BSC + CCS: WK7-8 Flashcards

1
Q

true or false: constriction of the bronchial tubules is caused by the sympathetic nervous system

A

false: parasympathetic

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2
Q

what is responsible for the rapid remodelling of membrane lipids to generate biologically active lipid mediators that serve as intracellular and extracellular signals?

A

arachidonic acid metabolites

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3
Q

two most common types of viral gastroenteritis are:

A

rotavirus

norovirus

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4
Q

what is produced by endothelial cells with a half-life of seconds, acts localled to cause vasodilation by relaxation fo smooth muscle and reduces neutrophil extravasation?

A

nitrous oxide

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5
Q

what artery is found next to the portal vein?

a) cystic artery
b) hepatic artery
c) IVC
d) right renal artery

A

b

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6
Q

volume of distribution is:

A

the extent to which the drug leaves the blood and distributes into the tissue. ​

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7
Q

regarding the brachial plexus, the psoterior cord is:

a) behind the axillary artery and contains all three posterior division branches
b) behind the axillary artery and contains the superior and middle division branches
c) in the middle and contains all three posterior division branches
d) in the middle and contains the superior and middle division branches

A

c

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8
Q

saliva is a filtrate derived from _____. intrinsic salivary glands are scattered through the oral cavity and prouce a ___ amount of saliva at a relatively ____ rate e.g. buccal glands. Extrinsic salivary glands are regulated based on the body’s demands and include ______, _______, ______

A

plasma, small, constant, parotid, submandibular, sublingual

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9
Q

first line treatment for H. Pylori is PPI-based triple therapy. What is the role of the proton pump inhibitor?

a) reduces the pH of stomach to make the proteins it produces to destroy the epithelium non-viable
b) bacteriocidal effect on H. Pylori
c) bacteriostatic effect on H. Pylori
d) supress H. pylori by reducing acid production of parietal cells

A

d

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10
Q

which structures are secondary retroperitoneal embryonically? (multiple answers)

a) ascending colon
b) rectum
c) duodenum
d) pancreas

A

a, c, d

b) primary retroperitoneal

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11
Q

killing and degradation via phagocytosis is largely accompished by ____ ____ _____ within the lysosome and degranulation

A

reaction oxygen intermediates

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12
Q

the spleen is related to ribs __ to ___ and its long axis is parallel with rib ___

A

9-11, 10

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13
Q

there are four impressions on the spleen. they are:

A
  1. colic (splenic flexure)
  2. renal
  3. gastric
  4. pancreatic
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14
Q

oesophageal varices is life-threatening. what is the cause?

a) renal hypertension
b) pulmonary hypertension
c) portal hypertension
d) all of the above are possible causes

A

c

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15
Q

which of the following regarding PPIs is false?

a) weak base
b) becomes active via protonation (addition of a proton)
c) binds directly to the H+/K+ pump
d) none of the above

A

d

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16
Q

state which statement is true or false:
1. drugs in a conjugated form will be excreted via faeces and drugs in the deconjugated form will be reabsorbed via enterohepatic circulation

  1. conjugation occurs via phase II metabolism in the liver and deconjugation occurs via gut bacteria in the ileum and large intestines
    a) 1 is true
    b) 2 is true
    c) 1 and 2 are both true
    d) 1 and 2 are both false
A

c

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17
Q

true or false: neurons may lack dendrites but they will always have an axon

A

false: may lack dendrites or have no axon

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18
Q

the pancreas is a retroperitoneal organ. the tail however, is suspending by what ligament?

A

splenorenal (spleen to tail of pancreas)

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19
Q

the ulnar nerve of the brachial plexus comes from the:

a) medial cord
b) posterior cord
c) lateral cord

A

a

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20
Q

Bile salts are amphipathic and tend to aggregate around droplets of lipids to form ______. The hydrophilic side is ______ charged and prevents re-aggregation of fat

A

micelles, negatively

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21
Q

Jim is renally-impaired. what what you use to determine his kidney function before dosing him with drug X?

A

cockcroft-gault equation

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22
Q

bile duct is formed by ______ _______ + _______ _________ narrowing

A

hepatic diverticulum + foregut (duodenal)

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23
Q

what are the 4 P’s of pancreatic cancer?

A

Painless

Palpable gallbladder

Persistent

Progressive jaundice

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24
Q

The pouch of dorsal mesogastrium forming the left lateral boundary of the lesser sac subsequently undergoes voluminous expansion, giving rise to the ________ _______

A

lesser omentum

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25
Q

the glomerulus is contained in:

A

bowman’s capsule

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26
Q

the gastric oxyntic gland has surface epithelial cells which secrete visible ____. Mucous neck cells secrete soluble mucus and this region contains the ______ cells as well as stem cells.

A

mucus, proliferative

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27
Q

true or false: the duodenum is completely retroperitoneal

A

false: first part is suspended by the greater and lesser omentum

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28
Q

The lining of the stomach is _____ ______ epithelium which secretes bicarbonate-buffered mucus to protect the stomach.

A

simple columnar

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29
Q

splenic vessels run along what border of the pancreas?

a) superior
b) inferior
c) visceral
d) diaphragmatic

A

a

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30
Q

which brain region is the major control centre of the endocrine system and autonomic nervous system.

a) medulla oblongata
b) hypothalamus
c) pons
d) corpus callosum

A

b

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31
Q

which of these regarding the falciform ligament is false?

a) boundary between left and right anatomical lobes
b) double layer of peritoneum
c) attaches to anterior abdominal wall at umbilicus
d) all are true

A

d

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32
Q

all are true of bile except:

a) basic and neutralises chyme from the stomach (pH 7.6-8.6)
b) aids in digestion of lipids
c) produced in the gallbladder and pancreas
d) prevents reaggregation of fat

A

c

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33
Q

By the __ week, the abdominal portion of the foregut is visibly divided into the oesophagus, ______, and ______ duodenum.

A

5th, stomach, proximal

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34
Q

the hepatoduodenal ligament contains the portal ____ and the hepatogastric ligament connects the liver to the ____ curvature of the stomach

A

triad, lesser

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35
Q

there are three major salivary glands. what are they? list them from largest to smallest

A

parotid

submandibular

sublingual

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36
Q

the primary gut tube contains 3 parts. which of these is false?

a) caudal hindgut opened to notochord and future rectum
b) midgut opened to the yolk sac via the vitelline duct
c) blind-ended caudal hindgut
d) blind-ended cranial foregut

A

a

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37
Q

true or false: innervation of the phrenic nerve causes right shoulder pain when the gallbladder is inflammed

A

false: phrenic nerve innervates surrounding peritoneum, eventually the inflammation of the liver will place pressure on the peritoneum, sending pain signals to the brain

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38
Q

which part of the primary gut tube is opened to the yolk sac via the vitelline duct?

a) foregut
b) midgut
c) hindgut

A

b

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39
Q

which statement is false regarding the liver?

a) is completely covered by peritoneum
b) has the falciform ligament with ligamentum teres at its free edge
c) has the visceral surface of the upper left lobe overlapping the lesser omentum
d) quadrate lobe lies between the falciform ligament and fossa for the gallbladder

A

a

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40
Q

true or false: the brachial plexus is a network of nerves that come from anterior rami

A

true

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41
Q

true or false: each root of the spinal cord is strictly dorsal or ventral

A

true. the dorsal + ventral roots come together to form the spinal nerve

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42
Q

what is the condition caused by invagination or telescoping of one bowel segment into a contiguous distal segment.

A

intussusception

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43
Q

in the autonomic nervous system, the cell body of the preganglionic neuron resides in the CNS/PNS and it synapses with the second motor neuron called the _________ neuron whose cell body is in an autonomic ganglion in the CNS/PNS. The postganglionic axon extends to the ______ organ.

A

CNS, postganglionic, PNS, effector

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44
Q

four signs of acute inflammation are:

A

redness, heat, swelling, pain

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45
Q

ependymal cells:

a) form myelin in CNS
b) send processes to blood vessels, where they induce capillaries to form tight junctions making the blood brain barrier. Also send processes that envelop synapses and the surfaces of neurons
c) Line the ventricular system of the brain and the central canal of the spinal cord. Produces cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
d) are scavenger cells that resemble tissue macrophages and remove debris resulting from injury, infection and disease

A

c

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46
Q

true or false: most invasive gastroenterotitis causing bacteria are gram-negative?

A

true

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47
Q

what is the bacteria that causes typhoid fever?

A

salmonella typhi

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48
Q

true or false: water soluble vitamins can be readily absorbed across the intestinal epithelium

A

true

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49
Q

when the amount of drug taken by the patient is equal to the amount of drug eliminated, this is called:

a) half-life
b) first order kinetics
c) zero order kinetics
d) steady state

A

d

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50
Q

what are the three first line drugs used to treat H. pylori?

A

PPI (omeprazole)

amoxicillin

clarithromycin

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51
Q

true or false: neutrophils are a granulocyte that is capable of ingesting and killing microbes

A

true

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52
Q

projection fibres are:

a) from grey matter to white matter
b) from cerebral cortex to other parts of the brain
c) from one part of the cerebral cortex to the other part of the cerebral cortex
d) from white matter to grey matter

A

b

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53
Q

is it possible for someone to have normal creatinine levels but abnormal renal function?

A

yes - common in elderly

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54
Q

what is the most common cause of diarrhoea in Australia?

a) salmonella enterica
b) E. Coli
c) staphylococcus aureus
d) cambylobacteri jejuni

A

d

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55
Q

the thoracic lymph duct drains into the left __________ vein

A

jugulosubclavian

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56
Q

A small ventral outgrowth is formed by the bile duct which gives rise to the _____ _____ and ________

A

cystic duct, gallbladder

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57
Q

apart from endothelial cells, which cells are important in maintaining the blood brain barrier?

A

astrocytes

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58
Q

true or false: Between week 8 and 10, intestinal loop starts retracting into the abdominal cavity and rotates through an additional 180 degrees anticlockwise to produce the definitive configure of the small and large intestines. ​

A

false: during week 10-12

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59
Q

true or false: mannose and scavenger receptors expressed by neutrophils and macrophages recognise bacterial cell wall products

A

true

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60
Q

a bee sting on your back will give sensory input via:

a) ventral ramus
b) dorsal ramus
c) either
d) none of the above

A

b

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61
Q

best treatment for entamoeba is:

a) metranidazole
b) penicillin
c) vancomycin
d) PPIs

A

a

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62
Q

cyclooxygenase (COX) exists in two forms - COX1 and COX2. which one is involved in pain and inflammation and which is involved in constitiutive expression?

A

COX1 - constitutive

COX2 - inlfmmation + pain

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63
Q

drug X has been reabsorbed in the gastrointestinal system and travelled back to the liver via the portal vein. it later enters the gastrointestinal tract with bile. what is this process called?

a) first pass metabolism
b) second pass metabolism
c) enterohepatic circulation
d) oral absorption percent

A

c

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64
Q

bile is made in the liver, what is the duct called that lets it exit the liver?

A

common hepatic duct

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65
Q

what are the three features of Calot’s Triangle?

