BSC + CCS: WK11-12 Flashcards
during bruising, what colour tint does biliverdin give?
a) red
b) green
c) yellow
d) golden brown
b
microcephaly is due to:
a) failure of the cervical end to close
b) neural tube lying ectopically in the cystic space
c) failure of normal size development of the neural tube
d) failure of the cephalic end to close
c
what makes CSF? Where is CSF stored?
choroid plexus, ventricles
in deoxygenated blood, Hb is in the __ state. in oxygenated blood Hb is in the __ state.
T, R
true or false: replication and transcription occur in the nucleus and translation occurs in the cytoplasm
true
low pH, high concentrations of 2,3-BPG, and binding of CO2 and CO all encourage release of oxygen from Hb.
Does this favour the T state or the R state?
Is the oxygen dissociation curve shifted to the left or right?
favours the T state, shifted right
R state is when holding onto oxygen - oxyHb
T state is when its released the oxygen - deoxyHb
fatty acid synthesis involves malonyl-CoA to eventually form
a) oxaloacetate
b) acetyl-CoA
c) pyruvate
d) palmitic acid
d
what is a chaperone?
a) a protein that assists in post-mRNA modification
b) a protein that assists the binding of initiation factors
c) a protein that assists transport of polypeptide chains
d) a protein that assists the folding of other proteins
d
two flexures of the brain are:
cephalic flexure, cervical flexure
activation of death domains leads to activation of ________. this causes activation of caspases __, __ and __.
procaspase-8
3, 6, 7
p53 activates ___ and ___ of the BCL family. these proteins insert into the mitochondrial membrane to create pores that enables proteins to leak out into the cytoplasm to activate the ______ cascade.
Bax, Bak, caspase
which of these is NOT a stop codon?
a) UAA
b) UAC
c) UAG
d) UGA
b
during intrinsic apoptosis, Apaf-1 activates:
a) caspase-8
b) caspase-9
c) cytochrome C
d) Bax and Bak
b
true or false: rami are lateral branches of spinal nerves that are distal to the spinal canal. they can carry both sensory and motor fibres
true
which of the following regarding meningomyelocele is false?
a) spinal cord protrudes throguh an unfused portion of the spinal column
b) spinal cord is often tethered and clinical presentation is severe
c) occurs during 3rd week fo development
d) all of the above are true
d
which of the following is false regarding bilirubin?
a) conjugation occurs in the liver
b) conjugation makes bilirubin more fat-soluble
c) conjugated bilirubin is excreted from the liver in bile
d) excretion of bile with bilirubin is active and thus energy-dependent
b) more water-soluble
the mucosa has all of the GIT of these component layers:
a) epithelium, lamina propria, lymphoid nodules, muscularis mucosa
b) epithelium, submucosa, lymphoid nodules, muscularis mucosa
c) epithelium, submucosa, muscularis externa, serosa/adventitia
d) glands, lamina propria, lyphoid nodules, muscularis externa
a
how many heme groups does myoglobin have?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
a
a child was born stillborn and diagnosed with hydrops fetalis. what is this caused by?
a) anencephalopathy
b) mutations in all copies of HBB on chromosome 11
c) microcephaly
d) mutations in all copies of HBA1 and HBA2 on chromosome 16
d) mutations in all alpha globin genes that contribute to Hb production
increase in cell volume, loss of plasma membrane integrity and leakage of cellular contents is seen in:
necrosis
when should testing for diabetes begin for low risk individuals?
a) 35
b) 45
c) 55
d) not required unless they enter high risk
b
true or false: 2x vertebral arteries and 2x carotid arteries provide blood to the brain
true
label the type of diabetes for each definition:
a) beta-cell destruction due to autoimmune process usually leading to insulin deficiency
b) caused by mis-regulation of fluids. The condition is caused by a hormonal abnormality and isn’t related to beta cell damage. Typically due to pituitary gland or hypothalamus injury or tumour.
