cells
II, B, Tc (cytotoxic T cells)
which of these reactions would have a high Km?
a) glucokinase acting on glucose in a fasting state
b) glucokinase acting on glucose in a full state
c) hexokinase acting on glucose in a fasting state
d) hexokinase acting on glucose in a full state
a
what are the three main trisomy conditions
trisomy 13 –> patau syndrome
trisomy 18 –> edward syndrome
trisomy 21 –> downs syndrome
a pleiotropic effect is when:
same cytokine has different effects on different cells
motor neurons innervate the:
a) sarcolemma
b) epimysium
c) perimysium
d) endomysium
a
Neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs) comprise of a web of _______ and _____ proteases that trap and kill extracellular microbes, independent of phagocytic uptake. Increase in _______ _______ ______ and nitrous oxide lead to the release of NETs. NETs are like suicide bombers.
chromatin, serine, reactive oxygen species
which of the following regarding telocytes is false:
a) pluripotent mesenchymal cell
b) plays a role in immune response
c) maintains homeostasis by miRNA
d) all are true
b
the papillary dermis is:
a) border of reticular dermis and hypodermis
b) where the epidermis begins to slough off
c) where the connective tissue and epidermis interlock
d) where the hypodermis meets the basal membrane
c) maintains integrity and attachment - connective tissue is rising up
true or false: both mesothelium and endothelium are stratified squamous epithelial cells
false: simple squamous
what two muscles are involved in abduction of the scapula at 0-15deg?
infraspinatus and teres minor
where are lysosomes formed?
a) rough ER
b) smooth ER
c) golgi apparatus
d) mitochondria
c
where are peroxisomes formed?
a) rough ER
b) smooth ER
c) golgi apparatus
d) mitochondria
b
true or false: cholesterol is both a steroid and triglyceride
false: just steroid
the trapezius muscle is innervated by the:
cranial nerve XI accessory nerve
the medial muscles of the thigh are supplied by the ______ nerve. there are 5 of them:
obturator,
pectineus, gracilis, adductor longus, adductor brevis, adductor magnus
match the names and definitions: Z band, I band, A band, M band
a) linkage of myosin bundles
b) fibrils of actin
c) myosin bundles that overlap actin
d) actin anchor
Z band (a) - actin anchor
I band (b) - fibrils of actin
A band (c) - myosin bundles that overlap actin
M band (a) - linkage of myosin bundles
which of these is NOT a cartilaginous joint?
a) synchondroses
b) symphyses
c) syndesmosis
d) all are
c
what are the two main jobs of the periosteum?
provide blood
osteogenic
the joints in the hand are:
a) plane joint
b) saddle joint
c) pivot joint
d) hinge joint
b
After a meal, insulin will bind to a protein kinase receptor and activate glycogen synthase via _______ which removes a phosphate and stores glucose as glycogen. Insulin will also phosphorylase _____ ____ which prevents the ________ of glycogen.
protein phosphatase, glycogen phosphorylase, breakdown
monocytes are called _______ when they exit the blood and enter tisse
macrophages
the main function of NK cells is:
a) phagocytosis
b) toxicity
c) inflammation
d) antigenic presenting
b
the apical domain of cells is exposed to a lumen or external environment. the acronym SPAT EGGS describes the function of this domain. what does it stand for?
Secretion –> glands
Protection –> skin
Absorption –> microvilli
Transport –> material
Excretion –> kidney tubules
Gas exhcnage –> alveoli lungs
Gliding –> mesothelium
Sensation –> stereokillin
true or false: all genetic traits are heritable
false: most genes have a polygenetic aetiology (genetic + environmental factors)
where would pain be felt if there is a break in the scaphoid bone of the hand?
anatomical snuff box
the peroneus longus and brevis are involved in plantarflexion of the foot. which one descends posterior to the lateral melleolus and goes under the foot to attach to the medial side?
peroneus longus
what is the muscle that elevates the scapula?
levator scapulae
the intercellular junctions between myocardiocytes is called:
intercalated discs
match the names and meanings: law of segregation, law of independent assortment, law of dominance
a) genes for different traits can segregate independently during the formation of gametes
b) during gamete formation, alleles of each gene segregate from each other so that each gamete only carries one allele for each gene
c) an organism with at least one dominant allele will display the affect of the dominant allele
b- law of segregation
a- law of independent assortment
c- law of dominance
histone modification involves unwinding of histones to reveal different parts of the chromatin. acetylation of histones generally switches on/off a gene and methylation of cytosines generally switches on/off a gene
on, off
what converts mRNA to a polypeptide chain?
