BSC + CCS: WK3-4 Flashcards
true or false: dendritic cells express class I and class II MHCs
true
the epidermis of skin contains melanocytes and keranocytes. what type of epithelium is present?
a) simple squamous
b) stratified squamous
c) simple cuboidal
d) stratified cuboidal
b
karotyping is used to determine:
a) genetic abnormalities
b) chromosomal chromosomal abnormalities
c) chromosomal count only
d) all of the above
b
true or false: DNA pol delta has exonucleas 3’–>5’ activity to correct mistakes
true
a non-competitive inhibitor will:
a) bind to the substrate
b) bind to sites that are not the enzymes active site to change its conformation
c) bind to a different site on the enzyme but still enabling it to bind to the substrate
d) bind to sites on the enzyme to in-activate it
b
adhering junctions of cells is important when mechanical stress occurs in the skin and gut. they anchor the cytoskeleton actin filament network and penetrate the plasma membrane of adjacent cells. they are distinguished by what?
epithelial cadherins (E-Cadherins)
a drug that has the same efficacy but different potencies, will be ___ on a graph?
a) smaller slope
b) greater slope
c) shifted left
d) shifted right
c
which of these is NOT membrane bound?
a) endoplastic reticulum
b) peroxisomes
c) golgi apparatus
d) lysosomes
e) ribosomes
e
for every one molecule of glucose, how many molecules of acetyl-CoA enter the Krebs cycle?
2
true or false: skeletal muscle can occur as a single cell
false: always a fibre
true or false: hilton’s law states that any nerve supply a joint also supplies the muscles moving the joint, but not the skin overlying the insertion of these muscles
false: supplies all of it
true or false: potency is the amount of drug needed to produce a given response
true
which of these is not involved in cell movement?
a) microtubules
b) microfilaments (actin)
c) intermediate filametns
c
SSRIs work by:
a) blocking serotonin receptors
b) blocking serotonin reuptake transporter
c) competitive binding to serotonin receptors
d) binding to serotonin itself to prevent re-uptake
b
partial deletion of chromosome 5 causes:
a) angelman syndrome
b) turner syndrome
c) edward syndrome
d) cri-du-chat syndrome
d
the gluteus medius and minimus both insert into the greater trochanter. which part do they insert on?
medius - lateral surface
minimus - anterior surface
ATP synthase works by the binding change mechanism. which of these statements is false?
a) three catalytic sites on the enzyme containing ADP and phosphate
b) rotation is driven by protons crossing the matrix back to the intermembrane space
c) a second conformational change is required to release ATP
d) a conformational change of ATP synthase enables binding of tight ATP
b
what are the most common lipids in our diet?
triglycerides
golfer’s elbow is the overuse of ______
flexors
which is the site of protein synthesis?
a) rough ER
b) smooth ER
c) golgi apparatus
d) ribosomes
a
the strongest ligament of the hip is:
a) iliofemoral
b) pubofemoral
c) ischofemoral
a) prevents hyperextension
true or false: serratus anterior originates from the occiptal bone and spinous processes of C7-12. the fibres attach to the clavicle, acromion, and scapula spine.
false: this is the trapezius
any drug ending in ‘pril’ is an:
ACE inhibitor
what synthesises proteins?
ribosomes
if a condition skips every second generation but equally affects males and females it is likely:
a) autosomal dominant
b) automsomal recessive
c) X-linked
d) can’t tell
b
the arrector pili muscle is:
a) a smooth muscle
b) contracts and causes goose bumps
c) found in the reticular dermis
d) all of the above
d
the cortex bone is arranged in a disordered/ordered pattern in concentric forms with a central canal called the ______ canal. Osteons contain a mineral matrix and living osteocytes connected by _______ which transports blood. they are aligned with the parallel axis
haversian, canaliculi
how much ATP is produced for 1 glucose molecule in the krebs cycle?
2 (1 each round)
which flexor muscle (anterior compartment) attaches to the thumb?
a) flexor digitorum profundus
b) flexor pollicis longus
c) flexor digitorum superficialis
d) flexor carpi radialis
b
which muscle is responsible for flexion of the wrist?
a) palmaris longus
b) pronator teres
c) pronator quadratus
d) anconeus
a
translation occurs:
a) in the nuclear pores
b) on the mitochondrial memrbane
c) in the nucleus
d) on ribosomes in the cytsol
d
true or false: a small Km value indicates that the rate of breakdown is slow. this means the bonding is tight and the enzyme has a low affinity for the substrate. The product is forming quicker than the rate of breakdown
false: the enzyme has a high affinity
During starvation, glucagon acts on a _____ receptor to stimulate protein kinase A. This increases _____ and phosphorylates ________ _______, which inactivates it. Glucagon will also activate phosphorylase kinase which phisphorylates _______ _________ and this promotes the breakdown of ________.
GPCR, cAMP, glycogen synthase, glycogen phoshorylase, glycogen
during glycolysis, 1 molecule of glucose is converted into ___ molecules of pyruvate + __ ATP. This is a 10 step process
2, 2
receptor tyrosine kinase works by what two factors?
dimerization of a ligand and autophosphoyrlation (kinase adds phosphate)
select which statement(s) are true: without oxygen, pyruvate
a) gains a hydrogen from NADH and forms lactate
b) pyruvate forms acetylaldehyde by losing a CO2 and gains a hydrogen from NADH to form ethanol
c) pyruvate forms acetylaldehyde by losing a CO2 and loses from NADH to form ethanol
d) is oxidised by NAD going to NADH and forms lactate
a and b are true
the radial tuberosity is the site of insertion for the:
a) triceps tendon
b) biceps brachii tendon
c) common flexors
d) common extensors
b
in flammation, _______ bind monocytes and neutrophils to the endothelium resulting in flattening. This enables them to migrate out of the interstitial space into the blood stream. chemotaxis is the emigration of _________ toward the site of injury
integrins, leukocytes
match the corresponding label and meaning. periosteum, cortex, medullary cavity, bone marrow
a) contains compact and cancellous bone
b) most outer part which contains fibrous tissue
c) fills medullary cavity
d) opening containing cancellous bone
periosteum - a
cortex - b
medullary cavity - d
bone marrow - c
philadelphia chromosome translocation increases tumour specific marker for chronic myueloid leukemia. what does it involve?
a) reciprocal translocation between chromosome 13 and 21
b) robertsonian translocation between chromosome 13 and 21
c) reciprocal translocation between chromosome 9 and 22
d) robertsonian translocation between chromosome 9 and 22
c
what is the difference between pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics?
pharmacokinetics: what the body does to the drug
pharmacodynamics: what the drug does to the body
which arteries supply roughly the outer one-third of the compact bone of the diaphysis?
a) metaphyseal arteries
b) nutrient arteries
c) periosteal arteries
d) eiphyseal arteries
c
when keranocytes start to develop keratohyaline granules, they begin to die off. what colour does the nuclei change to?
a) pink to white
b) pink to dark purple
c) purple to dark pink
d) no nuclei change
a
name an enzyme that is not a protein
ribozymes (tRNA etc)
true or false: mitosis will result in the generation of four identical daughter cells
false: 2
what happens if a polyA tail does not occur on the mRNA?
it will be degraded and cannot be exported from nucleus to cytoplasm
which is true of transcription?
a) driven by RNA polymerase II
b) produces an RNA transcript from a DNA template
c) occurs in the nucleus of a cell
d) all of the above
d
goblet cells in the GI tract and mucous glands in the airway are an example of:
a) simple tubular glands
b) unicellular glands
c) eccrine glands
d) acinar glands
b
hair roots are found in the:
a) reticular dermis
b) hypodermis
c) stratum basale
d) stratum spinosum
a
a medial meniscus tear is due to damage to what ligament?
a) fibular collateral ligament
b) tibial collateral ligament
c) anterior cruciate ligament
d) posterior cruciate ligament
b
two chromatid pairs form:
a) sister chromatids
b) a chromosome
c) two pairs of sister genes
d) a single gene
a) a chromatid is one copy of a newly copied chromosome which is still joined to the original chromosome by a single centromere
during transamination, glutamate’s amino group is transferred to _______ in a second transamination reaction, yielding ________
a) aspartate, oxaloacetate
b) oxaloacetate, aspartate
c) ketoglutarate, aspartate
d) ketoglutarate, oxaloacetate
b
the iliopsoas attaches to the:
a) greater trochanter
b) lesser trochanter
c) interotrochanteric line
d) adductor tubercle
b
fibres that are fast to contract, less sustained, easily fatigued and less vascular are:
pale type II fibres e.g. mobility focused
Thelpercells has class __ MHC and when activated they secrete cytokines that contirbute to activation of _ cell and __ cells
II, B, Tc (cytotoxic T cells)
which of these reactions would have a high Km?
a) glucokinase acting on glucose in a fasting state
b) glucokinase acting on glucose in a full state
c) hexokinase acting on glucose in a fasting state
d) hexokinase acting on glucose in a full state
a
what are the three main trisomy conditions
trisomy 13 –> patau syndrome
trisomy 18 –> edward syndrome
trisomy 21 –> downs syndrome
a pleiotropic effect is when:
same cytokine has different effects on different cells
motor neurons innervate the:
a) sarcolemma
b) epimysium
c) perimysium
d) endomysium
a
Neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs) comprise of a web of _______ and _____ proteases that trap and kill extracellular microbes, independent of phagocytic uptake. Increase in _______ _______ ______ and nitrous oxide lead to the release of NETs. NETs are like suicide bombers.
chromatin, serine, reactive oxygen species
which of the following regarding telocytes is false:
a) pluripotent mesenchymal cell
b) plays a role in immune response
c) maintains homeostasis by miRNA
d) all are true
b
the papillary dermis is:
a) border of reticular dermis and hypodermis
b) where the epidermis begins to slough off
c) where the connective tissue and epidermis interlock
d) where the hypodermis meets the basal membrane
c) maintains integrity and attachment - connective tissue is rising up
true or false: both mesothelium and endothelium are stratified squamous epithelial cells
false: simple squamous
what two muscles are involved in abduction of the scapula at 0-15deg?
infraspinatus and teres minor
where are lysosomes formed?
a) rough ER
b) smooth ER
c) golgi apparatus
d) mitochondria
c
where are peroxisomes formed?
a) rough ER
b) smooth ER
c) golgi apparatus
d) mitochondria
b
true or false: cholesterol is both a steroid and triglyceride
false: just steroid
the trapezius muscle is innervated by the:
cranial nerve XI accessory nerve
the medial muscles of the thigh are supplied by the ______ nerve. there are 5 of them:
obturator,
pectineus, gracilis, adductor longus, adductor brevis, adductor magnus
match the names and definitions: Z band, I band, A band, M band
a) linkage of myosin bundles
b) fibrils of actin
c) myosin bundles that overlap actin
d) actin anchor
Z band (a) - actin anchor
I band (b) - fibrils of actin
A band (c) - myosin bundles that overlap actin
M band (a) - linkage of myosin bundles
which of these is NOT a cartilaginous joint?
a) synchondroses
b) symphyses
c) syndesmosis
d) all are
c
what are the two main jobs of the periosteum?
provide blood
osteogenic
the joints in the hand are:
a) plane joint
b) saddle joint
c) pivot joint
d) hinge joint
b
After a meal, insulin will bind to a protein kinase receptor and activate glycogen synthase via _______ which removes a phosphate and stores glucose as glycogen. Insulin will also phosphorylase _____ ____ which prevents the ________ of glycogen.
protein phosphatase, glycogen phosphorylase, breakdown
monocytes are called _______ when they exit the blood and enter tisse
macrophages
the main function of NK cells is:
a) phagocytosis
b) toxicity
c) inflammation
d) antigenic presenting
b
the apical domain of cells is exposed to a lumen or external environment. the acronym SPAT EGGS describes the function of this domain. what does it stand for?