c) glucose intolerance with the onset or first recognition during pregnancy
d) a progressive insulin secretory defect against a background of insulin resistance
a) beta-cell destruction due to autoimmune process usually leading to insulin deficiency type I
b) caused by mis-regulation of fluids. The condition is caused by a hormonal abnormality and isn’t related to beta cell damage. Typically due to pituitary gland or hypothalamus injury or tumour. diabetes insipidus
c) glucose intolerance with the onset or first recognition during pregnancy gestational diabetes
d) a progressive insulin secretory defect against a background of insulin resistance type II
Kupffer cells are resident macrophages that are found in what part of the liver?
a) beneath the capsule
b) cords of hepatocytes
c) portal tract
d) sinusoids
d
alpha thalassemia causes excess beta chain production. What would you typically see elevated in an adult with alpha thalassemia?
a) HbF
b) HbA
c) HBb
d) HbH
d) HbH 4 beta chains
what causes the conversion of Hb from the R state back to the T state in tissue?
a) drop of partial pressure
b) binding of CO2
c) lowered pH
d) tissue affinity for oxygen
b) affinity for O2 decreases
what can cause levels of haemoglobin A1c to rise?
excessive blood glucose
true or false: meningocele involves protrusion of spinal cord through an unfused spinal column
false: the spinal cord doesnt herniate, its just fluid. herniation = myelomeningocele
skin epidermis and epithlium are derived from:
a) ectoderm
b) endoderm
c) mesoderm
a
which of these is not a result of ischemia?
a) increase in intracellular pH
b) decreased delivery of O2
c) anaerobic glycolysis
d) lactic acid accmulation
a) causes cellular acidosis
individuals with pernicious anaemia will have:
a) hypochromic microcytic cells
b) hyperchromic macrocytic cells
c) normochromic macrocytic cells
d) normochromic normocytic cells
c
Platelet pathway: common _____ progenitor –> megakaryocyte-erythrocyte progenitor –> __________ –> promegakaryocyte –> _______ –> platelet
myeloid, megakaryoblast, megakaryocyte
a fasting plasma glucose between 6.1-6.9mM indicates:
a) pre-diabetes
b) type II diabetes
c) gestational diabetes
d) hypertension
a
true or false: Without BPG, haemoglobin has a high affinity for oxygen and acts as an oxygen trap
true
bundles of neurons in the spinal cord are called:
a) funiculi
b) commissures
c) fascicles
d) nucleus
c
what is this? what process is it involved in?
short sequence of nucleotides which are synthesised discontinuously and later linked together by DNA ligase.
okazaki fragments in replication on the lagging strand
transcription factors have a ___ _____ domain and _______ domain. they can act as both repressors and activators
DNA binding, activation
at what translational site does amino acid binding occur?
a) E
b) P
c) A
c
which of the following is false regarding wet gangrene?
a) bacteria fail to survive
b) more common in bowel
c) no line of demarcation
d) appears moist, soft, swollen and dark
a) this is a feature of dry gangrene. numerous bacteria in wet gangrene
individuals with acute blood loss will have:
a) hypochromic microcytic cells
b) hyperchromic microcytic cells
c) normochromic macrocytic cells
d) normochromic normocytic cells
d
what is the Bohr effect?
a) binding of CO2 facilitates unloading of oxygen from Hb by reducing affinity of O2
b) low pH environments will alter Hb conformation, reducing affinity of O2
c) binding of 2,3-BPG causes a conformational change at the heme binding site of O2, increasing affinity of O2
d) binding of one O2 molecule to one heme group will cause conformational changes to the other heme groups, increasing O2 affinity
a
three transverse subdivisions of the midbrain are:
- cerebral peduncles
- midbrain tectum
- midbrain tegmentum
two products of ketogenesis are:
acetoacetate and beta-hydroxybutyrate
jaundice is the result of:
a) excess of bilirubin when the kidneys and colon are at maximum deconjugation rate
b) raised conjugated bilirubin levels that deposit in the skin and sclera
c) raised unconjugated bilirubin levels that deposit in the skin and sclera
d) raised bilirubin levels that negatively remove elastin-rich tissue
d
what attaches the cerebrum to the brainstem?