translation RNA (tRNA)
the bursa is a small fibrous yet fluid sack that intervenes between:
bone and muscle
ACE inhibitors work by:
blocking conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
true or false: peripheral membrane proteins are located on either side of a membrane but are not imbedded. Integral membrane proteins are embedded
true
the humeroulnar joint is a ball and socket/hinge joint and the humeroradial is a ball and sock/hinge joint
hinge, ball and socket
what is the secondary location of ossification?
a) diaphysis
b) metaphysis
c) epiphysis
d) epiphyseal plate
c
describe the following:
a) uniport
b) symport
c) antiport
uniport - one molecule goes through the transporter
symport - molecule goes through the transporter in addition to an ion being co-transported
antiport - one molecule enters and an ion exits
thumb muscles and brachioradialis attach to ____ on the radius:
a) styloid process
b) scaphoid process
c) ulnar notch
d) dorsal tubercle
a
a positive free energy value indicates:
a) stored energy to access in bonds and exergonic
b) stored energy to access in bonds and endergonic
c) no energy to access in bonds and exergonic
d) no energy to access in bonds and endergonic
b
true or false: amino acids can enter the krebs cycle either as pyruvate, citrate and acetyl-CoA
false: only as pyruvate and acetyl-CoA
before entering the kreb’s cycle, triglycerides are broken down to:
fatty acyl-CoA
the intervertbral disc is an example of a:
a) gomphosis synarthroses joint
b) primary synchondroses cartilaginous joint
c) secondary symphyses cartilaginous joint
d) syndesmosis synarthroses joint
c
match each name and defintion regarding electron transport gradient. complex I, II, III, IV
a) four protons are pumped into the intermembrane space and NADH is oxidised
b) FADH2 is reduced to FAD and coenzyme Q transports the electrons to the next complex
c) two protons are pumped into the intermembrane space and H2O is formed in the mitochondrial matrix
d) four protons are pumped into the intermembrane space and teh carrier C transports electrons to the next complex
a, b, d, c
which is the site of lipid synthesis?
a) rough ER
b) smooth ER
c) golgi apparatus
d) ribosomes
b
acetylcholine receptors are an example of:
a) tyrosine kinase receptor
b) GPCR
c) ligand-gated ion channel
d) voltage-gated ion channel
c
if a drug is a competitive antagonist, what will the dose respones curve look like?
a) shifted to the right with a small gradient
b) shifted to the left
c) shifted to the right
d) no response
d - although its binding, there is no activation of the enzyme
true or false: although cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle both contain cylindrical shapes, skeletal muscle has long parallel cynlinders and cardiac muscle has short branched cylinders
true
where are the blood vessels found in the periosteum?
harversian cannals
the pectoralis minor attaches at the coracoid proccess and:
a) ribs 1-3
b) ribs 3-5
c) ribs 2-5
d) ribs 3-8
b
true or false: splicing enables different protein actions to be produced from the same gene
true
a 13yo boy comes in to emergency complaining of knee pain after a football match. upon examination, you notice an anterior shift in his tibia when his knee is in flexion. what is the likely cause of this?
a) tear of the anterior cruciate ligament
b) tear of the posterior cruciate ligament
c) tear of the medial collateral ligament
d) tear of the lateral collateral ligament
a
the steps of extravasation and margination in inflammation are:
- spreading
- rolling
- arrest + activation
- emigration
- flowing
5, 2, 3, 1, 4
true or false: fibrocytes are multipotent and retain mitotic activity
true
list the following names and definitions of these disaccarhides. sucrose lactose maltose
a) glucose + galactose
b) glucose + fructose
c) glucose + glucose
a) glucose + galactose = lactose
b) glucose + fructose = sucrose
c) glucose + glucose = maltose
true or false: laminin is the major non-collagenous component of the basal lamina
true
in the presence of oxygen, pyruvate can be transformed into acetyl-CoA to enter the krebs cycle. This is performed by certain steps called the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex. List them in order.