Secretion –> glands
Protection –> skin
Absorption –> microvilli
Transport –> material
Excretion –> kidney tubules
Gas exhcnage –> alveoli lungs
Gliding –> mesothelium
Sensation –> stereokillin
true or false: all genetic traits are heritable
false: most genes have a polygenetic aetiology (genetic + environmental factors)
where would pain be felt if there is a break in the scaphoid bone of the hand?
anatomical snuff box
the peroneus longus and brevis are involved in plantarflexion of the foot. which one descends posterior to the lateral melleolus and goes under the foot to attach to the medial side?
peroneus longus
what is the muscle that elevates the scapula?
levator scapulae
the intercellular junctions between myocardiocytes is called:
intercalated discs
match the names and meanings: law of segregation, law of independent assortment, law of dominance
a) genes for different traits can segregate independently during the formation of gametes
b) during gamete formation, alleles of each gene segregate from each other so that each gamete only carries one allele for each gene
c) an organism with at least one dominant allele will display the affect of the dominant allele
b- law of segregation
a- law of independent assortment
c- law of dominance
histone modification involves unwinding of histones to reveal different parts of the chromatin. acetylation of histones generally switches on/off a gene and methylation of cytosines generally switches on/off a gene
on, off
what converts mRNA to a polypeptide chain?
translation RNA (tRNA)
the bursa is a small fibrous yet fluid sack that intervenes between:
bone and muscle
ACE inhibitors work by:
blocking conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
true or false: peripheral membrane proteins are located on either side of a membrane but are not imbedded. Integral membrane proteins are embedded
true
the humeroulnar joint is a ball and socket/hinge joint and the humeroradial is a ball and sock/hinge joint
hinge, ball and socket
what is the secondary location of ossification?
a) diaphysis
b) metaphysis
c) epiphysis
d) epiphyseal plate
c
describe the following:
a) uniport
b) symport
c) antiport
uniport - one molecule goes through the transporter
symport - molecule goes through the transporter in addition to an ion being co-transported
antiport - one molecule enters and an ion exits
thumb muscles and brachioradialis attach to ____ on the radius:
a) styloid process
b) scaphoid process
c) ulnar notch
d) dorsal tubercle
a
a positive free energy value indicates:
a) stored energy to access in bonds and exergonic
b) stored energy to access in bonds and endergonic
c) no energy to access in bonds and exergonic
d) no energy to access in bonds and endergonic
b
true or false: amino acids can enter the krebs cycle either as pyruvate, citrate and acetyl-CoA
false: only as pyruvate and acetyl-CoA
before entering the kreb’s cycle, triglycerides are broken down to:
fatty acyl-CoA
the intervertbral disc is an example of a:
a) gomphosis synarthroses joint
b) primary synchondroses cartilaginous joint
c) secondary symphyses cartilaginous joint
d) syndesmosis synarthroses joint
c
match each name and defintion regarding electron transport gradient. complex I, II, III, IV
a) four protons are pumped into the intermembrane space and NADH is oxidised
b) FADH2 is reduced to FAD and coenzyme Q transports the electrons to the next complex
c) two protons are pumped into the intermembrane space and H2O is formed in the mitochondrial matrix
d) four protons are pumped into the intermembrane space and teh carrier C transports electrons to the next complex
a, b, d, c
which is the site of lipid synthesis?
a) rough ER
b) smooth ER
c) golgi apparatus
d) ribosomes
b
acetylcholine receptors are an example of:
a) tyrosine kinase receptor
b) GPCR
c) ligand-gated ion channel
d) voltage-gated ion channel
c
if a drug is a competitive antagonist, what will the dose respones curve look like?
a) shifted to the right with a small gradient
b) shifted to the left
c) shifted to the right
d) no response
d - although its binding, there is no activation of the enzyme
true or false: although cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle both contain cylindrical shapes, skeletal muscle has long parallel cynlinders and cardiac muscle has short branched cylinders
true
where are the blood vessels found in the periosteum?
harversian cannals
the pectoralis minor attaches at the coracoid proccess and:
a) ribs 1-3
b) ribs 3-5
c) ribs 2-5
d) ribs 3-8
b
true or false: splicing enables different protein actions to be produced from the same gene
true
a 13yo boy comes in to emergency complaining of knee pain after a football match. upon examination, you notice an anterior shift in his tibia when his knee is in flexion. what is the likely cause of this?
a) tear of the anterior cruciate ligament
b) tear of the posterior cruciate ligament
c) tear of the medial collateral ligament
d) tear of the lateral collateral ligament
a
the steps of extravasation and margination in inflammation are:
- spreading
- rolling
- arrest + activation
- emigration
- flowing
5, 2, 3, 1, 4
true or false: fibrocytes are multipotent and retain mitotic activity
true
list the following names and definitions of these disaccarhides. sucrose lactose maltose
a) glucose + galactose
b) glucose + fructose
c) glucose + glucose
a) glucose + galactose = lactose
b) glucose + fructose = sucrose
c) glucose + glucose = maltose
true or false: laminin is the major non-collagenous component of the basal lamina
true
in the presence of oxygen, pyruvate can be transformed into acetyl-CoA to enter the krebs cycle. This is performed by certain steps called the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex. List them in order.
a) an acetyl group is transferred to coenzyme A, resulting in acetyl-CoA
b) a carboxyl group is removed from pyruvate, releasing carbon dioxide
c) NAD+ is reduced to NADH
b, c, a
true or false: the olecranon serves as a lever for extensor muscles of the ulna
true
when the scapula moves forward its called _______ and when the scapula mvoes back its called _________
protraction, retraction
where is the best place to inject in the gluteus maximus? why?
upper right quandrant to avoid sciatic nerve
the four muscles of the rotator cuff are:
supraspinatus
infraspinatus
teres minor
subscapularis
brachialis arises from the distal anterior humerus and inserts into the coranoid process and _____ ______
ulnar tubersoity
a negative free energy value indicates:
a) stored energy to access in bonds and exergonic
b) stored energy to access in bonds and endergonic
c) no energy to access in bonds and exergonic
d) no energy to access in bonds and endergonic
c
true or false: affinity is the ability of a drug to form a drug-receptor complex
true
why does a fracture in the scaphoid bone of the hand leave it vulernable to avascular necrosis?
has a retrograde blood supply
when removing axillary nodes during surgery, what muscle can you damage?
a) teres minor
b) pectoralis major
c) teres major
d) pectoralis minor
d
true or false: the subscapularis sites between pec minor and pec major
false: deep to both
a 13yo boy comes in to emergency complaining of knee pain after a football match. upon examination, you notice a posterior shift in his tibia when his knee is in flexion. what is the likely cause of this?
a) tear of the anterior cruciate ligament
b) tear of the posterior cruciate ligament
c) tear of the medial collateral ligament
d) tear of the lateral collateral ligament
b
The turnover number (Kcat) looks at the activity of the enzyme at Vmax. what is the formula?
Kcat = Vmax/[E}t
basically how fast it breaks down shit
true or false: movement of Na+ back into the cell brings glucose with it, acting as an antiporter
false: acts as a symporter
a robertsonian translocation is when two segments from non-homologous chromosomes are exchanged
false: its when the long arms of non-homologous chromosomes fuse
what are the individual contracticle units of myofibrils in skeletal muscle called?
sarcomere
true or false: the bursa is found inside the joint cavity
false , just outside it
what site helps form peroxisomes and makes enzymes within lysosomes?
a) rough ER
b) smooth ER
c) golgi apparatus
d) ribosomes
a
the activation energy is:
a) the energy needed to inititate a chemical reaction
b) a factor that alters depending on the concentration
c) the energy needed to reverse a chemical reaction
d) a factor that increases rate of reaction
a
the joints in the foot are:
a) plane joint
b) saddle joint
c) pivot joint
d) hinge joint
a
degradation of amino acids occurs in the kidneys and liver and involves what process?
a) methylation
b) phosphorylation
c) deamination
d) trans acetylation
c
rough ER releses proteins in a transport vesicle which fuse with the cis/trans face of the golgi apparatus. They are modified in the golgi apparatus and leave the cis/trans face within a secretoy vesicle.
cis, trans
list the steps of translation in the correct order:
- small ribosomal complex carrying methionine will start at the 5’ cap until it finds AUG. The P site will bind to it and recruit large ribosomal complex to form initiation complex
- the newly formed peptide will move to the P site
- next amino acid will joint at the A site and the two amino acids at the A and P site will form a new peptide bond
- the empty tRNA leaves via the E site, which exposes a new codon to the A site
1, 3, 2, 4
automsomal dominant traits usually result in:
a) gain of function
b) loss of function
c) cannot tell
a
true or false: both the serratus anterior and trapezoid are involved in abduction of the scapula from 90-180deg
true
which mRNA does not undergo 5’ capping?
mitochondrial mRNA
what are the three components of nucleotide bases?
nitrogenous base, phosphate group, sugar (5 carbon pentose)
true or false: melanocytes deliver melanin to epithelial cells of the basal layer. they also have characteristics of nerve cells.
true
three main ligaments of the hip joint are:
iliofemoral
ischofemoral
pubofemoral
acetylcholine stimulates what receptors?
a) cholinergic receptors
b) alpha receptors
c) histamine receptors
d) opioid receptors
a
what is the muscle layer called that is formed of wispy connective tissue covering each individual myocyte. it also contains nerves and capillaries that overlay the sarcolemma (fibre’s cell membrane)
a) epimysium
b) perimysium
c) sarcoplasm
d) endomysium
d
true or false: efficacy or intrinsic activity is any natural substance which can combine with, and activate a receptor
false: it is the response when a drug-receptor complex is formed
are simple or complex carbohydrates partially digested?
complex - good stuff for you
true or false: converting of triglycerides to fatty acyl-CoA requires ATP
true
true or false: the ulnar nerve and ulnar artery enter the carpal tunnel
false: median nerve only
what are the four main functions of the plasma membrane?