A

cystic duct (laterally), common hepatic duct (medially), and inferior liver (superiorly).

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66
Q

____ cells convert pepsinogen to pepsin which digests _____

A

chief, proteins

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67
Q

true or false: After use of a PPI, the return of acid secretion in the stomach is dependent on the synthesis of new proton pumps. A single dose of a PPI inhibitors acid production by up to 90% for approximately 24hrs.

A

true

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68
Q

regarding the cords of the brachial plexus, the lateral cord is:

a) at the top and contains the anterior divisions of the superior and middle trunk
b) at the top and contains the anterior divisions of all trunks
c) in the middle and contains the posterior divisions of the superior and middle trunk
d) in the middle and contains the posterior divisions of all trunks

A

a

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69
Q

what consists of a small protrusion of bowel through the umbilical ring, which is covered by skin?

a) umbilical hernia
b) omphalocele
c) gastroschisis
d) merkels diverticulum

A

a

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70
Q

true or false: the dorsal mesogastrium forms the dorsal mesoduodenum, the dorsal mesocolon and the mesentery proper

A

true

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71
Q

majority of input into a neuron occurs at the:

a) soma
b) axon termianl
c) axon hillock
d) dendritic spine

A

d

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72
Q

what is the condition called that is a result of the vitelline duct not disappearing at the 5-8th week mark?

a) umbilical hernia
b) omphalocele
c) gastroschisis
d) meckels diverticulum

A

d

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73
Q

how many pairs of cranial nerves are there? how many pairs of spinal nerves are there?

A

12 cranial pairs, 31 spinal pairs

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74
Q

During the 10th week, herniated intestinal loops begin to return to the abdominal cavity. Rotation occurs during herniation as well as during return of the intestinal loops into the abdominal cavity. What does NOT happen during this week?

a) appendix differentiates
b) caecum differentiates
c) jejunum and ileum continue to elongate
d) large intestines continue to elongate

A

d - this happened in week 6-8

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75
Q

_______ ______ anteriorly marks the boundary between the anatomical left and right lobes of the liver.

A

falciform ligament

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76
Q

Bill has been recently hospitalised with antibiotic-resistant pneumonia and has been on a strong course of multiple antibiotics for the last 3 months. Recently he has been experiencing watery diarrhoea up to 10 times a day. What is the likely bacteria that has caused this?

A

Clostridium difficile

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77
Q

true or false: relaxation of the bladder is caused by the parasympathetic system

A

false: sympathetic

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78
Q

with regards to the common bile duct, which of the following statement is false?

a) is formed by the union of the right and left hepatic ducts and cystic duct
b) enters the middle part of the 2nd duodenum region
c) lies in the free edge of the lesser omentum
d) passes behind the head of the pancreas
e) is accompanied by the common hepatic artery

A

e

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79
Q

what virus is typically called “cruise ship virus”?

A

norovirus

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80
Q

most sensory neurons are bipolar. which of the following definitions is that of a bipolar neuron?

a) 1 axon and 2 or more dendrites
b) 1 axon 1 dendrite
c) 1 process which then branches to form a dendritic and axonal process.
d) 1 process which then serves as both an axon and dendrite

A

b

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81
Q

traditional NSAIDS block both COX1 and COX2. which of the following drugs only blocks COX2:

a) meloxicam
b) naproxen
c) aspirin
d) diclofenac

A

a

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82
Q

list the major steps of neutrophil extravasation in order:

  1. margination, rolling, pavementing, and adhesion to endothelium
  2. migration in interstitial tissue toward a chemotactic stimulus (chemotaxis)
  3. transmigration across the endothelium (diapedesis)
A

1, 3, 2

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83
Q

true or false: the main pancreatic duct develops from the dorsal pancreatic duct

A

false: ventral pancreatic duct

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84
Q

B12 absorption requires two steps. the first is the production of haptocortin by the _____ ____ which projects the B12 from acid digestion. the second is the secretion of intrinsic factor by ______ cells which complexes with B12 so it can be absorbed.

A

salivary glands, parietal

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85
Q

the four impressions on the posterior surface of the liver are:

A
  1. gastric
  2. oesophageal
  3. colic
  4. renal
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86
Q

what is the name of the macrophage cell of the CNS?

a) microglia
b) ependymal cells
c) olgiodendrocytes
d) satellite cells

A

a

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87
Q

anteriorly, the liver has costal impressions of:

a) rib 4-8
b) rib 5-8
c) rib 6-9
d) rib 8-10

A

b

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88
Q

the caudate and quadrate lobe are anatomical lobes. what functional lobe do they belong to?

A

left

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89
Q

what shortens the taenia coli of the large intestines?

a) haustra
b) epiploic appendices
c) faecal evacuation
d) peristalsis

A

a

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90
Q

what two cranial nerves are involved in salviary gland salvation?

a) IV and VII
b) IX and X
c) VII and X
d) VII and IX

A

d

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91
Q

An endodermal thickening known as hepatic diverticulum gives rise to ramifying cords of hepatoblasts. what other structure in addition to the hepatic diverticulum gives rise to the bile duct?

a) narrowing of the lesser omentum from the stomach
b) narrowing of the duodenum in the foregut
c) lateral side of the mesogastrium
d) narrowing of the hepatoduodenal ligament

A

b

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92
Q

which part of the duodenum has the superior mesenteric vessels anteriorly?

a) superior (1st)
b) descending (2nd)
c) horiztonal (3rd)
d) ascending (4th)

A

c

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93
Q

the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is often called the craniosacral region because outflow is from 4 cranial nerves and the intermediolateral region of the spinal cord. What are the 4 cranial nerves?

A

III 3, VII 7, IX 9, X 10

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94
Q

schwann cells:

a) form myelin in CNS
b) cover the neuron cell bodies in ganglia of the peripheral nervous system
c) form myelin in the PNS
d) are scavenger cells that resemble tissue macrophages and remove debris resulting from injury, infection and disease

A

c

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95
Q

five lobes of the brain are:

A

frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, insula

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96
Q

regarding the trunks of the brachial plexus:

a) superior trunk is fomed by:
b) middle trunk is fomed by:
c) inferior trunk is fomed by:

A

a) superior: C5+C6
b) middle: C7
c) inferior: C8 + T1

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97
Q

by birth, what are the four mesenteries of the body?

A
  1. mesentery proper
  2. transverse mesocolon
  3. sigmoid mesocolon
  4. mesoappendix
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98
Q

true or false: Broad spectrum antibacterial agents may reduce the number of intestinal bacteria and thus reduce the hydrolysis of the oestrogen conjugate. This may reduce the oestrogen blood level and potentially lead to reduced efficacy, bleeding and possible pregnancy.

A

true

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99
Q

Botulism is found in honey or soil with spores. The toxisn are produced by a gram positive rod spore former. What is the bacteria called?

A

clostridium botulinum

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100
Q

Vibrio cholerae produces massive fluid and electrolyte loss due to an endotoxin/exotoxin

A

exotoxin

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101
Q

what are the two features that are essential for B12 absorption?

A

haptocortin from salivary glands

intrinsic factor from parietal cells

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102
Q

which of these is false regarding the peripheral somatic nervous system?

a) pre and post ganglionic neurons
b) acetylcholine is the main neurotransmitter
c) effects skeletal muscle
d) senses touch

A

a) one neuron

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103
Q

The average person can metabolise around ___ grams of alcohol per hour. A standard drink contains __ grams of alcohol.

A

8-10, 10

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104
Q

astrocytes:

a) form myelin in CNS
b) send processes to blood vessels, where they induce capillaries to form tight junctions making the blood brain barrier. Also send processes that envelop synapses and the surfaces of neurons
c) Line the ventricular system of the brain and the central canal of the spinal cord. Produces cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
d) are scavenger cells that resemble tissue macrophages and remove debris resulting from injury, infection and disease

A

b

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105
Q

in the spinal cord, motor neurons come from the ____ horn and consist of ____ fibres. Motor neurons are a somatic neuron that initiates movement and thus is _______

A

ventral, efferent, voluntary

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106
Q

how many essential amino acids are there?

a) 5
b) 7
c) 9
d) 12

A

c

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107
Q

active transport of sodium from the cytosol into the interstitial space plays an important role in electrolyte reabsorption in the GIT. which of the following statements is false:

a) drives sodium reabsorption from the lumen of the tract alongside glucose and amino acids
b) drives chloride transport from the lumen into the interstitial space
c) bicarbonate is secreted
d) calcium is transported from the lumen into the interstitial space

A

d) calium is regulated by parathyroid hormone and calcitriol

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108
Q

true or false: the jejunum and ileum are suspended organs which attach to the posterior body wall via the mesentery

A

true

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109
Q

the shiny outer anterior and posterior layers of the omentum are called:

A

mesothelium

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110
Q

true or false: pain from gallbladder is referred to the right hypochondrium and epigastric regions and can radiate around the back inferior to the right scapula

A

true

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111
Q

a drug that has a low volume of distribution will:

a) be highly protein bound
b) require lower dosage due to extended half-life
c) reside primarily in the tissue itself
d) all of the above

A

a

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112
Q

in the embryo, what is the principle body cavity located between the intestinal canal and the body wall called?

A

coelom

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113
Q

true or false: the medial cord of the brachial plexus ia a continuation of the inferior trunk

A

true

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114
Q

the oesphagus enters 2-3cm ___ of the midline at T__ where it enters the cardiac orifice of the stomach. The left and right _____ nerve accompanies it through the diaphragm where it forms the ______ and ______ ____ trunks.

A

left, T10, vagus, anterior posterior vagal

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115
Q

true or false: spinal nerves from T1 and below leave immediately below the responding vertebrae

A

true

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116
Q

The stomach rotates around the longitudinal and dorsoventral axes so that the greater curvature is finally directed to the _____ and slightly _____. This rotation shifts the liver to the ____ and brings the duodenum and pancreas into contact with the _____ _____ ____ where they become fixed

A

right, caudal, right, posterior body wall

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117
Q

which of these is false regarding norovirus?

a) very infective, <10 particles cause symptoms
b) causes nausea and explosive vomiting
c) incubation period is about 2-3 days
d) viral shedding may continue up to 2 weeks after symptoms
e) can survive freezing temperatures and up to 60 degrees

A

c) 24-48hrs

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118
Q

Mesoderm initially forms a multilayered cellular layer separating _______ and ________. It lies outside the embryo as extra-embryonic mesoderm. Embryonic mesoderm will form most of the adult ______ _______ and _______.

A

endoderm, ectoderm, connective tissue, muscle

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119
Q

true or false: the mesogastrium has four main parts

A

true

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120
Q

two main causes of peptic ulcers are:

A
  1. infection with H. Pylori
  2. long-term use of non-seroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
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121
Q

there are 31 pairs of spinal nerves. how many in each part of the spine:

a) cervical:
b) thoracic:
c) lumbar:
d) sacral:
e) coccygeal:

A

a) cervical: 8
b) thoracic: 12
c) lumbar: 5
d) sacral: 5
e) coccygeal: 1

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122
Q

the elongated body cylinder contains the gut tube in the embryo. the outer layer is _______ (skin), the middle layer is ______ (muscle) and contains the _______. the innermost layer is the _________ primary gut tube

A

ectoderm, mesoderm, coelom, endodermal

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123
Q

glomerulus + bowman’s capsule =

A

renal corpuscle

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124
Q

The half-life (t1/2) is the time taken for the ____ _____ of the drug to halve. Important for dosage intervals. ​

A

blood level

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125
Q

the oesophagus enters the stomach at the _____ ____, roughly at the 7th costal cartilage. the pyloric sphincter is at the transpyloric plane which is at __, approximately halfway between ______ ____ and pubic symphysis.