a) cerebral peduncles
b) midbrain tectum
c) midbrain tegmentum
d) cerebellum
a
goblet cells are found in the:
a) large intestines, stomach, duodenum
b) colon, ileum, appendix
c) jejunum, ileum and caecum
d) small intestines, appendix, colon
d
ketogenesis occurs in:
a) mitochondrial matrix
b) cytosol
c) liver
d) liver and skeletal muscle
c
ketogenesis occurs primarily in the liver due to whcih enzyme?
a) CoA-SH
b) HMG-CoA synthase
c) pyruvate dehydrogenase
d) pyruvate carboxylase
b
autophagy begins with the formation of large membrane-bound vesicles called _______ which sequester organelles such as mitochondria.
autophagosomes
true or false: HbF has a higher affinity for O2 than HbA, but a lower affinity for 2,3-BPG
true
successive O2 binding to Hb subunits increases affinity for O2 is:
cooperative binding
true or false: there is high partial pressure of O2 in the lungs and thus haemoglobin is in the T state. it has low affinity
true
a patient with microcytic RBCs are normal ferritin likely has:
a) iron deficiency
b) B12/folate deficiency
c) thalassemia
d) haemolysis
c
necrosis involves three major stages. list them in order and name them
- nuclei and condensed
- nuclei break up into fragments
- nuclei are dissolved
- nuclei and condensed - pyknosis
- nuclei break up into fragments - karyorrhexis
- nuclei are dissolved -karyolysis
what three regions make up the brainstem?
midbrain
pons
medulla oblongata
thalassemia is:
a) autosomal recessive
b) autosomal dominant
c) X-linked recessive
d) X-linked dominant
a
what are 4 substances that haemoglobin can bind to?
NO
CO
CO2
O2
what blood cell makes up the 2nd largest portion of white blood cells?
a) neutrophils
b) monocytes
c) NK cells
d) lymphocytes (B and C)
d
what two segments of the GIT tract have glands in the submucosa?
a) jejunum and ileum
b) stomach and duodenum
c) oesophagus and duodenum
d) oesophagus and colon
c
true or false: there are no visible changes of organelles during apoptosis
true
how many oxygen molecules can haemoglobin carry?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
d
how many alpha helices make up myoglobin?
8
true or false: the heme-iron centre is the active site of cytochrome P450 enzymes
true
C1-C7 spinal nerves leave the spinal canal through the intervertebral foramen:
a) immediately below corresponding vertebrae
b) above correspondig vertebrae
c) at level of correspondinig vertebrae
d) none of the above
n
what is responsible for the yellow colour of urine?
a) urobilin
b) stercobilin
c) biliverdin
d) unconjugated bilirubin
a
meningomyelocele is often referred to as:
open spina bifida
which of these is false regarding hypochromic microcytic anaemia?
a) pallor upon blood smear
b) indicates iron deficiency
c) MVC <75fL
d) indicates thalassemia
c) <80fL
urogenital structures derive from:
a) endoderm
b) paraxial mesoderm
c) intermediate mesoderm
d) lateral plate mesoderm
c
the epithalamus is also known as:
a) thalamus
b) pituitary gland
c) pineal body
d) basal ganglia
c
the nucleus breaking up into many small fragments scattered about the cytoplasm is:
a) karyolysis during necrosis
b) karyorrhexis during necrosis
c) pyknosis during necrosis
d) any of the above
b
how many globular chains does myoglobin have?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
a
true or false: both afferent and efferent visceral fibres can be sympathetic or parasympathetic
true
skeletal muscle can be distinuged from smooth muscle by:
a) absence of dense bodies on the surface of skeletal muscle
b) smooth muscle cells dont have striations
c) muscle muscles contract using teh same act in and myosin filaments, just in a different way
d) skeletal muscle fibre is composed of many cells whereas smooth muscle is made up of single cells
d
what are the three processes of mRNA post-transcriptional modification?