- physical barrier
- selective permeability
- electrochemical gradient
- communication
generally, DNA methylation will activate/inhibit gene expression
inhibit
in transcription, the coding strand is read 5’–>3’ and the template strand is read 3’–>5’
coding strand ATCGA
template strand TAGCT
what will the mRNA read?
a) AUCGA
b) TAGCT
c) AUCGA
d) UCGAU
a
the most effective antigen presenting cell is:
a) dendritic cell
b) NK cell
c) macrophage
d) naive B cell
a
the scapula extends from the ___ rib to the __ rib
2nd 7th
the rectus femoris attaches at the:
a) anterior superior iliac spine
b) anterior inferior iliac spine
c) posterior superior iliac spine
d) posterior inferior iliac spine
b
what are the two main components of the ECM?
- glycosaminoglycans (GAGs)
- glycoproteins (GPs)
true or false:
- Only introns are removed during splicing.
- All introns are removed always
a) 1 is true
b) 2 is true
c) both statements are false
d) both statements are true
c) both statements false
free energy is is:
a) ability to store energy and do work
b) the amount of energy available for useful work
c) measure of degree or disorder in a substance
d) about of internal energy contained in a compound
a
the pectoralis major covers:
a) ribs 1-3
b) ribs 1-6
c) ribs 3-6
d) ribs 1-7
b
the gluteus maximus is innervated by the _____ gluteal nerve whilst the gluteus medius and minimus are innervated by the _______ gluteal nerve
inferior, superior
the anterior muscles of the thigh are hip _____ and innervated by the ______ nerve
flexors, femoral
cytotoxic T cells have class __ MHC receeptor and recognise and kill altered self cells
I
what is the difference between EC50 and ED50?
EC50 - dose that gives you 100% response
ED50 - dose that gives you 50% response
true or false: all the posterior muscles of the tibia originate from the femur
false: only plantaris and gastrocenmius do, soleus is from tibia
true or false: entropy (S) is the difference in bond energy broken - bond energy formed
false: this is enthalpy (H)
a competitive antagonist:
a) will bind to the agonist
b) will block the receptor’s basal activity
c) will bind to a receptor but not activate it
d) competes with the agonist but not bind to the receptor
c
what forms monomers of itself to form a network known as the basal lamina?
laminin
which of these is a synergist muscle?
a) stabilises the origin of the agonist to act efficiently
b) performs the desired movement
c) produces opposite movement to the desired movement
d) prevents movement at an undesired joint to help the agonist
d
true or false: the radius does not take part in the wrist joint
false: the ulna does not take part in the wrist joint
the head of a bone is usually superior, except for which bone is it inferior?
ulna
what kind of hormones are involved in GCPR signalling?
water soluble hormones
the hair follicle begin in the:
a) epidermis
b) reticular dermis
c) hypodermis
b
fatty acids are converted to acetyl groups via ____ oxidation
beta
true or false: elastin looks like cylindrical threads or flat ribbons
true
which muscle of the forearm can be considered an extension of the triceps?
a) anconeus
b) flexor carpi ulnaris
c) extensor carpi ulnaris
d) brachioradialis
a
a coller’s fracture is the result of:
a) ulnar styloid fracture displaces the wrist joint
b) downward displacement of the distal radius due to a fall
c) fracture in both the styloid processes of the radius and ulnar
d) downward displacement of the distal ulna to a fall
b
true or false: the medial pectoral nerve from the brachial plexus innervates both the pec minor and major, but the lateral pectoral nerve only innervates pec minor
false: lateral innervates pec major and medial innervates minor + major
which of these reactions would have a low Km?
a) glucokinase acting on glucose in a fasting state
b) glucokinase acting on glucose in a full state
c) hexokinase acting on glucose in a fasting state
d) hexokinase acting on glucose in a full state
c
two acetylcholine are required to bind to the nicotinic receptor to activate it. this cases depolarisation of the ion channels which enables ___ and ___ to enter the cell and ___ to move out of the cell
Na+ and Ca+, K+
which of these is involved in organelle movement?
a) microtubules
b) microfilaments (actin)
c) intermediate filaments
a
what controls selective permeability in a cell?
electrochemical gradient
the three zones of the lamina are:
lamina rara
lamina densa
lamina rectiularis
lectin binding to the pathogen surface to initiate opsonisation is part of what system?
innate immune system - complement system
why do X-linked hereditary conditions affect males more than females?
females (XX): one X gene from mum and one from dad –> if you need two copies then they will only be a carrier
males (XY): get X gene from the mother so 50/50 chance if the mother is a carrier
why is ATP such a good source of readily available energy?
a) the phosphate bonds repel each other and are unstable covalent bonds
b) the phosphate bonds repel each other and are thus very stable covalent bonds
c) ATP is a small molecule that is easily phosphorylated
d) ATP has a high activation energy
a
phagocytes kill internalised microbes by producing _______
peroxidase
the trochlea is the medial part of the elbow joint. it articulates with:
a) trochlear notch of radius
b) trochlear notch of ulna
c) coronoid fossa
d) ulnar fossa
b
most membrane protein channels are:
a) GCPRs
b) ion channels
c) tyrosine kinase channels
d) aquous channels
b
where do we find pseudostratified columnar epithelium?
respiratory tract
true or false: The ACL prevents posterior dislocated of the tibia and anterior dislocation of the femur
false: this is PCL
what cell makes collagen?
fibroblasts
a competitive inhibitor will:
a) compete with the enzyme by binding to the enzyme
b) compete with the enzyme by binding to the substrate
c) compete with the substrate for binding to the same active site on the enzyme
d) compete with the substrate to bind to a different active site on the enzyme
c
which of these cells control the microenvironment of connective tissue?
a) monocytes
b) fibrocytes
c) adipocytes
d) telocytes
d
laminin consists of _____ disulfide polypeptide chains. this enables laminin to have binding sites for cell surface receptors such as integrin, type IV collagen and other adhesion proteins.
3
the subscapularis is on what surface of the scapula?
anterior
true or false: type I skeletal muscle fibres are rich in vascularisation compared to both type IIA and IIB
true
what nerve is found below the piriformis?
sciatic
true or false: both glucagon and adrenalin activate the same pathway to stimulate the synthesis of glycogen and inhibit release of glycogen
false: this is what insulin does.
glucagon and adrenalin will stimulate glycogen degradation and inhibit glycogen synthesis
the articular capsule is not well supported and this leads to what type of dislocation?
a) lateral
b) medial
c) superior
d) inferior
d
what immune cell is this?
- can kill stressed cells in teh absence of antibodies and major histocompatibility complex, contains granular lymphocytes, can perform antibody-depenent cell mediated cytotoxicity
NK cells
facilitated diffusion requires:
a) a channel to enter the cell
b) a carrier molecule
c) no ATP
d) all of the above
d
Who named the aetiological agents on an infectious disease
- Microbe must be present in every case of the disease
- Microbe must be isolated from the diseased host and grown in a pure culture
- Disease must be reproduced when a pure culture is introduced to a non-diseased susceptible host
- Microbe must be recoverable from an experimentally infected host
Robert Koch late 19th century
which of these is NOT an action of the latissimus dorsi?
a) scapula depression
b) medial rotation
c) adduction
d) extension
a
the flexor digitorum superficialis originates from the:
a) ulnar collateral ligament
b) radial collateral ligament
c) radial tuberosity
d) medial epicondyle
a
what is the main role of golgi apparatus?
a) synthesis of proteins and peroxisomes
b) formation of transport vescicles
c) process and pack lipid molecules and proteins for cell exportation
d) site of lipid synthesis
c
DNA replication is:
a) fully conservative
b) semi conservative
c) partially conservative
d) not conservative
b
NSAIDS work by:
inhibiting cyclooxygenase and blocking the production of prostaglandins.
the greater tubercle of the tibia is ______ orientated and articules with the ______ head
laterally, fibular
which of these is NOT a feature of cardiac muscle?
a) striated
b) single cells
c) central nucleus
d) branched
a) we don’t call it striated but it kinda is
during transamination, which acts as a amino group acceptor?
a) aspartate
b) oxaloacetate
c) glutamate
d) alpha-ketoglutarate
d
which cholesterol is the good kind? HDL or LDL
HDL
phosphorylation of glycogen is activated:
a) during stavartion, glucagon binds to GLUT-2 on liver cells
b) after a large meal, insulin binds to GLUT-2 on liver cells
c) during stavartion, glucagon binds to GLUT-9 on liver cells
d) after a large meal, insulin binds to GLUT-9 on liver cells
a
what are the two main muscles involved in pronation of the forearm?
pronator teres and pronator quadratus
codominance is:
both alleles expressed equally
which of these types of muscles is the strongest?
a) parallel
b) multipennate
c) bipennate
d) unipennate
b
which of these is false regarding RNA pol II:
a) has 3’–>5’ exonuclease activity
b) doesn’t need a primer
c) has helicase activity
d) can correct errors
a) its the transcription elongation factors that enable 3’–>5’ exonuclease activity
A coller’s fracture or dinner fork fracture typically occurs when the hand is ______ and the wrist is ________
outstretched, extended
true or false: glucose is at a higher concentration in the lumen than in the blood stream. it moves to the blood via facilitated diffusion
true
what are the bones that take part in the knee joint?
tibia and femur
what are the two epithelial layers of sweat glands?
stratified cuboidal
flat myoepithelial (contract to propel secretion up to the skin)
where does independent assortment occur during meiosis?
a) prophase I
b) metaphase II
c) metaphase I
d) prophase II
c
what nerve innervates the rhomboid muscles?
a) lateral nerve of brachial plexus
b) medial nerve of brachial plexus
c) dorsal scapula nerve
d) cranial nerve XI
c
thyroid, urethral, and salivary glands are what type of gland?
a) acinar
b) eccrine
c) simple tubular
d) unicellular
a) arranged as expanded spheres which pour secretons into a canal lumen connected to ductal system
the sodium-calcium exchanger allows three sodium ions into the cell and transports one calcium one. this is an example of:
a) uniport
b) symport
c) antiport
d) both B and C
c
what type of epithelium is skin?
keratinized stratified squamous
list three areas of axial skeleton
bones of head, neck, trunk
what is the ploidy in G1 of mitosis?