A

cardiac orifice, L1, suprasternal notch

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126
Q

list the three major extrinsic salivary glands:

A

parotid, submandibular, sublingual

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127
Q

true or false: Most polar drugs and drug metabolites will end up in the urine as a polar-conjugated drug, but some can end up in the bile

A

true

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128
Q

the spinal cord ends at ___ vertebrae in adults and __ vertebrae in children as the conus medullaris. The spinal dura mater ends at __ and continues as an outer layer of ____ ______ to the coccyx

A

L1, L2, S2, filum terminale

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129
Q

which lobe is involved in perception and making sense of the world?

a) temporal
b) occipital
c) parietal
d) frontal

A

c

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130
Q

what nerve supplies the submandibular and sublingual glands?

a) glossopharyngeal nerve
b) recurrent laryngeal nerves
c) superior laryngeal nerve
d) chorda typani from facial nerve

A

d

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131
Q

true or false: giardia can alter its surface proteins to avoid detection of the host’s immune system

A

true

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132
Q

satellite cells:

a) form myelin in CNS
b) cover the neuron cell bodies in ganglia of the peripheral nervous system
c) form myelin in the PNS
d) are scavenger cells that resemble tissue macrophages and remove debris resulting from injury, infection and disease

A

b

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133
Q

true or false: the forebrain eventually forms the cerebrum and the diencephalon

A

true

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134
Q

which of these structures does not come from the dorsal mesentery?

a) foregut
b) peritoneum
c) greater omentum
d) spleen

A

a

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135
Q

true or false: the round ligament is a posterior extension of the ligamentum teres and falciform ligament (found anteriorly)

A

true

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136
Q

association fibres are:

a) from grey matter to white matter
b) from cerebral cortex to other parts of the brain
c) from one part of the cerebral cortex to the other part of the cerebral cortex
d) from white matter to grey matter

A

c

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137
Q

what is the hollow sac-like structure filled with clear fluid that forms part of a develop foetus. It helps the embryo exchange gases and handle liquid waste.

a) vitelline duct
b) coelom
c) yolk sac
d) allantois

A

d

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138
Q

there are 3 major types of salmonella enterica which cause invasive gastroenteritis. which of the following is the most common cause of food poisoning?

a) salmonella typhi
b) salmonella typhimurium
c) salmonella paratyphoid

A

b

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139
Q

the peripheral nervous system is broken up into the sensory division and motor division. each division has a visceral and somatic part. which division does the autonomic nervous system belong to?

a) visceral sensory division
b) visceral motor division
c) somatic sensory division
d) somatic motor division

A

b

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140
Q

gastrin is secreted by ____ cells which promotes HCl secretion and D cells secrete ______ which inhibits HCl secretion

A

G, somatostatin

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141
Q

where does the greater and lesser curvatures of the stomach originate from in the embryo?

A

greater - dorsal

lesser - ventral

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142
Q

list the six major parts of the nephron in order:

A
  1. Bowman’s capsule containing the glomerulus
  2. Proximal convoluted tubule
  3. Ascending loop of Henle
  4. Descending loop of Henle
  5. Distal convoluted tubule
  6. Collection duct
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143
Q

true or false: the dorsal pancreatic bud forms the body of the pancreas, whilst the ventral pancreatic bud forms the inferior head and uncinate process

A

true

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144
Q

true or false: the gastric mucosal barrier also extends into the duodenum

A

true

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145
Q

right thoracic lymphatic duct drains into junction of right _____ _______ vein and right ______ vein

A

internal jugular, subclavian

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146
Q
A
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147
Q

what ligament separates the left lobe and caudate lobe? what ligament separates the left lobe and quadrate lobe?

A

left & caudate - ligamentum venosum

left & quadrate - round ligament

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148
Q

the three parts of a neuron are the:

A
  1. soma (cell body)
  2. axon
  3. dendrite
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149
Q

true or false: giardia trophozoites are motile and can adhere to the intestinal epithelium whereas giardia cysts remain dormant until they enter a new host

A

true

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150
Q

true or false: in the cerebral cortex, the gyrus are the grooves of the brain and the sulcus are the folds

A

false: gyrus are the folds, sulcus are the grooves

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151
Q

first line treatment for H. Pylori is PPI-based triple therapy. What is the role of the amoxicillin?

a) reduces the pH of stomach to make the proteins it produces to destroy the epithelium non-viable
b) bacteriocidal effect on H. Pylori
c) bacteriostatic effect on H. Pylori
d) supress H. pylori by reducing acid production of parietal cells

A

b

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152
Q

the gut parasympathetic innervation is primarily by the ____ nerve. _____ ganglia are found in teh walls of the gut as teh submucosal _______ plexus and the mucosal myenteric ______ plexus.

A

vagal, vagal, Meissner’s, Auerbach’s

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153
Q

starch breakdown begins in the mouth via:

a) amylase
b) HCl
c) pepsin
d) peptidase

A

a

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154
Q

the two cerebral hemispheres are defined by a longitudinal fissure called the _________ ______. Each hemisphere has an outer layer of ___ ____ and an inner layer of ____ ____.

A

corpus callosum, grey matter, white matter

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155
Q

cimetidine, ranitidine, famotidine are all types of:

A

histamine (H2) blockers

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156
Q

relaxation of the eye muscle is caused by what neurotransmitter?

a) acetylcholine
b) norepinephrine
c) epinephrine
d) GABA

A

b

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157
Q

match the names and definitions regarding gut motility: migratory motor complex, peristalsis, segmentation

a) same segements cycle between contraction and relaxation
b) made up of waves of contraction from the stomach to the large intestines which occur when the tract is empty
c) waves of muscle contraction behind the mass of food moving, unidirectional

A

migratory motor complex: b

peristalsis: c
segmentation: a

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158
Q

what causes a defect of the anterior abdominal wall in which bowel protrudes without a covering sac between the developing rectus muscles just lateral to, and usually to the right of the umbilicus.

a) umbilical hernia
b) omphalocele
c) gastroschisis
d) merkels diverticulum

A

c

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159
Q

travellers diarrhoea is typically caused by:

a) vibrio cholerae
b) enterotoxigenic E. Coli
c) clostridium difficile
d) staphylococcus aueus

A

b

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160
Q

4 of the 6 lumbar plexus nerves emerge laterally from the psoas major. which two do not? where do they emerge?

A

4 lateral nerves - iliohypogastric, ilioinguinal, lateral femoral cutaneous, femoral

genitofemoral - anteriorly from psoas major

obturator nerve - medially from psoas major

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161
Q

digoxin has a ____ therapeutic index, meaning there is a ___ margin of safety. benzodiazapines has a _____ therapeutic index, meaning there is a ____ margin of safety

A

low, low, high, high

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162
Q

villous capillaries collect amino acids and ____ _____ whilst villous lacteals collect absorbed _______

A

simple sugars, chylomicrons

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163
Q

true or false: the basal ganglia is found in the base of the forebrain and responsible for fine motor control, dopamine release, and reward functions

A

true

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164
Q

The villi are small, finger-like projections that extend into the lumen of the small intestines. Each villus has many ________ projecting from the enterocytes of its epithelium which form _______ ______.

A

microvilli, brush borders

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165
Q

neutrophils are produced in the _____ ____ and have a half-life in blood for _____ but they mat survive in the tissue for 1-2 days.

A

bone marrow, 4-10hrs

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166
Q

what passes through the diaphragm and enters the aorta at T8, T10, & T12

A

T8: IVC

T10: oesophagus

T12: aorta

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167
Q

which of the following is not a function of prostaglandins in the stomach:

a) increase mucosal blood flow
b) increase mucus secretion
c) increase bicarbonate secretion
d) increase gastric acid secretion

A

d) decreases it

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168
Q

sympathetic afferent fibres of the gallbladder have cell bodies in:

a) C3-C5
b) T12
c) T4-T6
d) T7-T9

A

d

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169
Q

the dorsal mesogastrium fuses with the posterior wall to make what two structures secondary retroperitoneal. what are they?

a) proximal duodenum + head of pancreas
b) proximal duodenum + transverse colon
c) head of pancreas + spleen
d) tail of pancreas + spleen

A

a

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170
Q

The submucosal ______ plexus regulates the secretion, absorption and the smooth muscle cells in the submucosa.

The muscularis ______ plexus regulates motility via the muscles of the muscularis.

A

Meissner’s

Mytenteric/Auerbach’s

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171
Q

label the following:

a) a low volume of distribution will reside:
b) an intermediate volume of distribution will reside:
c) a high volume of distribution will reside:

A

a) bloodstream
b) extracellular fluid
c) in the tissue itself (stored)/distributed freely

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172
Q

true or false: the spleen is entirely retroperitoneal, covered completely in peritoneum except at the hilum

A

false: it is intraperitoneal, rest is true

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173
Q

the ileocaecal valve consists of two ____ with muscular extensions called _______

A

valves, frenulae

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174
Q

claire’s renal function test showed a cockcroft-gault score of 33 ml/min. is this:

a) mild
b) moderate
c) severe
d) kidney failure

A

b

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175
Q

the peripheral autonomic nervous system is involved in involuntary movement. which of the following is false:

a) all preganglionic neurons release acetylcholine
b) postganglionic sympathetic neurons release acetylcholine, whilst postganglionic parasympathetic neurons release norepinephrine
c) composed of two neurons, pre and post ganglionic
d) effects smooth muscle, cardiac, and sweat glands

A

b) postganglionic sympathetic = norepinephrine and postganglionic parasympathetic = acetylcholine

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176
Q

what is functional excretion unit of the kidneys called?

a) glomerulus
b) papillary
c) nephron
d) renal tubules

A

c

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177
Q

the muscularis propria/muscularis of the gut consists of two layers, what are they?

A
  1. inner circular muscle
  2. outer longitudinal muscle
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178
Q

why are one of the first signs of pancreatic cancer obstructive jaundice?

A

the head of the pancreas causes pressure and obstruction of the common bile duct

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179
Q

when the rate of elimination of a drug is proportional to the drug concentration, this is called:

a) half-life
b) first order kinetics
c) zero order kinetics
d) steady state

A

b

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180
Q

Pancreatic duct + ______ ____ duct = hepatopancreatic ampulla (ampulla of Vater) = ______ ______ papilla

A

common bile, major duodenal

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181
Q

The spleen remains intraperitoneal and is connected to the body wall by what two ligaments? explain the attachment.