- capping of teh 5’ end
- polyadenylation tail added to 3’ end
- removal of introns via splicing
haemaglobin A is the most common form in humans. Whats its composition?
a) two alpha and two beta subunits
b) four alpha subunits
c) two alpha and two delta subunits
d) two alpha and two gamma subunits
a
2nd-5th lumbar nerves, 1st-5th sacral nerves and coccygeal nerves arise from:
a) conus medullaris
b) lumbar plexus
c) filum terminale
d) none of the above
a
which of the following is false regarding platelets?
a) contain a nucleus
b) contain fibrin
c) numerous cytoplasmic granules
d) derived from megakaryocytes
a) no nuelcus
Anion gap is a measurement of the difference between negatively charged and positively charged electrolytes in the serum. A normal anion gap is:
a) 3-12 mEq/L
b) 3-7mEq/L
c) 7-11mEq/L
d) 3-11mEq/L
d
which of these is false regarding the filum terminale?
a) modification of arachnoid mater
b) begins at S2
c) composed of delicate fibrous tissue
d) goes to coccyx
a) pia mater
what is responsible for the brown colour of faeces?
a) urobilin
b) stercobilin
c) biliverdin
d) unconjugated bilirubin
b
spinal dura mater ends at __ and then continues as an outer layer of _____ _____ to the coccyx
S2, filum terminale
phospholipase causes progressive loss of phospholipids in the cell membrane. what causes this?
a) decrease intracellular calcium
b) increase intracellular calcium
c) increase intracellular potassium
d) decrease intracelluar potassium
b
what is responsible for fine motor control and motor learning?
a) motor cortex
b) basal ganglia
c) corpus callosum
d) limbic system
b
axial skeleton and muscle is derived from?
a) surface ectoderm
b) paraxial mesoderm
c) intermediate mesoderm
d) lateral plate mesoderm
b
liquefactice necrosis is usually caused by:
a) neutrophil enzymes
b) coagulation of proteins
c) acute inflammatory response
d) excess release of lipase
a
true or false: necrosis induces host inflammatory response, whilst apoptosis doesnt
true
during bruising, what colour tint does haemoglobin give?
a) red
b) green
c) yellow
d) golden brown
a
list two major pathways of extrinsic apoptosis
TNF-alpha produced by activated macrophages
fatty acid synthase receptor initiation
true or false: ischemia leads to potassium accumulation as a lack of aerobic glycolysis fails to remove it intracellularly. this leads to phospholipase activation adn membrane damage
false: its calcium not potassium
how many genes encode the beta chain of hemoglobin?
a) 1 gene on chromosome 11
b) 1 gene on chromosome 16
c) 2 genes on chromosome 11
d) 2 genes on chromosome 16
a
Erythrocyte pathway: common _____ progenitor –> megakaryocyte-erythrocyte progenitor –> pronormoblast –> basophilic normoblast –> polychromatic normoblast –> orthochromic normoblast –> ________–> erythrocyte
myeloid, reticulocyte
if the mRNA contains the nucleotide sequence “AUC” what will the anticodon on the tRNA be?
UAG
liver cells store energy in what form?
a) glucose
b) chylomicrons
c) zymogen granules
d) glycogen granules
d
haemoglobin dissociation curve is:
a) sigmoidal
b) linear
c) exponential
d) sinusoidal
a
true or false: 2,3-BPG has a high affinity for haemoglobin in the tissue, when its in the R state
true
neural crest cells derivates can be remembered via GAMES. What does it stand for?