a) an acetyl group is transferred to coenzyme A, resulting in acetyl-CoA
b) a carboxyl group is removed from pyruvate, releasing carbon dioxide
c) NAD+ is reduced to NADH
b, c, a
true or false: the olecranon serves as a lever for extensor muscles of the ulna
true
when the scapula moves forward its called _______ and when the scapula mvoes back its called _________
protraction, retraction
where is the best place to inject in the gluteus maximus? why?
upper right quandrant to avoid sciatic nerve
the four muscles of the rotator cuff are:
supraspinatus
infraspinatus
teres minor
subscapularis
brachialis arises from the distal anterior humerus and inserts into the coranoid process and _____ ______
ulnar tubersoity
a negative free energy value indicates:
a) stored energy to access in bonds and exergonic
b) stored energy to access in bonds and endergonic
c) no energy to access in bonds and exergonic
d) no energy to access in bonds and endergonic
c
true or false: affinity is the ability of a drug to form a drug-receptor complex
true
why does a fracture in the scaphoid bone of the hand leave it vulernable to avascular necrosis?
has a retrograde blood supply
when removing axillary nodes during surgery, what muscle can you damage?
a) teres minor
b) pectoralis major
c) teres major
d) pectoralis minor
d
true or false: the subscapularis sites between pec minor and pec major
false: deep to both
a 13yo boy comes in to emergency complaining of knee pain after a football match. upon examination, you notice a posterior shift in his tibia when his knee is in flexion. what is the likely cause of this?
a) tear of the anterior cruciate ligament
b) tear of the posterior cruciate ligament
c) tear of the medial collateral ligament
d) tear of the lateral collateral ligament
b
The turnover number (Kcat) looks at the activity of the enzyme at Vmax. what is the formula?
Kcat = Vmax/[E}t
basically how fast it breaks down shit
true or false: movement of Na+ back into the cell brings glucose with it, acting as an antiporter
false: acts as a symporter
a robertsonian translocation is when two segments from non-homologous chromosomes are exchanged
false: its when the long arms of non-homologous chromosomes fuse
what are the individual contracticle units of myofibrils in skeletal muscle called?
sarcomere
true or false: the bursa is found inside the joint cavity
false , just outside it
what site helps form peroxisomes and makes enzymes within lysosomes?
a) rough ER
b) smooth ER
c) golgi apparatus
d) ribosomes
a
the activation energy is:
a) the energy needed to inititate a chemical reaction
b) a factor that alters depending on the concentration
c) the energy needed to reverse a chemical reaction
d) a factor that increases rate of reaction
a
the joints in the foot are:
a) plane joint
b) saddle joint
c) pivot joint
d) hinge joint
a
degradation of amino acids occurs in the kidneys and liver and involves what process?
a) methylation
b) phosphorylation
c) deamination
d) trans acetylation
c
rough ER releses proteins in a transport vesicle which fuse with the cis/trans face of the golgi apparatus. They are modified in the golgi apparatus and leave the cis/trans face within a secretoy vesicle.
cis, trans
list the steps of translation in the correct order:
- small ribosomal complex carrying methionine will start at the 5’ cap until it finds AUG. The P site will bind to it and recruit large ribosomal complex to form initiation complex
- the newly formed peptide will move to the P site
- next amino acid will joint at the A site and the two amino acids at the A and P site will form a new peptide bond
- the empty tRNA leaves via the E site, which exposes a new codon to the A site
1, 3, 2, 4
automsomal dominant traits usually result in:
a) gain of function
b) loss of function
c) cannot tell
a
true or false: both the serratus anterior and trapezoid are involved in abduction of the scapula from 90-180deg
true
which mRNA does not undergo 5’ capping?
mitochondrial mRNA
what are the three components of nucleotide bases?
nitrogenous base, phosphate group, sugar (5 carbon pentose)
true or false: melanocytes deliver melanin to epithelial cells of the basal layer. they also have characteristics of nerve cells.
true
three main ligaments of the hip joint are:
iliofemoral
ischofemoral
pubofemoral
acetylcholine stimulates what receptors?
a) cholinergic receptors
b) alpha receptors
c) histamine receptors
d) opioid receptors
a
what is the muscle layer called that is formed of wispy connective tissue covering each individual myocyte. it also contains nerves and capillaries that overlay the sarcolemma (fibre’s cell membrane)
a) epimysium
b) perimysium
c) sarcoplasm
d) endomysium
d
true or false: efficacy or intrinsic activity is any natural substance which can combine with, and activate a receptor
false: it is the response when a drug-receptor complex is formed
are simple or complex carbohydrates partially digested?
complex - good stuff for you
true or false: converting of triglycerides to fatty acyl-CoA requires ATP
true
true or false: the ulnar nerve and ulnar artery enter the carpal tunnel
false: median nerve only
what are the four main functions of the plasma membrane?