A

splenorenal: spleen to top of left kidney
gastrosplenic: spleen to greater curvature of stomach

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182
Q

in the spinal cord, sensory neurons come from the ____ horn and receive information that is relayed to the brain. the roots terminate in the ___ ____ ___ which is composed of the cell bodies of corresponding neurons.

A

dorsal, dorsal root ganglia

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183
Q

which lobe is involved in executive functions, planning, emotional and behaviour control?

a) temporal
b) occipital
c) parietal
d) frontal

A

d

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184
Q

behind the ectoderm of the primary gut tube is:

A

notochord and neural tube

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185
Q

the left anatomical lobe is defined by all these features except:

a) left hepatic artery
b) middle hepatic vein
c) falciform ligament
d) imaginary line between gallbladder and IVC
e) all of the above are true

A

e

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186
Q

what three things are carried through the free edge of the lesser omentum?

A

hepatic artery, portal vein, bile duct

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187
Q

which of the following is false regarding giardia?

a) protozoa
b) infects the large intestines
c) anaerobic
d) outer membrane can make it tolerant to chlorine disinfection

A

b) infects small intestines

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188
Q

list whether the following is a type A or type B adverse drug reaction:

a) insulin producing hypoglycaemia
b) antihypertensive causing dizziness
c) anaphylaxis from penicillin
d) antibiotics producing nausea

A

a) A
b) A
c) B
d) A

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189
Q

why is it important to take multiple stool samples over several days if you suspect someone has giardia?

A

the cysts are not constantly shed, depends on lifecycle

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190
Q

list 6 structures that pass behind the head of the pancreas

A
  1. common bile uct
  2. IVC
  3. superior mesenteric artery
  4. portal vein
  5. aorta
  6. superior mesenteric vein
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191
Q

when there is little of light, the iris sphincter muscle will dilate. is this a parasympathetic or sympathetic response?

A

sympathetic

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192
Q

what are the side to side anastomoses that join up vasa recta called?

A

arcades

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193
Q

the brachial plexus is formed by what nerves?

A

C5, C6, C7, C8, T1

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194
Q

first line treatment for H. Pylori is PPI-based triple therapy. What is the role of clarithromycin?

a) reduces the pH of stomach to make the proteins it produces to destroy the epithelium non-viable
b) bacteriocidal effect on H. Pylori
c) bacteriostatic effect on H. Pylori
d) supress H. pylori by reducing acid production of parietal cells

A

c

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195
Q

creatinine is produced by metabolism of _______ _______ which is used by skeletal muscle as an energy source. Because skeletal muscle mass in the body is relatively constant, the creatinine production normally remains essentially unchanged on a daily basis. Creatinine is not bound to plasma proteins and is excreted almost exclusively by ________ _______.

A

creatine phosphate, glomerular filtrration

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196
Q

three major branches of the coeliac trunk are:

A

left gastric

splenic

common hepatic

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197
Q

which of these conditions has an abnormal umbilical ring, and a normal umbilical ring?

  1. umbilical hernia
  2. omphalocele
  3. gastroschisis
  4. meckel’s diverticulum
A
  1. umbilical hernia - normal
  2. omphalocele - abnormal
  3. gastroschisis - abnormal
  4. meckel’s diverticulum - normal
198
Q

true or false: sacral regions of the parasympathetic nervous system relax the rectum, constrict the bladder, and cause ejaculation

A

false: first two statements true, but ejaculation is sympathetic innervation and arousal is parasympathetic

199
Q

Morrison’s pouch is a _____ recess found behind the _____ and in front of the ____ _____. it is normally empty but can be filled with liquid.

A

hepatorenal, liver, right kidney

200
Q

a 35yo woman came to the ED with a 2hr history of sudden severe pain in the right upper abdomen “under the ribs” associated with nausea and sweating. this occurred following her dinner at a barbeque. which of the following is the most propabable diagnosis?

a) gallstone obstructing the neck of the gallbladder
b) food poisoning
c) acute gastric ulcer
d) carcinoma of the head of the pancreas

A

a

201
Q

Oestrogen is metabolised by ______ (phase 1 reaction) and is conjugated by _________ and _________ in the liver (phase 2 reaction) and then excreted in the bile.

A

CYP3A4, glucuronidation, sulphination

202
Q

the motor and sensory cortex of the brain are part of what lobe?

a) temporal
b) occipital
c) parietal
d) frontal

A

d

203
Q

the oesophagus attaches posteriorly to the diaphragm and to the stomach via the _________ ligament

A

gastrophrenic

204
Q

the three steps of phagocytosis are:

A
  1. recognition and attachment
  2. engulfment
  3. killing and degradation
205
Q

true or false: gastrin and acetylcholine stimulate both acid secretion on parietal cells and histamine secretion from ECL cells

A

true

206
Q

what are the three branches of the inferior mesenteric arteries?

A
  1. left colic
  2. sigmoid
  3. superior rectal
207
Q

regarding the gut: myenteric plexus is found in the:

a) lumen
b) mucosa
c) submucosa
d) muscularis propria/muscularis

A

d

208
Q

true or false: the hindbrain forms the cerebellum and medulla oblongata

A

true

209
Q

renal absorption occurs in the:

a) paracapillary system
b) glomerulus
c) collecting duct
d) renal tubules

A

d

210
Q

which of these structures does not come from the ventral mesentery?

a) part of the pancreas
b) liver and biliary system
c) lesser omentum
d) greater omentum

A

d

211
Q

when a constant amount of drug is eliminated per unit of time, this is called:

a) half-life
b) first order kinetics
c) zero order kinetics
d) steady state

A

c

212
Q

true or false: axons will send the impulse away from the soma and dendrites send the impulse to the soma

A

true

213
Q

which of the following is false regarding lymphatic system?

a) picks up excess fluid and returns it to the bloodstream
b) flow facilitated by pulsatile expansion of arteries
c) large valves permit bidirectional flow
d) contains small amounts of albumin and cellular debris

A

c) unidirectional

214
Q

when there is lots of light, the iris sphincter muscle will constrict. is this a parasympathetic or sympathetic response?

A

parasympathetic

215
Q

two phases of giardia lifecycle are the replication phase, ______ and the non-replicative phase, ________.

A

trophozoite, cyst

216
Q

the efferent nervous system can be broken up into ______ (voluntary) and _______ (involuntary - sympathetic and parasympathetic)

A

somatic, visceral

217
Q

what type of neuron connects neurons to other neurons within the same region of the brain or spinal cord, forming a neural circuit

A

interneuron

218
Q

which of the following regarding gallstone pain is false?

a) phrenic nerve irritation causes shoulder pain
b) intercostal nerve irritation causes scapula pain
c) peripheral diaphragm irritation causes lower back pain
d) all are true

A

d

219
Q

true or false: rugae of the stomach are obliterated when distended

A

true

220
Q

three smooth muscles layers of the stomach are (deepest to superficial):

A

oblique, circular, longitudinal

221
Q

Murphy’s sign will indicate:

a) appendicitis
b) acute cholecystitis
c) cirrhosis of the liver
d) acities

A

b

222
Q

which of these is not a feature of invasive gastroenteritis?

a) has a host inflammatory response
b) stool often contains mucus and white blood cells
c) often associated with fever and abdominal pain
d) predominately affects the small intestines

A

d) large

223
Q

which of the following statements is false regarding the pancreas:

a) the body of the pancreas lies in front of the stomach
b) it supplied by both foregut and midgut arteries
c) pain from chronic pancreatitis may be referred to the back
d) the portal vein is formed behind the neck of the pancreas

e)

A

a

224
Q

the duodenum contains pronounced permanent circular folds called ____ which are most pronounced in the proximal duodenum and give a feathery appearance on an x-ray. It ends at the ______ _____ where it is tethered by a musculoperitoneal fold called the suspensory ligament of the duodenum (ligament of _____).

A

plicae, duodenojejunal flexure, Treitz

225
Q

Murphy’s sign is used to test for acute cholescystitis. The patient lies down as you palpate gall bladder whilst they take a deep breath. Why does pain indicate this condition?

A
  • Fundus of gall bladder suddenly touches inflammation of parietal peritoneum
226
Q

when the rate of drug elimination is constant, indepedent of amount of drug present, this is called:

a) half-life
b) first order kinetics
c) zero order kinetics
d) steady state

A

c

227
Q

triple therapy is used to treat H. Pylori. how long is triple therapy given for?

A

7 days, take the 3 drugs twice daily each

228
Q

Hepatic (liver), cystic (gall bladder + cystic duct), and dorsal and ventral pancreatic diverticula bud derive from what structure into the mesogastrium?

a) proximal duodenum
b) lesser curvature of the stomach
c) distal duodenum
d) greater curvature of the stomach

A

a

229
Q

two ligaments attached to the spleen are:

A

gastrosplenic - spleen to greater curvature of stomach

splenorenal - spleen to tail of pancreas

230
Q

true or false: the portal vein splits into the left and right portal vein before entering the liver

A

true

231
Q

true or false: drugs in a protein-drug complex can filter through the glomerulus, only if they are small and hydrophobic

A

false: they cannot, only free drugs can

232
Q

ture or false: you can have giardia but be asymptomatic

A

true

233
Q

nerve cell group inside the CNS is called a _____. nerve group outside CNS is called a ______

A

nucleus, ganglion

234
Q

list the GIT structures from most deep to superficial in order: external muscle, serosa/adventitia/peritoneum, lumen, mucosa, submucosa

A

lumen, mucosa, submucosa, external muscle, serosa/adventitia/peritoneum

235
Q

true or false: Most digestive enzymes of the small intestines are membrane-bound brush border enzymes which are mainly acidic to neutralise the chyme

A

false: mainly basic not acidic

236
Q

which of these is the most effective way to disinfect an object that has been in contact with norovirus?

a) hot water and antibacterial soap
b) 10ppm of chlorine
c) bleach solution
d) all of the above are sufficient

A

c

237
Q

during a cholecystectomy, what is secreted?

A

Calot’s triangle

238
Q

true or false: the ileum has lots of arcades and short vasa recta whilst the jejunum has little arcades and long vasa recta

A

true

239
Q

each trunk of the brachial plexus divides into an anterior and posterior division. the anterior division supplies the anterior compartment muscles of the arm which are generally ______ and the psoterior division supply the posterior compartment muscles of the arm which are generally _____.

A

flexors, extensors

240
Q

true or false: Because of the positional changes of the duodenum, the entrance of the bile duct gradually shifts from its initial posterior position to a anterior one and that’s why the bile duct passes behind the duodenum

A

false: shifts from anterior to posterior position.

241
Q

what is the condition that causes twisting of a bowel loop that may cause bowel obstruction and constriction of its vascular supply, which may lead to infarction.

A

volvulus

242
Q

what are the two sites of the large intestines that are numerous in epiploic appendices?

A
  1. sigmoid colon
  2. transverse colon
243
Q

true or false: the best way to treat an overdose for a drug that has a high volume of distribution is dialysis

A

false: best for low volume –> means more will be in the bloodstream and thus dialysis will “clean the blood”

244
Q

what is the bacteria that causes tetanus?

A

clostridium tetani

245
Q

what is a distinguishing feature between the mesentery and omentum?