Ganglia
Adrenal medulla
Melanocytes
Enteric ganglia
Schwann cells
limb skeleton and muscular wall of the gut tube derive from:
a) endoderm
b) paraxial mesoderm
c) intermediate mesoderm
d) lateral plate mesoderm
d
Jen has a mutation on gene HBA1, chromosome 16 on an allele from her mothers side as well as an allele on her fathers side. What does this make Jen?
a) beta thalassemia minor
b) alpha thalassemia minor
c) carrier of beta thalassemia
d) carrier of alpha thalassemia
b
thalassemia is a condition affecting ________, which is composed of four protein chains: 2 _____ and 2 ____.
haemoglobin, alpha, beta
true or false: R-groups of amino acids on beta sheets are directed to both inside and outside of the sheet, whereas on alpha helices the R-groups are orientated outside of the helix
true
the _____ end of the neural tube forms three dilatations leading to ______, _____- and ______.
cranial, forebrain, midbrain, hindbrain
true or false: both haemoglobin and myoglobin participate in cooperative binding
false: myoglobin cant as it only has one heme group
during intrinsic apoptosis, cytochrome C binds to
a) caspase-8
b) caspase-9
c) p53
d) apoptosis activating factor 1 (Apaf-1)
d
what three features are required to diagnose DKA?
hyperglycaemia
high ketones in blood/urine
acidosis (arterial blood pH)
what causes the zig-zag shape of beta sheets?
a) adjacent peptide bonds have alternating negative forces, causing a zig-zag pattern
b) peptide bonds of adjacent residues point in opposite directions
c) layering of the sheets forces opposing forces to be in close contact, causing a zig-zag pattern
d) all of the above cause zig-zag shape
b
NK and dendritic cells come from:
a) common lymphoid progenitor
b) common myeloid progentior
c) pronormoblasts
d) basophilic meta myelocyte
a
list two scenarioes when autophagy is preferable over apoptosis
massive cell elimination is required
when phagocytes dont have easy access to dying cells
which of these is false regarding CO and Hb?
a) will eliminate sigmoidal response of Hb
b) allosteric effector
c) 250x greater affinity than O2
d) significantly reduces capacity of Hb to release O2
b) competitive binder
how does the body try to manage ketoacidosis?
bicarbonate buffering system
Jen has a mutation on gene HBA1, chromosome 16 on an allele from her mothers side. What does this make Jen?
a) beta thalassemia minor
b) alpha thalassemia minor
c) carrier of beta thalassemia
d) carrier of alpha thalassemia
d
spina bifida is due to:
a) neural tube lies in the normal position with a cyst formed by the protruding subarachnoid space
b) local regions of neural tube fail to fuse
c) failure of normal size development of the neural tube
d) failure of the cephalic end to close
b) also could be failure in formation of the vertebral neural arches
other than blood, lymph vessels, nerve fibres, and ganglia, the submucosa contains mostly:
a) epithelial cells
b) lymphoid tissue
c) smooth muscle
d) collagen
d
thrombin causes fibrinogen to form ______
fibrin
there are __ cranial nerves
31 pairs of spinal nerves:
cervical __
thoracic __
lumbar __
sacral __
coccygeal __
12 cranial
cervical 8
thoracic 12
lumbar 5
sacral 5
coccygeal 1
which of the following is false regarding alpha helix secondary structures:
a) can be single chain
b) hydrogen bonds form between N-H and C=O groups
c) R-group amino acids are orientated inside the helix
d) bonds are formed within the peptide chain
c) outside the helix
lining of the GIT and respiratory systems is derived from?
a) surface ectoderm
b) paraxial mesoderm
c) endoderm
d) lateral plate mesoderm
c
Ben has been diagnosed with beta thalassemia. He has no functional HBB mRNA or protein. He has:
a) beta thalassemia minor
b) beta thalassemia intermedia
c) beta thalassemia major
c
what is responsible for sodium loss seen in type I diabetes?
a) reduced bicarbonate level
b) DKA
c) excess potassium
d) osmotic diuresis
d
cell shrinkage, plasma membrane blebbing and formation of apoptotic bodies is seen in:
apoptosis
Ben has been diagnosed with beta thalassemia. He has one wild-type allele from his father, and a mutated allele from his mother. He likely has:
a) beta thalassemia minor
b) beta thalassemia intermedia
c) beta thalassemia major
a
which of these is false regarding neutrophils?