2n
how do we ensure T regulatory cells dont attack everything?
regulated by IL-2 negative feedback loop
the main muscle that enables extension of the hip is:
a) iliopsoas
b) gluteus maximus
c) gluteus medius
d) piriformis
b
what does cAMP activate?
protein kinase A
the articular surface of a synovial joint is covered by:
a) cartilage
b) synovial fluid
c) synovial membrane
d) fibrous capsule
a
where does the bicep attach to the humerus?
intertubercular groove/biciptal groove
any drug ending in ‘sartan’:
blocks angiotensin II by working on adrenal cortex and blood vessels
which is the most basic amino acid?
a) glycine
b) cysteine
c) lysine
d) aspartic acid
a
the piriformis originates in the:
a) anterior inferior iliac spine
b) obturator foramen
c) lesser sciatic notch
d) greater sciatic notch
d
brachioradialis and extensor carpi radialis are found:
a) posterolateral surface of forearm
b) posteromedial surface of forearm
c) anterolateral surface of forearm
d) anteromedial surface of forearm
a
true or false: chromatids are more compact than chromosomes
false
what fibre supports splenic sinusoids?
a) reticulin
b) elastin
c) collagen
a
ACE inhibitors will:
a) block conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
b) decrease blood pressure
c) reduce sodium and water retention
d) all of the above
d
the fibiotibial joint is an example of:
a) gomphosis synarthroses joint
b) primary synchondroses cartilaginous joint
c) secondary symphyses cartilaginous joint
d) syndesmosis synarthroses joint
d
how many conformational changes occur in ATP synthase?
two - one for the binding of ADP + Pi –> ATP
one for the release of ATP
the posterior compartment of the tibia is involved in ________. it is innervated by the ________ nerve and they all insert into the _____ tendon
plantarflexion, tibial, calcaneal
central tolerance of B and T cells occurs:
a) before they develop into fully ummocompetent cells
b) regulated by activation of T regulatory cells
c) regulated by dendritic cells
d) all of the above
a
both flexor carpi radialis and ulnaris are involved in flexion of the wrist. which one is involved in adduction and which is involved in abduction?
adduction - ulnaris
abduction - radialis
the medial end of the clavical is the ______ end and the lateral end is the ______ end
sternal, acromial
what is the tendon called that forms the carpal tunnel in the wrist?
flexor retinaculum
the shoulder joint is formed by the _____ ____ and the humerus
glenoid cavity
laminin has four arms. three are good for binding to other molecules and the long arm enables binding to ____
cells.
true or false: a high Km indicates that the rate of breakdown is large. This means the products form slower than the rate of breakdown and the enzyme has a low affinity for the substrate
true
true or false: lipids rafts are found on the exoplasmic side only of the plasma membrane
true
if drug A and drug B reach the same Y value on their curves, they have:
a) same efficacy
b) same potentcy
c) A and B are true
d) none of the above is true
a
coenzyme-A (CoA-SH) is required for the conversion of pryuvate to acetyl-CoA. During normal metabolic state, CoA-SH will be:
a) upregulated by insulin
b) upregulated by glucagon
c) upregulated by insulin
d) downregulated by glucagon
c - wants to use it up
true or false: in children, periosteal arteries are seprated from the metaphyseal arteries but in adults, they freely anastomose with metaphyseal and nutrient arteries
false: this is true of epiphyseal arteries
the joint between C1 and C2 vertebrae is a:
a) plane joint
b) saddle joint
c) pivot joint
d) hinge joint
c
the cellular components of adaptive immunity are:
T and B cells
list the 7 tarsals of the foot
calcaneus (heel)
talus (ankle)
cuboid
navicular
3x cuneiforms
what is the role of the synovial membrane?
release synovial fluid for lubrication between joints
what is the rato of fatty acid to glycerole in triglycerides?
3:1
what muscle is found in the intermediate layer of the anterior forearm?
a) extensor dgiti minimi
b) flexor digitorum profundus
c) flexor digitorum superficialis
d) extensor digitorum
c
true or false: peripheral membrane proteins do not have a hydrophobic region of amino acids
true
true or false: X-linked recessive conditions cannot be passed from father to son
true: only father to daughter
true or false: 1 artery (epiphyseal) supplies the epiphysis and thus it is vulnerable to avascular necrosis
true
levator scapulae originates from the transverse processes of ___ to ____ vertebrae and attaches to the ____ border of the scapula
C1-C4, medial
true or false: chemokines are a type of cytokine
true
why are lipid rafts more rigid and packed compared to the rest of the plasma membrane?
a) due to the composition (cholesterol) and saturated fatty acids
b) due to dense protein structures
c) highly compact phospholipids
d) all of the above
a
which fibre accounts for 90% of fibres in our body?
collagen type I
if a small, uncharged substance that is hydrophobic wants to enter a cell, what type of diffusion will it undergo?
simple/passive
what hormone is responsible for the release of fat during starvation?
a) protein kinase A
b) glucagon
c) insulin
d) hormone sensitive lipase
d
a 13yo boy comes in to emergency complaining of knee pain after a football match. upon examination, you notice his medial rotation is very laxed. what is the likely cause of this?
a) tear of the anterior cruciate ligament
b) tear of the posterior cruciate ligament
c) tear of the medial collateral ligament
d) tear of the lateral collateral ligament
c
what are the two main sites we find elastin?
loose connective tissue (skin)
blood vessels
true or false: in aerobic respiration, the final electron acceptor is glucose
false: it’s oxygen
which of these is membrane bound?
a) microvilli
b) vesicles
c) cilia/flagella
d) proteosomes
e) nucleolus
b
what nerve passes through the carpal tunnel?
a) ulnar nerve
b) radial nerve
c) median nerve
d) msculocutaenous nerve
c
kinetochores are:
a) the protein responsible for chromosomal segregation
b) a type of intermediate filament
c) linkage between two sister chromatids
d) none of the above
a
the two major ways we can determine between self and non-self in immunity is:
DAMPs/PAMPs and deletion of self-reactive T and B cells
which of these is true regarding the Km?
a) describes the substrate concentration which is equal to 1/2Vmax
b) rate of product breaking down/rate of product formation
c) its the resistance to a reaction running its course
d) all of the above
d
in cancellous bone, there are no haversian systems. where does the blood supply come from?
directly from bone marrow
the head of the ulnar articulates with the _____ _____ on the radius
ulna notch
which is true of the tertiary protein structure?
a) hydrogen bonding of the peptide backbone causes the amino acids to fold into a repeating pattern
b) the amino acids are in a chain sequence
c) side chains interact causing 3D folding
d) the protein consists of more than one amino acid chain
c
the gluteus maximus attaches at the:
a) anterior superior iliac spine
b) anterior inferior iliac spine
c) posterior superior iliac spine
d) posterior inferior iliac spine
d
the basal lamina (lamina rara + lamina densa) cotntains ______, fibrnectin, type IV collagen and more. the rectiular lamina contains type __ collagen, also known as reticular fibres
laminin, III
where do we find transitional epithelium?
urinary bladder
four nerves of the arm are:
- musculocutaneous nerve (terminal branch of the lateral cord of brachial plexus)
- median nerve
- ulna nerve
- radial nerve
what type of nerve carries proprioception to muscles?
a) non-myelinated sensory fibres
b) myelinated sensory fibres
c) large myelinated alpha motor fibres
d) small myelinated gamma motor fibres
b
true or false: carbohydrates create more energy than lipids
false
An inhibitor will:
a) bind to a substrate with or without altering enzyme activity
b) bind to the enzyme to increase enzyme activity
c) bind to a substrate to decrease enzyme binding
d) bind to an enzyme to decrease enzyme activity
d
the common flexor tendons of the forearm originate from the:
a) capitulum
b) lateral epicondyle
c) medial epicondyle
d) coronoid fossa
c
cardiac muscles are innervated by the
autonomic nervous system
the acromioclavicular joint is held together by which two ligaments?
trapezoid and conoid
translocation is:
transfer of genetic material between non-homologous chromosomes
which innate immune cell contains granular lymphocytes?
a) neutrophils
b) NK cells
c) dendritic cells
d) macrophages
b
true or false: during starvation, muscles can’t break down their glycogen storage because they don’t have glycogen receptors and lack glucose-6-phosphatase
true
true or false: in skin, a basal cell carcinoma will show the epidermal layer but a squamous cell carcinoma won’t.
false: a basal cell won’t show the layers because the issues is in the original layer.
true or false: sartorius and gracilis are the only muscles in the thigh that cross both the hip and knee joint. they attach at the medial surface of the tibia
true
the three components of the hip bone are:
ischium, pubis, ilium
what are the two microtubule motor protein groups that transport membrane bound vesicles, proteins and organelles along the microtubules?
kinesins and dyneins
tennis elbow is the overuse of extensors in the forearm. where do the extensors originate from?
lateral epicondyle
the joint between the epiphysis and diaphysis is an example of a:
a) gomphosis synarthroses joint
b) primary synchondroses cartilaginous joint
c) secondary symphyses cartilaginous joint
d) syndesmosis synarthroses joint
b
true or false: Small ribosomal subunit carrying UAC and methiodone will start at the 5’ and search for AUG. It will bind here at the E site and teh large ribosomal subunit will join to form the initiation complex
false: it will bind to the P site
in skin, the oldest cells are found in what layer:
a) stratum corneum
b) stratum lucidum
c) stratum granulosum
d) stratum spinosum
e) stratum basale
a
in blood vessels, mast cells contain what two agents?
heparin (anti-coagulant)
histamine
how many carbon units are removed each cycle of beta-oxidation?
two
the main muscle that enables abduction and medial rotation of the hip is:
a) iliopsoas
b) gluteus maximus
c) gluteus medius
d) piriformis
c
which of these is found in high intracellular concentrations in a cell?
a) potassium
b) sodium
c) calcium
d) chloride
a
PKA works on both glycogen synthase and glycogen phosphorylase. Which is stimulated by insulin and which is stimulated by glucagon?
insulin = glycogen synthase = storing glucose
glucagon = glycogen phosphorylase = breakdown of glycogen storage
what are the two parts of the dermis of skin?
reticular dermis
hypodermis/subcutis
true or false: during mitosis, the chromatid number changes, but the chromosome number remains the same
true
the main muscle that enables flexion of the hip is:
a) iliopsoas
b) gluteus maximus
c) gluteus medius
d) piriformis
a
A partial agonist is a drug which has affinity for a receptor, but even at full occupnacy it has less efficacy than a full agonist. what would the curve look like if drug A was an agonist and drug B was a partial agonist
a) drug B would have a smaller gradient than A and plateau at a smaller value
b) drug B would produce a straight line
c) the curves would look the same, but drug B would be significantly shifted to the right
d) both drugs would end up at the same response endpoint, drug B would just take longer
a
the deltoid is innervated by the:
a) medial nerve of brachial plexus
b) axillary nerve
c) brachial nerve
d) lateral nerve of brachial plexus
b
true or false: glycoproteins are structural proteins with one or more disacccharide attached
false: heterosaccharide
true or false: saturated fatty acids produce the “good” kind of cholesterol
false: it is polyunsaturated
Insulin receptor causes the glucose storage via glycogen synthase. what kind of receptor is this?