A

grainy white appearance due to fat and macrophages (in the omentum)

246
Q

true or false: the insula lobe of the brain is considered limbic-related

A

true

247
Q

true or false: three crucial elements of chronic inflammation are vessel calibre, chemical mediators and cells

A

false: acute inflammation

248
Q

which condition is vaccine preventable but not contagious?

A

tetanus

249
Q

true or false: H.Pylori is a spiral, flagellated, gram-negative rod which lives in the gastric mucosal surface.

A

true

250
Q

hepatic veins drain deoxygenated blood from the liver. how many upper and lower veins are there?

A

3 upper, lots of lower

251
Q

the cranial nerves can be named by the saying “oh oh oh to take a family vacation go to vegas after hours” and their function can be named via “some say marry money but my brother says big brains matter more”

explain this

A

oh oh oh to take a family vacation go vegas after hours

olfactory - sensory

optic - sensory

oculomotor - motor

trochlear - motor

trigeminal - both

abducens - motor

facial - both

vestibulocochlear - sensory

glossopharynx - both

vagus - both

accessory - motor

hypoglossal - motor

252
Q

which of the following is false regarding axons?

a) can have multiple axons and branching
b) leaves the soma at the axon hillock
c) contains axon terminals which enable synpasing to another cell
d) graetest density in voltage-dependent sodium channels

A

a) one axon, lots of branching

253
Q

________ cells secrete histamine which binds to ___ receptors on parietal cells to promote HCl secretion

A

enterochromaffin (ECL), H2

254
Q

90 degree clockwise rotation of the stomach pulls the dorsal _______ to the left, creating a space behind the stomach called the ______ _____

A

mesogastrium, omental bursa

255
Q

which of these regarding the renal corpuscle is false?

a) tuft of capillaries makes up the glomerulus
b) filtration is passive and depends on hydrostatic pressure
c) has an afferent and efferent arteriole
d) 99% of water filtrate is absorbed

A

b) dependent on intracapillary blood pressure

256
Q

You have received a call from the local nursing home explaining that 4 of the 7 patients on a floor have developed diarrhoea with blood in the mucus. Many of the individuals suffer from mental disorders and often play with their own faeces if not cleaned up quick enough. What is the likely cause of this?

a) salmonella paratyphoid
b) campylobacter jejuni
c) yersinia enterocolitica
d) shigella

A

d

257
Q

Jen has been born with an omphalocele. What is the likely cause of this?

a) there is defect on the anterior abdominal wall in which bowel has protruded
b) part of the herniated bowel did not retract into the abdominal cavity by week 12 of development during to abnormality of the umbilical ring
c) the umbilical ring did not form
d) the umbilical ring has formed, but not correctly and thus enabled bowel and viscera contents to exit

A

b

258
Q

true or false: H. pylori converts urea from protein breakdown to ammonia and carbon dioxide, which lowers the pH of the local environment to make it more favourable to its survival

A

false: it increases pH of environment

259
Q

what is the test used to diagnose H. Pylori?

A

urea C13 and C1 breath test

260
Q

the portal vein flows into/out of the liver and is oxygen rich/oxygen poor and nutrient rich/nutrient poor. it is formed by the _____ _____ vein and _____ vein

A

into, oxygen poor, nutrient rich, superior mesenteric, splenic

261
Q

true or false: the midbrain forms the brainstem (midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata)

A

false: midbrain = midrain and pons

medulla oblongata is hindbrain

262
Q

the cockcroft-gault equation is used to determine creatinine clearance function. What 4 factors does it require?

A

age,

gender,

weight,

serum creatinine level

263
Q

what is this synapse: electrical energy is converted (via voltage-gated calcium channels) into the release of a neurotransmitter that binds to receptors located in the plasma membrane of the post-synaptic cell.

A

chemical

264
Q

the therapeutic index gives an indication of:

a) dose to give
b) chance of an adverse reaction occuring
c) drug’s effective oral dose
d) safety margin of the drug

A

d

265
Q

true or false: the ganglion of the spinal nerves has one nerve coming in and one or more nerves exiting

A

true

266
Q

which structures are completely retroperitoneal embryonically? (multiple answers)

a) thoracic oesophagus
b) rectum
c) 1st part of duodenum
d) pancreas

A

a & b

c & d are secondary retroperitoneal

267
Q

true or false: the clotting system will induce activation of thrombin, formation of fibrin, induction of cyclooxygenase-2 (and thus prostaglandins) and production of platelet activating factors and nitrous oxide

A

true

268
Q

the common bile duct joins the ____ _______ duct from the pancreas to form the _______ ampulla (Sphincter of Oddi)

A

main pancreatic, hepatopancreatic ampulla

269
Q

in the embryo, the primary gut tube is found in the:

a) middle endodermal layer
b) middle mesodermal layer
c) innermost endodermal layer
d) innermost mesodermal layer

A

c

270
Q

true or false: Sacral plexus is anterior rami divisions of S1-S4 and receives contributions from the lumbar spinal nerves L4 and L5.

A

true

271
Q

true or false: zero order kinetics will give a straight line graph

A

true

272
Q

true or false: during rotation of the primary intestinal loop, the small intestines do not coil, whilst the large intestines coil significantly.

A

false: small intestines coil, large dont

273
Q

touching your hand on a stove will give sensory input via:

a) ventral ramus
b) dorsal ramus
c) either
d) none of the above

A

a

274
Q

the colic impression on the posterior surface of the liver is called:

A

hepatic flexure

275
Q

where are the cell bodies of preganglionic neurons located (regarding the autonomic nervous system):

a) intermediolateral column of the spinal cord
b) medulla of the brain
c) in the effector organ
d) in the dorsal ganglionic root

A

a

276
Q

Matt has just come back from a weekend away with stomach pain that has originated in the umbilical region but has migrated to a sharp pain in his right iliac fossa. He lists that he ate mostly vegetarian food, except for pork ribs on the last night. He also has vomiting and diarrhoea and a fever. What is the likely cause of Matt’s illness?

a) appendicitis
b) enterotoxigenic E. Coli
c) shigella
d) yersinia enterocolitica

A

d

277
Q

true or false: hydrolysis of the conjugated drug by gut bacteria will return the drug to an unconjugated state. this will allow for excretion through faeces.

A

false: it will enable enterohepatic circulation

278
Q

what forms the voicebox?

A

larynx

279
Q

which of these regarding the corpus callosum is false?

a) found in the cerebral cortex
b) connects the two cerebral hemispheres
c) largest commissure in the body
d) composed of white matter

A

a) beneath the cerebral cortex

280
Q

roundworms transmit via the ____ route as the eggs are ingested. the best treatment for all roundworms is ________

A

faecal-oral, mebendazole

281
Q

during what stage of phagocytosis do psuedopods flow around the particle resulting in complete closure?

A

engulfment

282
Q

which cells produce CSF?

a) oligodendrocytes
b) astrocytes
c) satellite cells
d) ependymal cells

A

d

283
Q

which of the following regarding the H+/K+ ATPase proton pump is false:

a) requires ATP energy
b) released into the gastric gland lumen
c) hydrogen ions leave the cell
d) chloride ions enter the cell to maintain electro-neutrality

A

d) chloride ions exit the cell not enter

284
Q

true or false: extrinsic control of the GIT regulates parasympathetic nervous system input via the vagus nerve using acetylcholine.

A

true

285
Q

what is the cockcroft-gault equation?

A

CrCl (ml/min) = 140- age(yrs) x weight(kg)/serum creatinine (micromol/L)

–> x1 for females, x1.23 for males

286
Q

true or false: liver cirrhosis can cause oesophageal varices

A

true

287
Q

the hepatopancreatic duct passes through ______ __ ______ to enter the ___ part of the duodenum

A

ampulla of vater, 2nd

288
Q

true or false: extrinsic control of the GIT regulates sympathetic nervous system input via noradrenaline which increases GIT function by causing vasoconstriction of GIT arterioles

A

false: decreases GIT function, rest is true

289
Q

Appendix is usually found in the _____ ______ behind the ileocecal junction. It is a suspended organ on ________attached to ileal mesentery.

A

retrocecal recess, mesoappendix

290
Q

microglia:

a) form myelin in CNS
b) send processes to blood vessels, where they induce capillaries to form tight junctions making the blood brain barrier. Also send processes that envelop synapses and the surfaces of neurons
c) Line the ventricular system of the brain and the central canal of the spinal cord. Produces cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
d) are scavenger cells that resemble tissue macrophages and remove debris resulting from injury, infection and disease

A

d

291
Q

true or false: the greater omentum attaches to the body of the pancreas

A

false: transverse mesocolon does anteriorly

292
Q

true or false regarding the autonomic system: most postganglionic sympathetic neurons release norepinephrine, except sweat glands

A

true

293
Q

“I (twice) get laid on fridays” explains what? what does it stand for?

A

Lumbar plexus:

I - iliohypogastric

I - ilioinguinal

G - genitofemoral

L - lateral femoral cutaneous

O - obturator

F - femoral nerve

294
Q

what type of epithelium lines the oesophagus?

a) pesudeostratified squamous
b) simple cuboidal
c) stratified squamous
d) simple columnar

A

c

295
Q

claire’s renal function test showed a cockcroft-gault score of 14ml/min. is this:

a) mild
b) moderate
c) severe
d) kidney failure

A

d

296
Q

true or false: PPIs are a weak acid and thus stay in the acidic environment of the parietal cells.

A

false: weak base

297
Q

blockage of the cystic duct may cause:

a) acute cholecystitis
b) acute pancreatitis
c) obstructive jaundice
d) none of the above

A

d) just means stored bile cannot exit, bile coming from the common hepatic duct (where bile is made) is still functional

298
Q

true or false: The axons of some postganglionic neurons leave the chain ganglion and reenter the spinal nerves via the grey rami communicans and are distributed to autonomic effectors in the areas supplied by these spinal nerves.

A

true

299
Q

most neurons of the CNS are unipolar. which of the following definitions is that of a unipolar neuron?

a) 1 axon and 2 or more dendrites
b) 1 axon 1 dendrite
c) 1 process which then branches to form a dendritic and axonal process.
d) 1 process which then serves as both an axon and dendrite

A

c

300
Q

pancreatic juice is localised in what type of cell?

A

acinar cells

301
Q

transmission of a signal in a neuron occurs at the:

a) soma
b) axon terminal
c) axon hillock
d) dendritic spine

A

b

302
Q

what is primarily responsible for initial vasodilation of arterioles?

a) I-CAMS
b) PAMPs
c) histamines
d) neutrophils

A

c

303
Q

the optic nerve (CN II) is responsible for:

a) dilation of iris sphincter
b) transmission of action to iris sphincter
c) registering light
d) vision

A

c

304
Q

which of these is false regarding viral gastroenteritis:

a) incubation period is always less than 24hrs
b) person to person transmission is possible
c) can be food or water-borne
d) more common than bacterial gastroenteritis

A

a

305
Q

the dorsal mesogastrium forms the greater omentum. which of the following is not a ligament part of the greater omentum?

a) gastrosplenic ligament
b) gastroduodenal ligament
c) gastrocolic ligament
d) gastrophrenic ligament

A

b) doesnt exist

306
Q

there are two types of glial cells: ______ and _____. they are non-neuronal cells that do/do not produce an electrical impulse. They form myelin and provide protection and support to _____. They continue to undergo cell division into adulthood.