- physical barrier
- selective permeability
- electrochemical gradient
- communication
generally, DNA methylation will activate/inhibit gene expression
inhibit
in transcription, the coding strand is read 5’–>3’ and the template strand is read 3’–>5’
coding strand ATCGA
template strand TAGCT
what will the mRNA read?
a) AUCGA
b) TAGCT
c) AUCGA
d) UCGAU
a
the most effective antigen presenting cell is:
a) dendritic cell
b) NK cell
c) macrophage
d) naive B cell
a
the scapula extends from the ___ rib to the __ rib
2nd 7th
the rectus femoris attaches at the:
a) anterior superior iliac spine
b) anterior inferior iliac spine
c) posterior superior iliac spine
d) posterior inferior iliac spine
b
what are the two main components of the ECM?
- glycosaminoglycans (GAGs)
- glycoproteins (GPs)
true or false:
- Only introns are removed during splicing.
- All introns are removed always
a) 1 is true
b) 2 is true
c) both statements are false
d) both statements are true
c) both statements false
free energy is is:
a) ability to store energy and do work
b) the amount of energy available for useful work
c) measure of degree or disorder in a substance
d) about of internal energy contained in a compound
a
the pectoralis major covers:
a) ribs 1-3
b) ribs 1-6
c) ribs 3-6
d) ribs 1-7
b
the gluteus maximus is innervated by the _____ gluteal nerve whilst the gluteus medius and minimus are innervated by the _______ gluteal nerve
inferior, superior
the anterior muscles of the thigh are hip _____ and innervated by the ______ nerve
flexors, femoral
cytotoxic T cells have class __ MHC receeptor and recognise and kill altered self cells
I
what is the difference between EC50 and ED50?
EC50 - dose that gives you 100% response
ED50 - dose that gives you 50% response
true or false: all the posterior muscles of the tibia originate from the femur
false: only plantaris and gastrocenmius do, soleus is from tibia
true or false: entropy (S) is the difference in bond energy broken - bond energy formed
false: this is enthalpy (H)
a competitive antagonist:
a) will bind to the agonist
b) will block the receptor’s basal activity
c) will bind to a receptor but not activate it
d) competes with the agonist but not bind to the receptor
c
what forms monomers of itself to form a network known as the basal lamina?
laminin
which of these is a synergist muscle?
a) stabilises the origin of the agonist to act efficiently
b) performs the desired movement
c) produces opposite movement to the desired movement
d) prevents movement at an undesired joint to help the agonist
d
true or false: the radius does not take part in the wrist joint
false: the ulna does not take part in the wrist joint
the head of a bone is usually superior, except for which bone is it inferior?
ulna
what kind of hormones are involved in GCPR signalling?
water soluble hormones
the hair follicle begin in the:
a) epidermis
b) reticular dermis
c) hypodermis
b
fatty acids are converted to acetyl groups via ____ oxidation
beta
true or false: elastin looks like cylindrical threads or flat ribbons
true
which muscle of the forearm can be considered an extension of the triceps?
a) anconeus
b) flexor carpi ulnaris
c) extensor carpi ulnaris
d) brachioradialis
a
a coller’s fracture is the result of:
a) ulnar styloid fracture displaces the wrist joint
b) downward displacement of the distal radius due to a fall
c) fracture in both the styloid processes of the radius and ulnar
d) downward displacement of the distal ulna to a fall
b
true or false: the medial pectoral nerve from the brachial plexus innervates both the pec minor and major, but the lateral pectoral nerve only innervates pec minor
false: lateral innervates pec major and medial innervates minor + major
which of these reactions would have a low Km?
a) glucokinase acting on glucose in a fasting state
b) glucokinase acting on glucose in a full state
c) hexokinase acting on glucose in a fasting state
d) hexokinase acting on glucose in a full state
c
two acetylcholine are required to bind to the nicotinic receptor to activate it. this cases depolarisation of the ion channels which enables ___ and ___ to enter the cell and ___ to move out of the cell
Na+ and Ca+, K+
which of these is involved in organelle movement?