a) tyrosine kinase
b) GPCR
c) ligand-gated ion channel
d) voltage-gated ion channel
a
Mu, Delta, and Kappa are opioid receptors. which of the following would stimulate them?
a) acetylcholine
b) enkephalins
c) GABA
d) histamine
b + endorphins
‘some lovers try positions that they can’t handle’ stands for:
scaphoid
lunate
triquetrum
pisiform
trapezium
trapezoid
capitate
hammate
where is the nucleolus found? is it membrane bound?
inside the nucleus, non membrane
by the beginning of prophase II, you will have __ daughter cells in which recombination has occured. The genetic material is identical/different to the parents
2, different
true or false: in the mitochondria, the outer membrane is impermeable, especially to ions. the inner membrane is smooth and highly permeable to small molecules and ions
false: other way around
collagen, fibronectin, laminin and chondronectin are all examples of:
glycoproteins
what layer creates fascicles in the muscle?
a) endomysium
b) epimysium
c) perimysium
d) sarcolemma
c - middle layer
what nerve innervates the anterior compartment of the humerus?
a) musculocutaneous nerve
b) medial nerve
c) brachial nerve
d) ulnar nerve
a
true or false: fibrocytes contain more protein than fibroblasts
false
what are the nerve, vein, and artery that run through the anatomical snuff box of the hand?
nerve: radial nerve
artery: radial artery
vein: cephalic vein arises
once DNA primase creates the RNA primer in replication, what follows?
a) RNA pol II begins chain elongation
b) DNA pol alpha extends about 20bp to the 3’ of the RNA primer
c) Okazaki fragments extends about 150bp to the 3’ of the RNA primer
d) DNA pol delta begins chains elongation
b
radioulnar joints are:
a) fibrocartilagnous joints
b) synovial ellipsoid joints
c) synovial pivot joints
d) none of the above
c
free fatty acids are oxidised via beta-oxidation. This requires 1x ATP. what is the end product?
a) pyruvate + acetyl-CoA
b) 2x acetyl-CoA
c) fatty acyl-CoA + acetyl-CoA
d) fatty acyl-CoA + pyruvate
c
the flexor digitorum superficialise will flex the proximal/distal intermediate phalanges and the flexor digitorum profundus will flex the proximal/distal intermediate phalanges
proximal (as more superficial), distal (as deeper)
what muscles enabling shrugging of the shoulders and pulls the scapula medially and downward?
a) trapezius
b) deltoids
c) subscapularis
d) infraspinatus
a
what is the vascular membrane lining the medullary cavity called?
endosteum
true or false: the phosphodiester bonds between the sugar and phosphate group are hydrogen bonds, and teh bonds between the nitrogenous base and sugar are strong covalent bonds
false: backward
phosphodiester bond = strong covalent bond
nitrogenous base = hydrogen bond
what enables lipid rafts to invaginate the cell?
caveolae (plural)
caveolin (singular)
true or false: both infraspinatus and supraspinatus attach to the greater tubercle of the humerus
true
which fibre is extremely tough and is composed of fibe fibrils of three peptide chains, forming a triple helix
a) collagen
b) reticulin
c) elastin
a
for receptor tyrosine kinase, the alpha subunit is found ________ and the beta subunit is found __________
alpha = extracellularlly (ligand binding domain)
beta = intracellularly
which part of the bone is most vascularised and also vulnerable to infection?
a) diaphysis
b) metaphysis
c) epiphysis
d) epiphyseal plate
b
regarding GPCRs: the hydrophilic ligand acts as a ______ ________. The splitting of the alpha, beta, and gamma subunits upon acivation, can act on enzymes within the cell to form a _______ _________.
first messenger, second messenger.
list 5 characteristics of innate immunity
- inbuilt
- native/natural immunity
- no memory
- not enhanced by 2nd exposure to pathogen
- triggers and amplifies adaptive immune response
which cell junction mediates adherence of epithelial cells to the basal lamina?
hemidesmosomes
which of these is a fixator muscle?
a) stabilises the origin of the agonist to act efficiently
b) performs the desired movement
c) produces opposite movement to the desired movement
d) prevents movement at an undesired joint to help the agonist
a
fibronetin is a glycoprotein and important part of the ECM. what are the two types of fibronectin.
plasma fibronetin produced by hepatocytes
cellular fibronectin produced by fibroblasts
what are the two muscles involved in supination of the forearm?
supinator and biceps brachii
four cardinal signs of inflammation are:
redness
heat
swelling
pain
what stimulates adrenergic receptors?
a) acetylcholine
b) endorphins
c) histamines
d) adrenaline
d
what is the transporter than enables fatty acyl CoA to enter the mitochondria?
a) small ribosomal subunit
b) carnitine
c) tyrosine phosphate
d) does not require a transporter at this point
b
what is the ligament caled that encircles the head of the radius and entails the radial notch of the ulnar?
annular ligament
the sternal end of the clavicle has an impression of the _______ ligament and the acromial end has a _____ tubercle
costoclavicular, conoid
where does primary ossification of bones occur?
a) diaphysis
b) metaphysis
c) epihysis
d) epiphysial plate
b
fibres that are slow to contract, more sustained, fatigue resistant and more vascular are:
red type I fibres e.g. posture
which is true of the quaternary protein structure?
a) hydrogen bonding of the peptide backbone causes the amino acids to fold into a repeating pattern
b) the amino acids are in a chain sequence
c) the protein consists of more than one amino acid chain
d) side chains interact causing 3D folding
c
list the steps of the krebs cycle in order:
- citrate is oxidised by NAD twice to release 2xCO2
- The energy released from the 4 carbon molecule coverts GDP–>GTP
- acetyl-CoA + oxaloacetate = citrate
- FAD and NAD are oxidised
- the 4 carbon molecule is further oxidised and oxaloacetate is recycled
3, 1, 2, 4, 5
the medial and lateral condyles form the ______ _____ which articules with the femoral condyles of the knee
tibial plateau
the ulna forms a triangular fibrocartilage complex with the ____
wrist
ammonia is a toxic byproduct of protein degradation. what is it turned into and where does this occur?
urea, mitochondria of hepatocytes
enthalpy is:
a) the difference in electronegativity of two bonded atoms
b) the amount of energy available for useful work
c) measure of degree or disorder in a substance
d) about of internal energy contained in a compound
d
kinesins and dyneins transport membrane bound vesicles, proteins and organelles along the microtubules. Which direction does each one go?
kinesins, walk toward + side toward the cortex
dyneins, walk toward - side moving to the cell interior
true or false: an antagonist of a drug must have affinity and efficacy
false: this is an agonist
true or false: aneuploidy is the presence of an extra complete set of chromosomes
false: this is euploidy. aneploidy is an abnormal number of chromosomes in a cell
an inverse agonist:
a) will bind to the agonist
b) will block the receptor’s basal activity
c) will combine with a receptor but not activate it
d) competes with the agonist but not bind to the receptor
b
the fibrous capsule of a joint is lined with:
synovial membrane
which of these is invoved in anchorage of nucleus and organelles?
a) microtubules
b) microfilaments (actin)
c) intermediate filaments
c
the anterior compartment of the tibia is innervated by the _____ ______ nerve and involved in ________ of the foot
deep peroneal, dorsiflexion
what type of epithelium would you find a region that absorbs stuff as well as secretes mucus and enzymes?
a) simple cuboidal
b) simple columnar
c) simple squamous
d) stratified squamous
b
what type of epithelium do we typically find in glands that also need protection?
a) stratified cuboidal
b) stratified squamous
c) stratified columnar
d) psuedostratified columnar
a
a synchondroses joint is united by __________ and a symphyses joint is united by ___________
hyaline cartialge, fibrocartilage
the medial and lateral circumflex arteries supply the hip joint. damage to the medial circumflex artery can result in avascular necrosis. where do these arteries arise from?
deep femoral artery
true or false: inhibiting ion channels are a type of ligand-gated ion channels
false
the first chondrosternal joint is an example of a:
a) gomphosis synarthroses joint
b) primary synchondroses cartilaginous joint
c) secondary symphyses cartilaginous joint
d) syndesmosis synarthroses joint
b
okazaki fragments are:
a) found on the parent strand and help ligate newly formed RNA
b) found on the parent strand and contains a short sequences of nucleotides which are synthesised discontinously
c) found on the lagging strand and are sites of initiation
d) found on the lagging strand and contains a short sequences of nucleotides which are synthesised discontinously
d
true or false: glycoproteins contain serial repeat units whilst proteoglycans lack a serial repeating unit
false: other way around
the anchoring junction is the only junction that is directly involved in attachment to the cytoskeleton via linking of intermediate filament network. it is characterised by ______, a transmembrane glycoprotein that contain a _____ composed of desmoplakins
desmogieins, plaque
partial duplication of chromosome 12 causes Pallister-Killian syndrome. which of the following is false:
a) high pitched cat-like cry
b) hypotonia
c) intellectual disability
d) coarse facial features with prominent forehead and thin upper lip
a
what are the three common biological electron carriers?
NAD, FADH and FMN
which of these is false regarding the hypodermis?
a) attaches epidermis to dermis
b) loose connective tissue and fine collagen
c) contains adipocytes
d) lots of blood vessels and nerves
a
true or false: acetyl-CoA from fatty acids will increase pyruvate dehydrogenase to increase amount of glucose entering the electron transport chain as acetyl-CoA
false: acetyl-CoA from fatty acids block pryuvate dehydrogenase because need to conserve glucose
which of these is not a main function of lipid rafts?
a) cell signalling
b) lipid homeostasis
c) adaptation to membrane tension
d) all are a main function
d
thryoid hormones binds to an extracellular/intracellular receptor because it is hydrophobic/hydrophillic
intracellular, hydrophobic
the obturator internus, obturator nerve, and pudendal vessels and nerves travel through the:
a) obturator foramen
b) lower inlet
c) lesser sciatic notch
d) greater sciatic notch
c
teres major originates from the medial/inferior border of the scapula and goes to the ______ groove on the humerus
inferior, bicipital
the rough deltoid tuberosity is _______ and about halfway down the humerus
anterolateral
X chromosome monosomy is usually lethal. people have a short stature, phenotypically female and webbing of the neck. what is the condition called?
turner syndrome
steady state reactions are best defined as:
a) the rate of formation and breakdown = rate of intermediate
b) remains constant
c) not used to find Vmax
d) all of the above
d
the lateral muscles of the tibia are innervated by the ______ _____ nerve and are involved in _______ and plantarflexion of the foot
superficial peroneal, eversion
the inguinal ligament attaches to:
a) pubic tubercle
b) ischopubic ramus
c) iliac crest
d) anterior inferior iliac spine
a
the raphe of a muscle is:
a) where muscle fibres begin to change direction
b) the belly of the muscle
c) where aponeurosis begins
d) where two muscles meet with one common insertion
d
movement of what ion back into the cell enables glucose via symport?
a) Ca+
b) Na+
c) K+
d) any of the above
b
neutrophils normally role slowly along the endothelium which is mediated by ______ and _____ proteins, expressed by endothelial cells. Adhesion of the neutrophils to the endothelium is mediated by ______ which are expressed by both neutrophils and endothelial cells.
selectins I-CAM, integrins
what do these prefixes mean?
a. chondro
b. hepato
c. myo
d. osteo
e. pneumo
a. chondro -cartilage
b. hepato - liver
c. myo- muscle
d. osteo - bone
e. pneumo - lung
which muscle extends the 2nd-4th fingers?
a) extenson carpi ulnaris
b) extenson carpi radialis longus
c) extensor digiti minimi
d) extensor digitorum
d
what two things attach to the anterior superior iliac spine?