A

macroglia, microglia, do not, neurons

307
Q

three parts of the brainstem are:

A

midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata

308
Q

two functions of the spleen are:

A
  1. red pulp (75%) making and recycling RBCs
  2. white pulp: immunosurveillance and production of immune cells (secondary lymphoid organ)
309
Q

what layer of the meninges has a highly vascularied network of thin blood vessels

a) subarachnoid space
b) subdural space
c) pia mater
d) arachnoid mater

A

c

310
Q

three major arterial supplies of the pancreas are:

A

splenic artery (from coeliac trunk)

superior pancreaticoduodenal artery (from coeliac)

inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery (superior mesenteric)

311
Q

what are the three features that separate the left and right anatomical lobes? what is the distinguishing differential feature?

A
  1. line between fossa for gallbladder and IVC
  2. falciform ligament
  3. middle hepatic vein

left hepatic artery - defines left lobe

right hepatic artery - defines right lobe

312
Q

selectins, immunoglobulins such as ICAM, integrins, and mucin-like glycorproteins are a type of:

A

complementary adhesion molecule

313
Q

what is this synpase: the pre and post synaptic cell membranes are connected by gap junctions that can pass electric current causing voltage changes in the presynaptic cell to induce voltage changes in the postsynaptic cell. Very rapid.

A

electrical

314
Q

true or false: dorsal and ventral rami lie lateral to the spinal nerve and carry both sensory and motor fibres

A

true

315
Q

in what layer of the meninges is CSF found?

a) subarachnoid space
b) subdural space
c) pia mater
d) arachnoid mater

A

a

316
Q

most fatty acids are synthesised in the body except for what two?

A

omega-3 and omega-6

317
Q

true or false: enterocytes are simple columnar epithelial cells

A

true

318
Q

where is the allantois in the embryo?

a) foregut
b) midgut
c) hindgut

A

c

319
Q

what is used to estimate creatinine clearance in the kidney’s?

A

cockcroft-gault equation

320
Q

upon injury, we first obseve ___, then ____, then ___, then ____

A

pain, redness, swelling, heat

321
Q

gallbladder pain often presents with pain at the tip of the shoulder. why?

A

innervated by right phrenic nerve - C3 C4 C5 keeps the diaphragm alive. C5 causes shoulder pain.

322
Q

gastric mucosal barrier consists of what two substances

A

bicarbonate + mucus

323
Q

what are the bulges of the wall with constrictions interspersed with expanded areas of colon called?

A

haustra

324
Q

prostaglandins, leukotrienes and lipoxins are a type of:

a) cytokine
b) arachaonic acid metabolite from cell membrane
c) plasma protein from liver
d) vasoactive amine from cells

A

b

325
Q

true or false: listeria monocytogenes is a gram-positive bacilli that is found in soil and water and can multiply at refrigeration temperatures

A

true

326
Q

lateral ends of the coronary ligament are:

A

left and right triangular lobes

327
Q

the most common antiparasitic treatment for giardia is:

A

metronidazole

328
Q

Jim is overweight and needs his renal function tested before receiving drug X. what is the best approach?

a) eGFR from blood test
b) cockcroft-gault equation
c) cockcroft-gault equation with modifications for his extra weight
d) none of the above

A

b) weight is ideal weight, i.e. skeletal muscle, not including fat.

329
Q

true or false: TNF-alpha and IL-1 are prodcued by activated macrophages and are important modulators of inflammation

A

true

330
Q

what artery supplies the first 2/3 of the transverse colon?

a) colonic
b) right colic
c) middle colic
d) left colic

A

c

331
Q

which part of the duodenum is medial to the left kidney?

a) superior (1st)
b) descending (2nd)
c) horiztonal (3rd)
d) ascending (4th)

A

d

332
Q

three divisions of the autonomic nervous system (visceral mtoor division) are:

A
  1. sympathetic
  2. parasympathetic
  3. enteric
333
Q

what involves herniation of the bowel or other viscera through the umbilical ring, which is covered by a thin, avascular membrane that may rupture?

a) umbilical hernia
b) omphalocele
c) gastroschisis
d) merkels diverticulum

A

b

334
Q

during the 6th week of embryonic development, primary intestinal loops rotate around an axis formed by the ______ _______ _____. When viewed from the front, this rotation is counter clockwise and amounts to ____ degrees.

A

superior mesenteric artery, 270

335
Q

true or false: there is only a ventral root ganglion

A

false: only a dorsal root ganglion

336
Q

Alcohol (ethyl alcohol) is metabolised to ________ by the enzyme _____ ________. This enzyme becomes saturated at relatively low blood alcohol concentrations. This is a type of ____-order kinetics reaction.

A

acetylaldehyde, alcohol dehydrogenase, zero

337
Q

“sex is satisfying post piss” stands for what?

A

5 nerves of sacral plexus:

Superior gluteal nerve

Inferior gluteal nerve

Sciatic nerve

Posterior femoral cutaneous nerve

Pudendal nerve

338
Q

the tail of the pancreas is adjacent to what two structures?

A
  1. splenic hilum
  2. left kidney
339
Q

true or false: micelle formation enables the digestion of triglycerides into two fatty acids and a monogluceride so it can be absorbed through the intestinal wall and reform to enter the villous lacteals

A

true

340
Q

what is McBurney’s point?

A

opening of appendix to caecum at the base of the appendix, below the ileocecal valve

341
Q

true or false: food poisoning is generally caused by gram positive bacteria that release an enterotoxin

A

true

342
Q

the taenia coli of the large intestines consists of ____ longitudinal muscular bands as three thickenings that are part of the ____ muscle. Not in appendix or _____ _____

A

three, external, rectal junctions

343
Q

true or false: the spleen developed as an outgrowth of the dorsal mesentery

A

false: developed in the mesenchyme of the dorsal mesentery in isolation, not an outgrowth

344
Q

in the spinal cord, sensory information enters the spinal nerve via the _____ ____ and motor information enters the spinal nerve via the ______ _____. sensory and motor information are then carried together by the ______ ____ which exits the vertebral canal by ________ ______.

A

dorsal ramus, ventral ramus, spinal nerve, intervertebral foramen

345
Q

John had a traumatic brain injury which has altered his personality. Which lobe is likely to be the cause of this?

a) temporal
b) occipital
c) parietal
d) frontal

A

d

346
Q

micelle formation of fats via bile enables action of what enzhyme which digests the triglyceride into two fattt acids and a monoglyceride so they can be reabsorbed by the intestinal wall?

a) pancreatic lipase
b) lipolysomase
c) cholesterolase
d) all of the above

A

a

347
Q

ligamentum venosum is a remnant of ____ ______ which shunts a portion of umbilical vein (oxygen ____) blood flow directly into the _____

A

ductus venosum, rich, IVC

348
Q

the renal corpuscle contains the glomerulus inside bowman’s capsule. what are the three layers?

A

endothelial cells, basement membane, podocytes

349
Q

“2 from 1, 2 from 2, 2 from 3” explains the lumbar plexus. What does it tell us?

A

2 from 1 – 2 nerves that come from 1 root –> iliohypogastric + ilioinguinal

2 from 2 - 2 nerves that come from 2 roots –> genitofemoral + lateral femoral cutaneous

2 from 3 – 2 nerves that come from 3 roots –> obturator + femoral nerve

350
Q

histamine and serotonin are a type of:

a) cytokine
b) arachaonic acid metabolite from cell membrane
c) plasma protein from liver
d) vasoactive amine from cells

A

d

351
Q

what hormone regulates iron absorption?

a) gastrin
b) oxygenase
c) hepcidin
d) urease

A

c

352
Q

what cranial nerve is the vagus nerve?

a) II
b) VI
c) X
d) XII

A

c

353
Q

true or false: the caecum is suspended by mesentery

A

false: suspended from the ascending colon

354
Q

the pharynx terminates at __ and the ________ muscle where it becomes the _________

A

C5, cricopharyngeal, oesophagus

355
Q

true or false: the axillary nerve and ulnar nerve come from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus

A

false: axillary and radial nerve come from posterior cord, ulnar nerve is from medial cord

356
Q

which of these regarding filtration is false?

a) afferent arteriole is larger than efferent arteriole, and this difference increases hydrostatic pressure
b) about 50% of blood plasma is filtered through the glomeruli
c) albumin and other blood proteins are not filtered through the glomeruli
d) red and white blood cells are not filtered through the glomeruli

A

b) 1/5th (20%)

357
Q

the two major glial cells of the peripheral nervous system are:

A

schwann cells, satellite cells

358
Q

which of these is false regarding rotavirus?
a) vaccine in children available

b) incubation time is about 48hrs
c) survives well on inanimate objects
d) faecal-oral transmission and small infective dose
e) all of the above are true

A

e

359
Q

when would you use histamine blockers to treat a peptic ulcer?

a) when the patient has not responded to first line treatment
b) when the patient is immunocompromised
c) when the patient is H. pylori negative
d) never

A

c

360
Q

the head of the pancreas sits in what region and at what vertebral level?

A

2nd part of duodenum, L2

361
Q

true or false: both active drugs and active metabolites are excreted in the urine

A

true

362
Q

John has been diagnosed with H. Pylori but has a penicillin allergy. What would you prescribe him?

a) PPI + amoxicillin + metronidazole
b) PPI + clarithromycin + metronidazole
c) PPI + amoxicillin + clarithromycin
d) PPI + metronidazole + amoxicillin + clarithromycin

A

b

363
Q

the lumbar plexus is formed by:

A

L1-4 with contributions from teh subcostal nerve T12

364
Q

functional lobes of the liver are defined by:

a) falciform ligament
b) line between fossa for gallbladder and IVC
c) left and right hepatic artery
d) all of the above

A

c

365
Q

regarding gastric acid production, histamine is released from ________ cells and acts on __ receptors on parietal cells. Gastrin hormone is released from ____ cells in the gastric glands and acts on ___ receptor on parietal cells to stimulate acid and ______ release. Acetylcholine is released from vagus nerve ______ postganglionic nerve fibres and acts on ______ receptors on parietal cells and ECL cells.

A

etercohromaffin-like (ECL) cells, H2, G, CCK2, histamine, parasympathetic, muscarinic M3

366
Q

a pseudounipolar neuron has:

a) 1 axon and 2 or more dendrites
b) 1 axon 1 dendrite
c) 1 process which then branches to form a dendritic and axonal process.
d) 1 process which then serves as both an axon and dendrite

A

d

367
Q

all lymphatics below the diaphragm drain into:

a) coeliac trunk
b) portal vein
c) IVC
d) cisterna chyli

A

d

368
Q

name two major ways that drugs can enter the GIT system for excretion:

A
  • Transport by carrier proteins e.g. organic anion transporters (OAT), organic cation transporters (OCT) and p-glycoprotein
  • Excretion in the bile via enterohepatic circulation
369
Q

the liver extends from the level of the __ rib to the ______ _____

A

5th, costal margin

370
Q

what are the two major cytokines that modulate acute inflammation?