a) microtubules
b) microfilaments (actin)
c) intermediate filaments
a
what controls selective permeability in a cell?
electrochemical gradient
the three zones of the lamina are:
lamina rara
lamina densa
lamina rectiularis
lectin binding to the pathogen surface to initiate opsonisation is part of what system?
innate immune system - complement system
why do X-linked hereditary conditions affect males more than females?
females (XX): one X gene from mum and one from dad –> if you need two copies then they will only be a carrier
males (XY): get X gene from the mother so 50/50 chance if the mother is a carrier
why is ATP such a good source of readily available energy?
a) the phosphate bonds repel each other and are unstable covalent bonds
b) the phosphate bonds repel each other and are thus very stable covalent bonds
c) ATP is a small molecule that is easily phosphorylated
d) ATP has a high activation energy
a
phagocytes kill internalised microbes by producing _______
peroxidase
the trochlea is the medial part of the elbow joint. it articulates with:
a) trochlear notch of radius
b) trochlear notch of ulna
c) coronoid fossa
d) ulnar fossa
b
most membrane protein channels are:
a) GCPRs
b) ion channels
c) tyrosine kinase channels
d) aquous channels
b
where do we find pseudostratified columnar epithelium?
respiratory tract
true or false: The ACL prevents posterior dislocated of the tibia and anterior dislocation of the femur
false: this is PCL
what cell makes collagen?
fibroblasts
a competitive inhibitor will:
a) compete with the enzyme by binding to the enzyme
b) compete with the enzyme by binding to the substrate
c) compete with the substrate for binding to the same active site on the enzyme
d) compete with the substrate to bind to a different active site on the enzyme
c
which of these cells control the microenvironment of connective tissue?
a) monocytes
b) fibrocytes
c) adipocytes
d) telocytes
d
laminin consists of _____ disulfide polypeptide chains. this enables laminin to have binding sites for cell surface receptors such as integrin, type IV collagen and other adhesion proteins.
3
the subscapularis is on what surface of the scapula?
anterior
true or false: type I skeletal muscle fibres are rich in vascularisation compared to both type IIA and IIB
true
what nerve is found below the piriformis?
sciatic
true or false: both glucagon and adrenalin activate the same pathway to stimulate the synthesis of glycogen and inhibit release of glycogen
false: this is what insulin does.
glucagon and adrenalin will stimulate glycogen degradation and inhibit glycogen synthesis
the articular capsule is not well supported and this leads to what type of dislocation?
a) lateral
b) medial
c) superior
d) inferior
d
what immune cell is this?
- can kill stressed cells in teh absence of antibodies and major histocompatibility complex, contains granular lymphocytes, can perform antibody-depenent cell mediated cytotoxicity
NK cells
facilitated diffusion requires:
a) a channel to enter the cell
b) a carrier molecule
c) no ATP
d) all of the above
d
Who named the aetiological agents on an infectious disease
- Microbe must be present in every case of the disease
- Microbe must be isolated from the diseased host and grown in a pure culture
- Disease must be reproduced when a pure culture is introduced to a non-diseased susceptible host
- Microbe must be recoverable from an experimentally infected host
Robert Koch late 19th century
which of these is NOT an action of the latissimus dorsi?
a) scapula depression
b) medial rotation
c) adduction
d) extension
a
the flexor digitorum superficialis originates from the:
a) ulnar collateral ligament
b) radial collateral ligament
c) radial tuberosity
d) medial epicondyle
a
what is the main role of golgi apparatus?
a) synthesis of proteins and peroxisomes
b) formation of transport vescicles
c) process and pack lipid molecules and proteins for cell exportation
d) site of lipid synthesis
c
DNA replication is:
a) fully conservative
b) semi conservative
c) partially conservative
d) not conservative
b
NSAIDS work by:
inhibiting cyclooxygenase and blocking the production of prostaglandins.
the greater tubercle of the tibia is ______ orientated and articules with the ______ head
laterally, fibular
which of these is NOT a feature of cardiac muscle?
a) striated
b) single cells
c) central nucleus
d) branched
a) we don’t call it striated but it kinda is
during transamination, which acts as a amino group acceptor?