- inguinal ligament
- sartorius muscle
true or false: in the foot, the navicular bone is more lateral than the cuboid bone
false
match the collagen types with their names: I, II, III, IV
a) found in basement membrane
b) found in cartilage
c) found in blood vessels
d) found in bone
IV - found in basement membrane
II - found in cartilage
III - found in blood vessels
I - found in bone
DNA primase is a type of RNA polymerase involved in replication. what is its role?
creates the RNA primer to initiate replication
which of these is false regarding the reticular dermis?
a) contains accessory glands and hair
b) blood vessels and component cells
c) dense collagen fibres to attach dermis and epidermis
d) presence of adipocytes
d
the radius articulates with the _____ on the humerus and the _____ ____ of the ulna
capitulum, radial notch
what are the three things required for mature mRNA?
- capping of the 5’
- polyadenylation tail on 3’
- removal of introns via splicing
at what phase are the proteins holding centrosomes of sister chromatids together degraded?
anaphase
what are the two essential fatty acids?
omega-6, omega-3
which hip ligament does NOT insert into the intertrochanteric line?
a) iliofemoral
b) pubofemoral
c) ischiofemoral
c) connects head of femur and acetabulum
X chromosome polysomy in males is called Klinfelter’s syndrome. Which is the following is false:
a) phenotypically male with gynecomastia
b) intellectual disabilities increase with more X’s
c) severe mental disabilties usually present
d) none of the above are false
c
match the names and definitions: coracoacromial ligament, coracohumeral ligament, glenohumeral ligament, transverse humeral ligament
a) lateral border of coracoid process to anterior of greater tubercle on humerus
b) betwen coracoid process and acromion
c) extends between greater and less tubercles of humerus, above epiphyseal line
d) composed of three ligaments on teh anterior side of the glenohumeral joint
coracoacromial ligament (B): betwen coracoid process and acromion
coracohumeral ligament (A): lateral border of coracoid process to anterior of greater tubercle on humerus
glenohumeral ligament (D): composed of three ligaments on teh anterior side of the glenohumeral joint
transverse humeral ligament (C): extends between greater and less tubercles of humerus, above epiphyseal line
miRNA bind to which aspect of the gene resulting in translation inhibition or mRNA degradation?
a) 5’ capped region
b) 3’ polyA tail
c) 3’ untranslated region
d) 5’ untranslated region
c
list the steps of the sodium-potassium pump in order. starting from the binding of Na+ to the pump to cause phosphorylation by ATP
a) K+ binding triggers release of the phosphate rgoup
b) phosporylation causes the protein channel to change its confirmation
c) K+ is released and Na+ sites are receptive again
d) the conformational change causes Na+ to exit the cell and K+ to bind the protein channel
b, d, a, c
coenzyme-A (CoA-SH) is required for the conversion of pryuvate to acetyl-CoA. During starvation, CoA-SH will be:
a) upregulated by insulin
b) upregulated by glucagon
c) upregulated by insulin
d) downregulated by glucagon
d
starving so nothing to breakdown and use
the main muscle that enables lateral rotation of the hip is:
a) iliopsoas
b) gluteus maximus
c) gluteus medius
d) piriformis
d
true or false: tendons can withstand the stresses generated by muscle contraction, which makes them a good attachment point. fibrous and strong
true
if a condition is present in every generation with equal distribution between male and female it is likely:
a) autosomal dominant
b) autosomal recessive
c) X-linked dominant
d) can’t tell
a
what sits in between the gemelli superior and inferior?
obturator internus
the iliofemoral ligament prevents __________, the pubofemoral ligament prevents _________ and the ischofemoral ligament prevents __________
hyperextension, hyperabduction, hyperextension
the tensor fascia lata orginates from the _____ and inserts into the lateral condyle of the ______. it is innervated by the _____ gluteal nerve
ASIS, tibia, superior
the fibrocartilage rim that is lined with synovial fluid and is continuous with the long head of the biceps is called the
glenoid labrum
which muscle extends the 5th finger?
a) extenson carpi ulnaris
b) extenson carpi radialis longus
c) extensor digiti minimi
d) extensor digitorum
c
a competitive agonist will shift the dose-response curve:
a) increase gradient
b) to the left
c) to the right
d) have no effect
c
in the complement system, C3a is typically involved in:
a) recruitment of inflammatory cells
b) opsonisation of pathogens
c) kiling of pathogens
d) all of the above
a
true or false: X chromosome polysomy in females is typically lethal
false: but more than 4 copies is fucked
true or false: genomics is the study of multiple genes and interactions between different genes
true
which of these is not involved in cell division?
a) microtubules
b) microfilaments (actin filaments)
c) intermediate filaments
c - formation of nuclear lamina
the manubriosternal joint is an example of a:
a) gomphosis synarthroses joint
b) primary synchondroses cartilaginous joint
c) secondary symphyses cartilaginous joint
d) syndesmosis synarthroses joint
c
in skin, where are the basal membranes with stem cells + daughter cells found?
a) top layer of epidermis
b) papillary ridges on the epidermal side
c) in the reticular dermis
d) in the hypodermis
b
true or false: the high positive charge in the matrix space attracts the protons back from the intermembrane space. This drives ATP synthase
false: its a high negative charge in the matrix space, and a high positive charge in the intermembrane space
true or false: subscapularis is involved with medial rotation of the arm
true
cilia are extensions of the plasma membrane. what are the two main roles?
movement via microtubule rods.
sense extracellular changes and relay back to the cell
which layer has prickle cells (spiney appearance due to shrinking of microfilaments during staining):
a) stratum basale
b) stratum spinosum
c) stratum lucidum
d) stratum granulosum
b
gap junctions are how cells communicate metabolically and electrically. The gap junction channels are formed by _______
connexins
true or false: transamination converts essential amino acids to non-essential amino acids
true
glycosaminoglycans are linear polymers of repeating dissarchide units and are covalently linked to a protein to form:
a) glyocprotein
b) proteoglycan
c) name doesn’t change
d) none of the above
b
what type of epithelium are you likely to find around secretory ducts?
a) pseudostratified columnar
b) simple squamous
c) simple cuboidal
d) stratified cuboidal
c
the ______ ______ indicates point of junction between the ilium and pubis
iliopubic eminence
which two flexor muscles control flexion of the fingers (minus the thumb)?
flexor digitorum superficialis (superficial) flflexor digitorum profundus (deep)
true or false: lysosomes contain oxidative enzymes that breakdown free oxidating agents and produce hydrogen peroxide
false: peroxisomes
the capitulum of the elbow articules with the:
a) olecranon fossa
b) trochlea
c) head of the ulna
d) head of the radius
d
where does carbohyrate metabolism occur?
a) rough ER
b) smooth ER
c) golgi apparatus
d) ribosomes
b
the glycaemic index is defined as teh area under a 1hr/2hr blood glucose response curve following the ingestion of a fixed portion of carbohydrates, usually__g
2hr, 50
what type of nerve causes contraction of muscles?
a) non-myelinated sensory fibres
b) myelinated sensory fibres
c) large myelinated alpha motor fibres
d) small myelinated gamma motor fibres
c
all bones have a perisoteum except:
a) sesamoid bones
b) clavicle
c) bones of the sternum
d) bones in the skull
a
the olecranon fossa is a deep triangular depression on the posterior side of the humerus, superior to the trochlea. whats its purpose?
provide space for ulna during extension
when do introns get spliced out?
a) replication
b) transcription
c) translation
d) post-transcription modifications
d
the joint at the elbow is a:
a) plane joint
b) saddle joint
c) pivot joint
d) hinge joint
d
tachycardia is caused by:
a) stimulation of GABAa receptors in the medulla oblongata
b) stimulation of M2 muscarinic GPCRs receptors in the heart
c) stimulation of beta1 adrenergic receptors in teh heart
d) inhibition of GABAa receptors in the medulla oblongata
c
what are the three types of connective tissue?
collagen
elastin
reticulin
pelvic drop is a result of weakening of the:
gluteus medius
resident macrophages (Langerhan’s cells) are found in what layer of the skin?
a) stratum lucidum
b) stratum basale
c) hypodermis
d) reticular dermis
d
the electron transport chain is driven by a ____ _____ across the inner mitochondrial membrane and the ________ ______
proton gradient, intermembrane space
Vmax is:
maximal velocity achieved by an enzyme where the enzyme is fully saturated
the quadriceps femoris attach to the patella via the ______ tendon and the tibial tuberosity
quadriceps
true or false: the teres major and infraspinatus both originate from the capsule of the shoulder joint
false: infraspinatus and teres minor
true or false: someone can have down’s syndrome with a normal chromosomal count
true - translocation down syndrome
Adrenaline and glucagon work on what kind of receptor?
a) tyrosine kinase
b) GPCR
c) ligand-gated ion channel
d) voltage-gated ion channel
b
bradycardia is caused by:
a) stimulation of GABAa receptors in the medulla oblongata
b) stimulation of M2 muscarinic GPCRs receptors in the heart
c) stimulation of beta1 adrenergic receptors in teh heart
d) inhibition of GABAa receptors in the medulla oblongata
b
which cell junction is mainly involved in communication?
gap junctions
true or false: the coronoid fossa is above the trochlea, and receives the coronoid process of the radius during flexion
false: receives coronoid process of the ulna during flexion
lipids contain the same things are carbohydrates except:
a) less O2
b) more O2
c) more C
d) less C
a
cells involved in innate immunity are typically polynuclear/mononuclear
poly
which contains the most energy?