A

tumour necrosis factor alpha and IL-1

371
Q

how does bile leave the gallbladder? what is duct called?

A

cystic duct

372
Q

the cephalic phase of digestion causes what to occur first?

a) acetylcholine release from vagus nerve
b) histamine stimulation
c) parietal cell HCl stimulation
d) all occur at the same time

A

a

373
Q

the small intestines begins at the pyloric sphincter and goes to the:

a) ascending colon
b) caecum
c) end of ileum
d) ileocacel valve

A

d

374
Q

therapeutic index is (formula):

A

lethal dose 50/ effective dose 50

375
Q

true or false: giardia takes away nutrients belonging to the small intestinal epithelium and produces by-products that cause local inflammation, damage to tight junctions and reduce free bile salts causing diarrhoea

A

false: they increase free bile salts

376
Q

the endodermal gut tube is created in the:

a) 2nd week
b) 3rd week
c) 4th week
d) 6th week

A

c

377
Q

the rule of 2 explains features of Meckel’s diverticulum. give 4 examples of the rule of 2:

A
  • 2% of population
  • 2% prevalence, 2:1 male predominance
  • 2ft proximal to the ileocecal valve
  • 1:2 symptomatic under 2yo
  • 2 inches long
  • Heterotropic tissue (gastric mucosa + pancreatic acini)
378
Q

true or false: Activation of the parasympathetic nervous system is believed to principally increase GIT blood flow indirectly. Splanchnic vessels dilate in response to the parasympathetic nervous system-mediated increase GIT blood flow.

A

true

379
Q

C. Diff is a gram-positive rod spore former that produces toxins A and toxins B. which one is an enterotoxin and which one is a cytotoxin

A

enterotoxin = toxin A

cytotoxin = toxin B

380
Q

claire’s renal function test showed a cockcroft-gault score of 51ml/min. is this:

a) mild
b) moderate
c) severe
d) kidney failure

A

a

381
Q

Matt has just come back from a holiday in Morocco with diarrhoea with blood, mucus, and pus as well as sore joints. He remembers eating chicken 5 days ago that tasted funny and was sitting under a lamp with flies around it. What is the likely cause of Matt’s illness?

a) campylobacter jejuni
b) enterotoxigenic E. Coli
c) shigella
d) yersinia enterocolitica

A

a

382
Q

true or false: Lymphoid organs act as filters and phagocytosis of foreign substances

A

false: lymph nodes, not lymphoid organs

383
Q

Ryan has recently been working in a rural town in Syria. He has began experiencing severe abdominal pain and profusely watery diarrhoea with flecks of mucus. what is the likely culprit?

a) vibrio cholerae
b) clostridium difficile
c) clostridium perfringens
d) E. Coli

A

a

384
Q

the caudate lobe is ____ the porta hepatis. it anatomically belongs to the _____ lobe, but drains into both lobes.

A

above/superior

left

385
Q

true or false: A preganglionic neuron diverges to an average of 8 or 9 post ganglionic neurons, so autonomic output is diffuse.

A

true

386
Q

the diaencephalon has three parts:

A

thalamus

hypothalamus

epithalamus (pineal body)

387
Q

four outcomes of acute inflammation are:

A
  1. resolution
  2. abscess formation
  3. healing with fibrosis
  4. chronic inflammation
388
Q

parietal cells secrete ___ which activates stomach proteases such as ______ to pepsin, as well as assist in the digestion of food.

A

HCl, pepsinogen

389
Q

which of these is not found behind the stomach?

a) left suprarenal gland and left pole of kidney
b) splenic artery
c) pancreas
d) transverse colon + mesocolon
e) all of the above are

A

e

390
Q

lower ascending colon is supplied by:

a) right colic
b) ileocolic
c) middle colic
d) colonic

A

b

391
Q

list whether the following parts of the large intestine are retroperitoneal or suspended:

a) caecum
b) appendix
c) ascending colon
d) transverse colon
e) descending colon
f) sigmoid colon

A

a) caecum - suspended
b) appendix - suspended
c) ascending colon - retroperitoneal
d) transverse colon - suspended
e) descending colon - retroperitoneal
f) sigmoid colon - suspended

392
Q

assuming alcohol dehydrogenase is saturated, if someone consumes 4 standard drinks, after 1 hour how many standards will be left in their body?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

A

c

393
Q

oligodendrocytes:

a) form myelin in CNS
b) send processes to blood vessels, where they induce capillaries to form tight junctions making the blood brain barrier. Also send processes that envelop synapses and the surfaces of neurons
c) Line the ventricular system of the brain and the central canal of the spinal cord. Produces cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
d) are scavenger cells that resemble tissue macrophages and remove debris resulting from injury, infection and disease

A

a

394
Q

true or false: morphine and paracetamol both undergo second pass metabolism and enterohepatic circulation

A

true

395
Q

parasympathetic signals will _____ salivary output whilst sympahtetic signals will _____ salivary output

A

increase, decrease

396
Q

which statement is false?

a) The axons of the postganglionic neurons are mostly unmyelinated C fibres and terminate on the visceral effectors.
b) Postganglionic parasympathetic neurons release acetylcholine
c) Preganglionic axons are small in diameter, relatively fast, myelinated and conduct A fibres.
d) Postganglionic sympathetic neurons release either norepinephrine or acetylcholine

A

c) false: Preganglionic axons are small in diameter, relatively slow, myelinated conduct B fibres.

397
Q

the five terminal branches of the brachial plexus are:

A
  1. msuculocutaneous
  2. axillary nerve
  3. radial nerve
  4. median nerve
  5. ulnar nerve
398
Q

true or false: superficial lymphatics will follow superficial veins. deep lymphatics will follow arteries

A

true

399
Q

what cranial nerve is involved in the afferent neural pathway and the efferent neural pathway?

A

optic nerve CN II (afferent)

oculomotor nerve CN III (efferent)

400
Q

neutrophils contain three types of granules:

A
  1. specific
  2. azurophilic
  3. tertiary
401
Q

the oculomotor nerve (CN III) is responsible for:

a) dilation of iris sphincter
b) transmission of action to iris sphincter
c) registering light
d) vision

A

b

402
Q

which of the following is false regarding the jejunum?

a) thick walls and wider diameter
b) long villi with lots of large folds
c) presence of Peyer’s patch
d) long vasa recta with few arcades

A

c

403
Q

the coronary ligament of the liver attaches to the ____ dome and _____ tendon of the diaphragm. the bare area is part of the ____ lobe.

A

right, central, lobe

404
Q

true or false: deconjugation of oestrogen will provide free oestrogen which will get reabsorbed via enterohepatic circulation and contribute to the oestrogen blood level

A

true

405
Q

a drug reaction that is predictable and an extension of the drug’s therapeutic effect is a type __ (______) reaction. The effect can typically be reduced by ______ the dose. A drug reaction unrelated to the therapeutic effect, unpredictable, and independent of the dose is a type _(______) reaction. Treatment should be _____.

A

A (augmented), lowering, B(bizarre), stopped

406
Q

which part of the duodenum has the portal vein and bile duct posterior to it and the gallbladder anterior?

a) superior (1st)
b) descending (2nd)
c) horiztonal (3rd)
d) ascending (4th)

A

a

407
Q

true or false: conjugated oestrogen can only be excreted via faeces

A

false: can also be excreted via the kidneys

408
Q

The main pancreatic duct is within the pancreas towards the ______ surface. It drains into the ____ _____ ______ in the posteromedial wall of the descending duodenum and enters in close proximity to the bile duct. The main pancreatic duct and bile duct may unite to form the ________ _______ or empty separately into the greater duodenal papilla

A

posterior, greater duodenal papilla, hepatopancreatic ampulla

409
Q

how many nerves are in the brachial plexus, lumbar plexus, and sacral plexus?

A

brachial: 5
lumbar: 6
sacral: 5

410
Q

which lobe is involved in memory, understanding, and language?

a) temporal
b) occipital
c) parietal
d) frontal

A

a

411
Q

the omenta are a _____ layer of ______ that contain blood vessels, connective tissue, and _____ but no organs. The greater omentum develops from the ______ mesentery and the lesser omentum develops from the ______ mesentery.

A

double, peritoneum, macrophages, dorsal, ventral

412
Q

at what week does the abdominal contents herniate through the umbilical cord into the extraembryonic cavity?

a) 6th
b) 7th
c) 8th
d) 9th

A

a

413
Q

true or false: neutrophils and macrophages can engulf bacteria and exogenous material wihtout specific attachment, but engulfment is greatly enhanced by opsonisation of specific proteins

A

true

414
Q

in the embryo, these are three types of mesoderm. label the name and definition of each: paraxial, intemediate, lateral plate

a) body wall, body cavities, cardiovascular and GIT structures
b) somites –> musculoskeletal structures, myotome, dermatome, sclerotome
c) urogenital –> kidney and genital

A

b) paraxial
c) intermediate
a) lateral plate

415
Q

True or false: Grey matter of the spinal cord contains sensory and motor axons which carry information up and down the spina cord. White matter of the spinal cord contains the nerve cell bodies, dendrites and helps conduct sensory and motor information to and from the periphery.

A

false: white matter and grey matter switched

416
Q

true or false: NSAIDS block the conversion of cyclooxygenase to leukotrienes

A

false: block cyclooxygenase to prostaglandins

417
Q

Lymph consists of water, small amounts of ____ and cellular debris that is too large to be absorbed by blood capillaries.

A

albumin

418
Q

which of these is false regarding estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR)?

a) normal adult range is 90mL/min/1.73m2.
b) good way to measure kidney function
c) takes into consideration patient’s age, gender, weight, but not serum creatinine levels
d) all of the above are true

A

c) doesnt take into consideration weight, but it takes into consideration the other three factors

419
Q

the main excretion organ for drug metabolites is:

A

kidneys

420
Q

what are the four constrictions of the oesophagus?

A
  1. at the top, cricopharyngeal muscle C6
  2. arch of aorta at T4
  3. level of main bronchus T4/5
  4. oesophageal hiatus (passing through the diaphragm) T10
421
Q

the three layers of the meninges and two spaces are (in order of superficial to deep):

A

dura mater

subdural space

aracnoid mater

subarachnoid space

pia mater

422
Q

four parts of the stomach are:

A

cardiac, fundus, body, pyloric region

423
Q

food poisoning is typically caused by:

a) vibrio cholerae
b) enterotoxigenic E. Coli
c) clostridium difficile
d) staphylococcus aueus

A

d

424
Q

six major arteries off the superior mesenteric artery:

A
  1. inferior pancreaticoduodenal
  2. jejunal
  3. ileal
  4. ileocolic
  5. right colic
  6. middle colic
425
Q

interleukin-2 (IL-2) is a type of:

a) cytokine
b) arachaonic acid metabolite from cell membrane
c) plasma protein from liver
d) vasoactive amine from cells

A

a

426
Q

how many functional lobes of the liver are there? Which one is the biggest?