a) aspartate
b) oxaloacetate
c) glutamate
d) alpha-ketoglutarate
d
which cholesterol is the good kind? HDL or LDL
HDL
phosphorylation of glycogen is activated:
a) during stavartion, glucagon binds to GLUT-2 on liver cells
b) after a large meal, insulin binds to GLUT-2 on liver cells
c) during stavartion, glucagon binds to GLUT-9 on liver cells
d) after a large meal, insulin binds to GLUT-9 on liver cells
a
what are the two main muscles involved in pronation of the forearm?
pronator teres and pronator quadratus
codominance is:
both alleles expressed equally
which of these types of muscles is the strongest?
a) parallel
b) multipennate
c) bipennate
d) unipennate
b
which of these is false regarding RNA pol II:
a) has 3’–>5’ exonuclease activity
b) doesn’t need a primer
c) has helicase activity
d) can correct errors
a) its the transcription elongation factors that enable 3’–>5’ exonuclease activity
A coller’s fracture or dinner fork fracture typically occurs when the hand is ______ and the wrist is ________
outstretched, extended
true or false: glucose is at a higher concentration in the lumen than in the blood stream. it moves to the blood via facilitated diffusion
true
what are the bones that take part in the knee joint?
tibia and femur
what are the two epithelial layers of sweat glands?
stratified cuboidal
flat myoepithelial (contract to propel secretion up to the skin)
where does independent assortment occur during meiosis?
a) prophase I
b) metaphase II
c) metaphase I
d) prophase II
c
what nerve innervates the rhomboid muscles?
a) lateral nerve of brachial plexus
b) medial nerve of brachial plexus
c) dorsal scapula nerve
d) cranial nerve XI
c
thyroid, urethral, and salivary glands are what type of gland?
a) acinar
b) eccrine
c) simple tubular
d) unicellular
a) arranged as expanded spheres which pour secretons into a canal lumen connected to ductal system
the sodium-calcium exchanger allows three sodium ions into the cell and transports one calcium one. this is an example of:
a) uniport
b) symport
c) antiport
d) both B and C
c
what type of epithelium is skin?
keratinized stratified squamous
list three areas of axial skeleton
bones of head, neck, trunk
what is the ploidy in G1 of mitosis?
2n
how do we ensure T regulatory cells dont attack everything?
regulated by IL-2 negative feedback loop
the main muscle that enables extension of the hip is:
a) iliopsoas
b) gluteus maximus
c) gluteus medius
d) piriformis
b
what does cAMP activate?
protein kinase A
the articular surface of a synovial joint is covered by:
a) cartilage
b) synovial fluid
c) synovial membrane
d) fibrous capsule
a
where does the bicep attach to the humerus?
intertubercular groove/biciptal groove
any drug ending in ‘sartan’:
blocks angiotensin II by working on adrenal cortex and blood vessels
which is the most basic amino acid?
a) glycine
b) cysteine
c) lysine
d) aspartic acid
a
the piriformis originates in the:
a) anterior inferior iliac spine
b) obturator foramen
c) lesser sciatic notch
d) greater sciatic notch
d
brachioradialis and extensor carpi radialis are found:
a) posterolateral surface of forearm
b) posteromedial surface of forearm
c) anterolateral surface of forearm
d) anteromedial surface of forearm
a
true or false: chromatids are more compact than chromosomes
false
what fibre supports splenic sinusoids?
a) reticulin
b) elastin
c) collagen
a
ACE inhibitors will:
a) block conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
b) decrease blood pressure
c) reduce sodium and water retention
d) all of the above
d
the fibiotibial joint is an example of:
a) gomphosis synarthroses joint
b) primary synchondroses cartilaginous joint
c) secondary symphyses cartilaginous joint
d) syndesmosis synarthroses joint
d
how many conformational changes occur in ATP synthase?
two - one for the binding of ADP + Pi –> ATP
one for the release of ATP
the posterior compartment of the tibia is involved in ________. it is innervated by the ________ nerve and they all insert into the _____ tendon
plantarflexion, tibial, calcaneal
central tolerance of B and T cells occurs:
a) before they develop into fully ummocompetent cells
b) regulated by activation of T regulatory cells
c) regulated by dendritic cells
d) all of the above
a
both flexor carpi radialis and ulnaris are involved in flexion of the wrist. which one is involved in adduction and which is involved in abduction?
adduction - ulnaris
abduction - radialis
the medial end of the clavical is the ______ end and the lateral end is the ______ end
sternal, acromial
what is the tendon called that forms the carpal tunnel in the wrist?
flexor retinaculum