a) carbohydrates
b) proteins
c) lipids
d) minerals
c
the superior and inferior gemelli muscles originate from the _______ and _____ respectively, and then attach to the greater trochanter of the femur.
ischial spine, ischial tuberosity
where are proteins modified and stored?
a) rough ER
b) smooth ER
c) golgi apparatus
d) ribosomes
a
true or false: glucose-6-phosphatase is involved in glycolysis
false
the tooth is an example of a:
a) gomphosis synarthroses joint
b) primary synchondroses cartilaginous joint
c) secondary symphyses cartilaginous joint
d) syndesmosis synarthroses joint
a
G-protein coupled receptors consist of ______ transmmebrane segements. GPCRs are composed of three subunits: _____, _____, and _____. They are identified by their G _____ subunits and are grouped into four families.
seven, alpha, beta, gamma, alpha
true or false: the first part of meiosis is the same as mitosis, with the addition of genetic recombination
true
which type of skeletal muscle fibre is involved in anaerobic metabolism?
a) type I
b) type IIA
c) type IIB
d) both B and C
c - fast white fibres.
true or false: pyruvate dehydrogenase requires glucagon to be active
false: requires insulin i.e. excess blood glucose
what immunoglobulin is on the surface of mast cells?
a) IgG
b) IgE
c) IgM
d) IgA
b
true or false: the humeroradial joint enables pronation and supination of the radius
false: this is the proximal radioulnar joint
what are the three main types of ion channels?
voltage gated
ligand gated
stretch activated
what two veins and artery go through teh adductor magnus hiatus?
femoral vein, femoral artery, saphenous vein
which layer of the cell acts as a molecular filter?
a) all sides of epithelial cell
b) polar side of epithelial cell
c) apical side of epithelial cell
d) basement membrane
d
from most lateral to medial, the three muscles of the hamstring are:
- biceps femoris
- semitendinosus
- semimembranosus
the three muscles in the posterisor comaprtment of the tibia are:
gastrocnemius
soleus
plantaris
match the names and definitions of fatty acids. saturated, monounsaturated, polyunsaturated
a) no double bonds
b) has one double bond
c) contain more than one double bond
saturated - a
monounsaturated - b
polyunsaturated - c
what part of the humerus does the latissimus dorsi attach to?
intertubercular sulcus
what is the action of the rhomboid muscles?
a) retracts and rotates the scapula upward and medially
b) retracts and rotates the scapula downward and laterally
c) protracts and rotates the scapula upward and medially
d) protracts and rotates the scapula downward and laterally
a
the best way to assess injury to nerves exiting C5 is:
a) bicep test
b) wrist extension test
c) deltoid test
d) all of the above
b
Gibbs free energy is:
deltaG = deltaH (enthalpy) - deltaS(entropy)xT(temperature)
in skin, list the following layers of the epidermis from most superficial to deep:
- stratum corneum
- stratum lucidum
- stratum spinosum
- stratum granulosum
- stratum basale
1 2 4 3 5
the sartorius muscle attaches at the:
a) anterior superior iliac spine
b) anterior inferior iliac spine
c) posterior superior iliac spine
d) posterior inferior iliac spine
a
what are the three stages of transcription?
- initiation
- elongation
- termination
why is the ploidy count still 2n after replication?
number of centrosomes (2) and chromosomes remains unchanged
a low GI value is considered:
a) <55
b) 55-70
c) >70
a
true or false: sweat glands secrete into the hair follicle
false
true or false: fibronectin has 4 binding sites for integrins, collagen, heparin, and fibrin
false: 2
the piriformis is the most deepest and superior hip muscle. it originates from the _____ surface of the sacrum, travels through the _____ sciatic notch and inserts into the ______ trochanter of the femur
anterior, greater, greater
what are the three joints that make up the elbow?
humeroulnar - hinge joint
humeroradial - ball and socket
proximal radioulnar
true or false: in cardiac muscle, actin filaments arae anchored to each other and to the cell membrane via dense bodies
false: this is smooth muscle
which of these is NOT a characteristic of smooth muscle?
a) peripheral nuclei
b) spindle shaped
c) presence of gap juncgions
d) swirly appearance in histo slides
central nuclei (A)
if i was to inject the knee cap, what is the order of penetration?
Skin – ligament – fibrous capsule -synovial membrane - synovial fluid
list the order of muscle layers from most superficial to deep:
a) perimysium
b) endomysium
c) epimysium
d) sarcolemma
c, a, b, d
which artery supplies the endosteum (vascular membrane lining of medullary cavity)?
a) nutrient artery
b) metaphyseal arteries
c) epiphyseal arteries
d) periosteal arteries
a
enhancers are:
a) contain the initiation complex for regulatory proteins to bind to
b) regions closer than promoters and are binding sites for activators
c) regions after the coding sequence and enable upregulation of gene expression
d) regions farther away than promoters and are binding site for activators
d
the wrist joint is a:
a) plane joint
b) condyloid joint
c) saddle joint
d) hinge joint
b
automsomal recessive traits usually result in:
a) gain of function
b) loss of function
c) cannot tell
b
what is this? A point at which paired chromosomes remain in contact during the first metaphase of meiosis, and at which corssing over occurs between strands
a) centromere
b) chiasmata
c) centriole
d) none of the above
b
The main cell involved in monitoring self vs. non-self in immunity is:
T regulatory cell
the carpal tunnel carries the flexor tendons of the hand and fingers. There are three sheaths. which of the following are paired and what are the two single sheaths?
a) flexor digitorum superficialis
b) flexor carpi radilias
c) flexor pollicis longus
d) flexor digitorum profundus
flexor digitorum superficialis + flexor digitorum profundus = one sheath
the iliopsoas is composed of the ______ and ______ muscles and joins at the ______ ______ of the femur. it is the strongest flexor of the hip.
iliacus, psoas major, lesser trochanter
match the pairs in order: E (exit), P (peptidyl), A (aminoacyl/arrival)
- bind the incoming tRNA with the complementary codon to the mRNA
- holds the tRNA without its amino acid
- holds the tRNA with the growing peptide chain
P (3)
A (1)
E (2)
connective tissue is derived from what layer?
a) endoderm
b) mesoderm
c) ecotderm
b
what are the three muscles coming off the coracoid process?
- pectoralis minor
- coracobrachilias
- bicpes brachii short head
true or false: rhomboid minor is superior to rhomboid major
false
Iodine is a positive agent with high absorption of X-rays. it is normally used in what imaging modality?
CT
which step of oxidation of glucose releases the most ATP?
a) glycolysis
b) krebs cycle
c) oxidation phosphorylation
d) beta oxidation
c ~ 34 ATP
insulin will stimulate/inhibit glycogen synthase and stimulate/inhibit glycogen phosphorylase.
Glucagon will stimulate/inhibit glycogen synthase and stimulate/inhibit glycogen phosphorylase
stimulate, inhibit
inihibt, stimulate
can small polar molecules pass through the plasma membrane with ease?
yes
where are the sebaceous glands found?
a) hypodermis
b) reticular dermis
c) epidermis
d) stratum corneum
a
each osteon consists of ______ which are layers of compact matrix that surround Haversian canals.
lamellae
which of these processes is glucose-6-phosphatase NOT involved in:
a) gluconeogenesis
b) glycolysis of blood glucose
c) glycgenolysis
d) all of the above
b
in cells, intercellular communication primarily occurs in the:
a) apical domain
b) lateral domain
c) basal domain
d) basolateral domain
d
what are the four superficial flexion muscles of the forearm?
pronator teres
flexor carpi radialis
palmaris longus
flexor carpi ulnaris
true or false: supraspinatus and infraspinatus are both involved with internal rotation of the arm
false: abduction
all amino acids have:
a) amine group NH2 which acts as a proton acceptor
b) COOH group which acts as a proton donor
c) A & B
d) none of the above
c
what are the 5 types of cell junctions?
- tight/occluding
- adhering
- anchoring/desmosomes
- gap
- hemidesmosomes
on an xray, what are the two main features that indicate a young person?
a. lack of calified material
b. confirmation of epiphyseal plate
chromatids are:
a) one molecule of dsDNA joined in the centre by a centromere
b) two molecules of ssDNA joined in the centre by a centromere
c) two molecules of dsDNA joined in the centre by a centromere
d) none of the above
c
true or false: spongy bone is trabeculated and good for resisting compact forces
false: first half true, good for resisting stress
neutrophils respond to epithelial chemokine:
a) IL-2
b) IL-1
c) IL-8
d) INF-gamma
c
true or false: although smooth muscle is non-striated, they still contain actin and myosin
true
calcium channel blocking agents such as amlodipine and verapamil bind to _____ subunit on teh voltage-gated L type calcium channel to block entry into the cell
alpha 1
the most lateral and palpable projection of the femur. it is located anterlolaterally
greater trochanter
which of these is NOT a feature of skeletal muscle?
a) muscle fibre bands
b) long striations
c) intercalated discs
d) peripheral nuclei
c
how does termination occur during translation (stop codons: UAA, UAG, UGA)
a) hen stop codons enter the P site, release factors at the A site recognise them and prevent peptide bond formation
b) when stop codons enter the A site, release factors at the P site recognise them and prevent peptide bond formation
c) hen stop codons enter the A site, release factors at the E site recognise them and prevent peptide bond formation
d) hen stop codons enter the P site, release factors at the E site recognise them and prevent peptide bond formation
b
the serratus anterior is innervated by the long thoracic nerve. damaging to this nerve causes:
winged scapula as it can’t hold the scapula against the rib cage anymore
true or false: although the brachial radialis is in the extensor compartment of the forearm, its key job is flexion in the semi-prone position
true
what nerve passes through pronator teres in the forearm?
a) median nerve
b) radial nerve
c) ulnar nerve
d) interosseous nerve
a
Gadolinium is a positive agent with high absorption of X-rays. it is normally used in what imaging modality?
MRI
respiration has a positive/negative free energy value and is thus spontaneous/non-spontaneous
photosynthesis has a positive/negative free energy value and is thus spontaneous/non-spontaneous
negative, spontaneous
positive, non-spontaneous
in skin, the youngest cells are found in what layer:
a) stratum corneum
b) stratum lucidum
c) stratum granulosum
d) stratum spinosum
e) stratum basale
e
IFN-gamma’s action on endothelial cells is:
a) acts as a chemokine to instigate monocyte migration
b) effects adhesions and increases permeability
c) changes morphology of the cells to enable neutrophils to leave
d) all of the above
b
the three muscles of the anterior compartment of the tibia are:
tibialis anterior
extensor hallicus longus
extensor digitorum longus
what type of bond binds elastin together?
a) phosphate
b) disulfide
c) covalent crosslinking
d) none of the above
b
the dorsal interossei muscles of the hand are involved in ________ and the palmar interossei muscles of the hand are involved in _________
dorsal - adduction
palmar - abduction
purines (adenine and guanine) have how many rings?
double
pyrimidines 1 ring
what is the start codon?