A

2 - left and right

left is bigger

427
Q

regarding the autonomic division, symapthetic outflow is from ____ to ____ and and called the ______ division. they leave the CNS via the ____ root along with axons of the alpha and gamma motor neurons. They then separate from the _____ root via the white rami communicans and project to the ______ _______ _______ ganglion, where some of them end on the cell bodies of the postganglionic neurons.

A

T1 to L3/4, thoracocolumbar, ventral, ventral, adcent sympathetic paravertebral ganglion

428
Q

amino acids contain what three major structures?

A

amino group (NH2)

side chain

carboxyl group (COOH)

429
Q

regarding the gut: connective tissue, Meissner’s plexus, arteries, veins and nerves are found in the:

a) lumen
b) mucosa
c) submucosa
d) muscularis propria/muscularis

A

c

430
Q

motility in the gut is achieved by the layers of smooth muscle of the muscularis. what are the three patterns of motility?

A
  1. migratory motor complex
  2. peristalsis
  3. segmentation
431
Q

true or false: renal absorption in the tubules can be passive or active, but renal tubule secretion is always active

A

true

432
Q

true or false: roundworms generally cause issues regarding the peri-anal and rectal region

A

true

433
Q

what forms the epiglottis?

a) nasopharynx
b) oropharynx
c) laryngopharynx

A

b

434
Q

true or false: a somatic reflex i.e. knee jerk reflex does not go to the brain, it just loops around the spinal cord.

A

false: this is a visceral reflex, not somatic reflex

435
Q

which of these is false regarding the sacral plexus?

a) formed by anterior rami divisions
b) anterior to piriformis muscle
c) located on the surface of the posterior abdominal wall
d) enters the gluteal region via the greater sciatic foramen

A

c) posterior pelvic wall

436
Q
A
437
Q

what is the portal triad? where is it found?

A

hepatic artery proper, portal vein, common bile duct

hepatoduodenal ligament where the porta hepatis is

438
Q

list of the order of blood flow in the liver:

a) arteries drain into sinusoids of lobules
b) hepatic veins go into IVC
c) central veins go into hepatic veins
d) lobules are drained via central veins

A

a, d, c, b

439
Q

which bacteria is commonly associated with shellfish and is thus common in Japan?

a) listeria monocytogenes
b) vibrio parahaemolyticus
c) salmonella typhimurium
d) yersinia enterocolitca

A

b

440
Q

three major features of the large intestines are?

A

haustra, taenia coli, epiploic appendices

441
Q

deconjugation of oestrogen by gut bacteria will:

a) enable it to be excreted into the faeces
b) remove the glucoronide and sulfite
c) make it more polar
d) all of the above

A

b

442
Q

blockage of the bile drain to the duodenum causes:

a) acute cholecystitis
b) acute pancreatitis
c) gallstones
d) obstructive jaundice

A

d

443
Q

True or false: After phagocytosis, lysosomes undergo rapid apoptosis. Tissue macrophages phagocytose and pinocytose the debris and transport via lymphatics to the regional lymph nodes.

A

false: its the macrophages that undergo rapid apoptosis, not lysosomes

444
Q

where is CSF made?

a) cerebellum
b) subarachnoid space
c) choroid plexus
d) 1st lateral ventricle

A

c

445
Q

the musculocutaneous nerve innervates teh biceps, brachialias, coracobrachilias, and flexion of the arm at the elbow. which statement is true?

a) comes from an anterior divison, medial cord
b) comes from an anterior division, lateral cord
c) comes from a posterior division, posterior cord
d) comes from an anterior division, posterior cord

A

c

446
Q

true or false: C1-C7 spinal nerves the the spinal canal below corresponding vertebrae whereas C8 passes above

A

false: C1-7 above corresponding vertebrae, C8 passes below C7

447
Q

the oesphageal hiatus stops unwanted vomiting. what is the innervation?

a) vagal nerve
b) myenteric plexus
c) phrenic nerve
d) gastric nerve

A

b

448
Q

true or false: in the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system, the preganglionic neuron is significantly longer than the postganglionic neuron

A

true

449
Q

true or false: the peripheral sensory divison of the nervous system can be broken up into somatic and autonomic

A

true

450
Q

true or false: The larynx terminates with the indentation to the oesophagus at C5 of the cricopharyngeal muscle.

A

false: this is the pharynx. the larynx forms the voice box then trachea

451
Q

complement and kinin are a type of:

a) cytokine
b) arachaonic acid metabolite from cell membrane
c) plasma protein from liver
d) vasoactive amine from cells

A

c

452
Q

p-glycoprotein is a:

A

transport carrier protein

453
Q

true or false: neutrophils are able to leave the blood stream by integrin dependent capture and selectin depenent adherence to endothelial cells

A

false: selectin dependent capture and integrin dependent adherence to endothelium

454
Q

true or false: many of the enterotoxins that cause food poisoning are heat-stable

A

true

455
Q

true or false: the median nerve of the brachial plexus is formed from the medial root of the medial cord + the lateral root of the lateral cord

A

true

456
Q

true or false: the cerebellum lies dorsal to the pons and medulla

A

true

457
Q

dioxin, frusemide, and penicillin can be transported in and out of renal tubules by ______ _____. this can be facilitated or require energy

A

carrier systems

458
Q

three types of worms are:

A
  1. roundworm (nematodes)
  2. tapeworm (cestodes)
  3. flukes
459
Q

which type of E. Coli produces shiga-like toxin and is sorbitol negative (only one):

a) enteropathogenic E. Coli
b) enteroaggregative E. Coli
c) enterohaemorrhagic E. Coli
d) enteroinvasive E. Coli

A

c

460
Q

the oesophagus begins at ___ and ends at ___

A

C6, T10/11

461
Q

what does “read the damn cadaver book” stand for? what structure does it explain?

A

Brachial plexus:

Roots

Trunks

Divisions

Cords

Branches

462
Q

a low cockcroft-gault score (creatinine clearance rate) and a normal eGFR score indicates:

a) renal impairment
b) depends on patient’s weight
c) normal renal function

A

a

463
Q

the dorsal mesogastrium forms the:

a) lesser omentum
b) greater omentum
c) mesocolon
d) hepatoduodenal ligament

A

b

464
Q

true or false: The foregut divides into a ventral portion, the respiratory primordium and a dorsal portion, the oesophagus

A

true

465
Q

the marginal artery enables anastomoses between branches of what two arteries?

A

superior mesenteric and inferior mesenteric arteries

466
Q

the three parts of the pharynx from superior to inferior are:

A

naspharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx

467
Q

true or false: the liver is a secondary retroperitoneal organ

A

false: intraperitoneal

468
Q

which of these is false regarding the ileum?

a) lots of large folds
b) presence of Peyer’s patch
c) short vasa recta, lots of arcades
d) fatty mesentery

A

a

469
Q

how many half-lifes does it take for a drug to reach steady state?

a) 2
b) 5
c) 10
d) cannot tell

A

b

470
Q

what are teh three major players for gastric acid secretion?

A

histamine, gastrin, acetylcholine

471
Q

if a drug has a high volume of distrubtion, which dosing regime would be most appropriate?

a) twice a day
b) once a day
c) once every 3 days

A

c

472
Q

true or false: The stomach rotates 90 clockwise around its longitudinal axis, causing its left side to face posteriorly and its right side to face anteriorly

A

false: left side faces anteriorly, right side faces posteriorly

473
Q

regarding the brachial plexus, cords are named relative to:

a) subclavian artery
b) axillary nerve
c) axillary artery
d) SVC

A

c

474
Q

the round ligament is found on the posterior surface of the liver and is an extension of the falciform ligament. What is it a remnant of?

a) paraumbilical ligament
b) ductus venosum
c) left umbilical vein
d) right umbilical vein

A

c

475
Q

true or false: about 99% of electrolyes are reabsorbed by the kidneys

A

false: true for all except potassium is 93%

476
Q

the common hepatic duct + the cystic duct join to form _______ ______ duct.

A

common bile

477
Q

true or false regarding drug half-life: both the blood level of the drug and amount excreted are half each half-life

A

false: blood level is half, but excretion level changes

100mg/ml —> 50mg/ml = 50mg/ml excreted

50mg/ml —> 25mg/ml = 25mg/ml excreted

478
Q

in the embryo, the aorta is covered in:

A

mesoderm

479
Q

true or false: Unsaturated fatty acids (one or more double bonds) typically have a cis configuration which makes them easier to breakdown via hydrogenation

A

false: trans configuration, rest of statement is true

480
Q

Preganglionic, unmyelinated/myelinated neurons originates in CNS, must traverse a synapse onto a postganglionic unmyelinated/myelinated neuron in the PNS.

A

myelinated, unmyelinated

481
Q

what nerve supplies the parotid gland?

a) glossopharyngeal nerve
b) recurrent laryngeal nerves
c) superior laryngeal nerve
d) facial nerve

A

a

482
Q

the round ligament seprates the ____ lobe and ____ lobe.

A

left, quadrate

483
Q

which part of the duodenum has the head of the pancreas medial to it and the hilum of the right kidney posterior?

a) superior (1st)
b) descending (2nd)
c) horiztonal (3rd)
d) ascending (4th)

A

b

484
Q

the GIT is regulated by intrinsic and extrinsic nervous system.

the enteric nervous system mediates autonomic reflex responses that support digestion and absorption - this is the _____ nervous system.

the ____ nervous system links to the CNS and has sensory fibres _____ and _____ nerves and parasympathetic and sympathetic efferent fibres

A

intrinsic, extrinsic, splanchnic, vagus

485
Q

which of the following is false regarding H. Pylori:

a) increases risk of stomach cancer
b) cause of 90% of duodenal ulcers
c) commensal in 60% of adults
d) cause of 70% of gastric ulcers

A

c) commensal in 40% of adults

486
Q

true or false: at the ganglionic synapses of both sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions, acetylcholine is released. however, at the effector organ, acetylcholine is typically released for the parasympathetic division and noradrenaline is typically released in the symapthetic division

A

true

487
Q

what is due to loss of plasma and proteins from post-capillary venules on the basis of increased vascular permeability, mainly due to endothelial cell retraction

a) pain
b) redness
c) swelling
d) heat

A

c

488
Q

claire’s renal function test showed a cockcroft-gault score of 27ml/min. is this:

a) mild
b) moderate
c) severe
d) kidney failure

A

c

489
Q

when would you use antacids?

a) to manage symptoms of GERD
b) to manage symptoms of H. Pylori positive gastric ulcer
c) to manage symptoms of H. Pylori negative gastric ulcer
d) all of the above

A

d

490
Q

true or false: spinal nerve = dorsal root + ventral root

A

true

491
Q

which of the following is false regarding E. Coli?

a) non-spore forming
b) gram-positive bacillus
c) do not produce enterotoxins
d) 6 major types
e) can grow in aerobic and anaerobic conditions

A

b) gram-negative

492
Q

regarding the gut: glands, lamina propria, and muscularis mucosa are found in the:

a) lumen
b) mucosa
c) submucosa
d) none of the above

A

b