AUG
which of these muscles is NOT involved in the anatomical snuff box of the hand?
a) extensor pollicis longus
b) extensor pollicis brevis
c) extensor carpi radialis
d) abductor pollicis longus
c
what do these common suffixes mean?
a. blast
b. clast
c. cyte
d. oid
e. phage
f. some
a. blast - actively dividing cell
b. clast - break
c. cyte - resting cell
d. oid - form
e. phage - eat
f. some - body
phospholipids are amphipathic. what does this mean?
contain both polar (head) and non-polar ends (tail)
____ cells produce IFN-gamma which stimulates macrophages
NK
the quadricepts femoris is made up for four muscles and form the main bulk of the thigh. the four muscles are:
vastus lateralis
vastus medialis
vastus intermedius
rectus femoris
true or false: the ECM is loose, spongy tissue that serves as packing, penetrating developing organs
false: this is the mesenchyme
what are mendels three laws of inheritance:
law of segregation
law of independent assortment
law of dominance
true or false: amino acids can form glucose?
true. carbon skeleton enters krebs cycle
the three hamstring muscles originate from:
ischial tuberosity
two main proteins in myofibrils of skeletal muscle are:
mysoin and actin
what microscope would I use if I want to view proteins?
electron microscope
the obtuator external and internus travel through the:
a) greater sciatic notch
b) lesser sciatic notch
c) obturator foramen
d) none of the above
c
PAMPs and DAMPs are recognised by pattern recognition receptors expressed on the surface of leukocyes. an example of one is:
toll like receptor (TLR)
which is true of the secondary protein structure?
a) hydrogen bonding of the peptide backbone causes the amino acids to fold into a repeating pattern
b) the amino acids are in a chain sequence
c) side chains interact causing 3D folding
d) the protein consists of more than one amino acid chain
a
the covalent addition of a methyl group at the 5’ end of cytosine in CpG islands is:
DNA methylation
the coronoid process prevents hyperflexion. what bone does it come off?
ulna (pointy part of your bone)
the long head of the tricep arises from the supraglenoid/infraglenoid tubercle, the lateral head arises from the anterior/posterior humerus
infraglenoid, posterior
centrosomes are composed of ______ which are pin-wheel organelles consisting of microtubules
centrioles
which layer of the periosteum is vascular, has elastic fibres, and has osteoblasts
inner osteogenic layer
(outer layer is fibrous)
long head of the biceps brachii originates from the:
a) coracoid process
b) acromion
c) infraglenoid tubercle
d) supraglenoid tubercle
d
chromatids are formed during:
a) G0
b) Interphase
c) G1
d) G2
b
which of these does NOT attach to the greater trochanter of the femur?
a) glut maximus
b) glut medius
c) glut minimus
d) piriformis
a) attaches to gluteal tuberosity of femur
turbidity increases what factor of endothelial cells?
a) mucous production
b) stickiness
c) cell wall
d) polarity
b) turbidity increases stickiness
the main role of macrophages is phagocytosis and:
antigen presenting cells
true or false: motor nerves of the muscle are always mylinated
true
which of these joints is slightly moveable?
a) synchondroses
b) sutures
c) synesmosis
d) gomphosis
a - its a primary cartilaginous joint
opsonisation involves:
a) engulfment via PAMPs recognition and reactive oxygen species
b) engulfment via innate pattern recognition receptors
c) engulfment via PAMPs recognition and phagocytosis
d) engulfment of a complement coated or antibody coated microbe
d
unlike replication, trancription does not require RNA primase activity. Instead:
a) helicase unwinds the RNA, exposing the initation complex for RNA pol II to bind
b) regulatory proteins are recruited to the start site which enable RNA pol II to bind to the initiation complex where the DNA strand unwind
c) helicase unwinds the RNA, exposing the initation complex for RNA pol I to bind
d) regulatory proteins are recruited to promoter regions which enable RNA pol II to bind to the initiation complex where the DNA strand unwind
d
during transamination, amino acid + ________ alpha-keto acid + ___________
alpha-ketoglutarate, glutamate
what is the precursor to cAMP?
adenylyl cyclase
DNA replication is unidirectional/bidirectional with replication initiated one at a time/simultaneously. The leading parental strand is orientated 5’–>3’/3’–>5’ and the lagging chain is orientated 5’–>3’/3’–>5’.
bidirectional/simultaneously/3’–>5’/5’–>3’
true or false: smooth muscle retains regenerative capacity so they can proliferate and regenerate
true
regarding nerves supplying muscles, the anterior root innervates motor/sensory neurons and the posterior root innervates motor/sensory neurons
sensory
motor
GABA is an inhibitory receptor and a type of _____ ______ ion channel. It increases permeability of ___ ions which hyperpolarises the cell and reduces excitability
ligand gated, Chloride (Cl-)
any two matched genes are the same locus are called
alleles
the greater and lesser scitatic notch are separated by:
a) ischial spine
b) pubic spine
c) ischial body
d) ischial tuberosity
a
entropy is:
a) the difference in electronegativity of two bonded atoms
b) the amount of energy available for useful work
c) measure of degree or disorder in a substance
d) about of internal energy contained in a compound
c. measure of energy NOT available for useful work
regarding miRNA, if the RISC complex has partial complementarity, it will result in translational repression/mRNA cleavage. If the RISC complex has perfect complementarity it will result in translational repression/mRNA cleavage
translational repression, mRNA cleavage
true or false: the ulnar notch on the radius forms the distal radioulnar joint
true
which of these is false regarding 5’ capping of mature mRNA?
a) vital for stability of mature mRNA
b) promotes intron excision
c) promotes translation
d) none are false
d
which cells synthesize ECM when activated and have lots of rough ER?
a) fibrocytes
b) telocytes
c) monocytes
d) mast cells
a
true or false: water solbule hormones can cross the plasma membrane
false
the subscaspularis is attached to the costal surface of the scapula and what part of the humerus?
a) biciptal groove
b) less tubercle
c) greater tubercle
d) head
c
which of these is NOT a main function of simple squamous epithelium?
a) protects against abraison
b) secretes lubricating substances
c) allows material to pass through by diffusion
d) allows material to pass through via filtration
a
true or false: during fermentation, the final electron acceptor is an inorganic molecule e.g. glucose
false: its organic e.g. ethanol
In the heart, adrenalin will increase/decrease cAMP which increases the force of contraction. In the inetestinal smooth muscle, adrenalin will increase/decrease cAMP causing relaxation of intestinal muscles
increase, decrease
true or false: the first step of transamination requires aspartate transaminase to occur?
false: this is the second step
what are the three major types of epigenetics?
- DNA methylation
- histone modification
- non-coding RNA
the muscles of the hip are supplied by the inferior and superior gluteal arteries. they arise from:
internal iliac artery
true or false: calcium channel blockers will result in vascular smooth muscle contraction, increase in vascular resistance and an increase in blood pressure
false: it will do the opposite
peripheral tolerance of B and T cells occurs:
a) occurs when the cells are fully immunocompetent
b) regulated by activation of T regulatory cells
c) regulated by dendritic cells
d) all of the above
d
what does Hilton’s law relate to?
nerves supplying muscle and skin are the same - dermatome and myotome
true or false: selectins on neutrophils normally have a low affinity for I-CAM on the endothelial cells. cell activation changes the integrin affinity to high-affinity conformation
false: its integrins not selectins
the codon for methionine is:
AUG (start codon)
where does the pectoralis major attach to on the humerus?
a) bicipital groove
b) greater tubercle
c) lesser tubercle
d) deltoid tuberosity
a
true or false: lamellar bone is only found in foetal bones or fresh fractures
false: this is woven bone.
lamellar bone is compact + cancellous bone –> arranged
what is responsible for chain elongation in replication?
a) RNA pol II
b) DNA pol alpha
c) DNA pol delta
d) RNA pol I
c
what fibre has very fine collagenous fibres and a single peptide chain of collagen?
a) elastin type I
b) reticulin type III
c) collagen type I
b
during glycogenolysis, glucose-6-phosphate can’t leave the liver without the addition of a phosphate group. which enzyme is responsible for this?
a) pyruvate dehydrogenase
b) phosphorylase
c) glucose-6-phosphatase
d) hexokinase
c
what is the major component of the basal lamina of the basement membrane?
a) laminin
b) collagen type IV
c) elastin
d) fibronectin
a
which cruciate ligament blends with the medial meniscus?
ACL
what nerve innervates the posteriorcompartment of the humerus?
a) musculocutaneous nerve
b) medial nerve
c) brachial nerve
d) radial nerve
d
clonal selection theory applies to _ cells and enables diversity, specifity, and memory of the immune system. This occurs in _______ _______ ______ such as the spleen and lymph nodes
B, secondary lymphoid organs
the gluteal muscles are involved in _____ and ______ of the femur/hip whilst the deep muscles are involved in ______ ______ of the femur
abduction, extension, lateral rotation
the two main types of cytokines are:
- interleukins produced by leukocytes
- chemokines
the pubic symphysis is an example of a:
a) gomphosis synarthroses joint
b) primary synchondroses cartilaginous joint
c) secondary symphyses cartilaginous joint
d) syndesmosis synarthroses joint
c
the sartorius is the most superficial and longest leg muscle. It originates from the ____ the hip and inserts on the superomedial surface of the _____
ASIS, tibia
the short arm in a chromosome is the _ arm and the only arm is the _ arm.
P, Q
which of these regarding glycosaminoglycans is false:
a) linear monomer
b) regulates movement of molecules through ECM
c) composed of repeating dissarcharide units
d) mainly hyaluronic acid an sulfates
a - its a linear polymer
Its in inactivate state, a GPCR will have ___ bound to the alpha subunit. Activation causes the gamma and beta subunits to split, reslting in the formation of ____
GDP, GTP
the serratus anterior attaches to the medial border of the scapula and:
a) ribs 1-10
b) ribs 3-5
c) ribs 3-8
d) ribs 1-8
d
what muscle causes abduction of the scapula between 15-90 deg?
a) trapezoid
b) infraspinatus
c) serratus anterior
d) deltoid
d
the largest granulocyte is?
a) basophil
b) eosinophil
c) mast cells
d) NK cells
a
true or false: a chromatid is an identical half of a duplicated chromosome
true
what two products are mast cells rich in?
heparin and histamine
the hamstrings originate from:
a) ischian spine
b) ischial tuberosity
c) obaturator foramen
d) lesser sciatic notch
b