a) contains lilac granules involved in phagocytosis
b) polymorphonuclear
c) 1/2 the size of RBC
d) 50-60% of WBCs are neutrophils
c) 2x bigger than RBC
true or false: between L2 and S2 there is no spinal cord but the subarachnoid space still exists
true
Ben has been diagnosed with beta thalassemia. He has one mutated allele from his father, and a mutated allele from his mother. He likely has:
a) beta thalassemia minor
b) beta thalassemia intermedia
c) beta thalassemia major
b
trilaminar germ disc = _____ + ________
epiblast, hypoblast
what are the four caspases involved in apoptosis?
caspase 8
then caspases 3, 6, 7
how many genes encode the alpha chain of hemoglobin?
a) 1 gene on chromosome 11
b) 1 gene on chromosome 16
c) 2 genes on chromosome 11
d) 2 genes on chromosome 16
d
true or false: CO2 competes for the same binding site as O2 on Hb
false: different binding sites, but it does change affinity.
which of these is NOT a positive indicator of diabetes?
a) venous plasma glucose >11mM at least 2hrs postprandial
b) fasting venous plasma glucose >6mM
c) HbA1c level >6.5%
d) OGTT 2hr post-load >11mM
b) its => 7mM
true or false: myogloin has a higher affinity for oxygen than haemoglobin
true
the thalamus, hypothalamus and epithalamus develop from:
a) telencephalon
b) mesencephalon
c) rhobencephalon
d) diencephalon
d
which of these is NOT involved in transcription?
a) initiation complex
b) DNA pol II
c) transcription factors
d) regulatory proteins
b) RNA pol II
gangrene is a type of:
a) caseous necrosis
b) liquefactive necrosis
c) fatty necrosis
d) coagulative necrosis
d
extrinsic apoptosis pathway is activated by ______ _____ binding to the cell surface death receptors, leading to the formation of ____-______ ______ _____ known as “___”
extracellular ligands, death-inducing signalling complexes (DISC)
neural crest and tube give rise to what three major structures?
brain, spinal cord, peripheral nerves
nerve cell group inside the CNS is called ____ whereas nerve cell group outside the CNS is called ___
nucleus, ganglion
the outermost surface of the gastrointestinal tract is composed of:
a) adventitia
b) mesothelium
c) parietal layer
d) visceral layer
b
what lobe screens all sensory messages travelling to the cortex?
a) frontal
b) occipital
c) parietal
d) temporal
d) temporal - contains limbic system
true or false: the caudal end of the neural tube closes earlier than the cranial end
false
meningocele is due to:
a) neural tube lies in the normal position with a cyst formed by the protruding subarachnoid space
b) neural tube lying ectopically in the cystic space
c) failure of normal size development of the neural tube
d) failure of the cephalic end to close
a
a patient with normocytic RBCs and a normal reticulocyte count likely has:
a) iron deficiency
b) B12/folate deficiency
c) thalassemia
d) haemolysis
d
caspases are:
cystine aspartic acid proteases
what enables bile to move between the hepatocyte and blood?
a) albumin
b) organic anion transporter protein (OATP)
c) multidrug resistance protein 2 transporter (MRP2)
d) conjugation with glucoronic acid
b
leukocytes can be broken up into granular and agranular. state which of the following are granular and agranular:
a) lymphocyte
b) neutrophil
c) eosinophil
d) monocyte
e) basophil
a) lymphocyte - agranular
b) neutrophil - granular
c) eosinophil - granular
d) monocyte - agranular
e) basophil - granular
what are the three components of DNA?
nitrogenous base, phosphate group, sugar
cranial closure of the neural tube occurs around the ___ day after fertilization and caudal closure occurs around the ___ day.
23rd, 27th
the lower end of the spinal cord is called the ____ _____ and occurs near L1 and L2.
conus medullaris
erythropoietin is a _______ and cytokine produced in the ______. it is elevated in states of hyoxia and anaemia.
glycoprotein, kidneys
haemoglobin is a:
a) primary structure
b) secondary structure
c) tertiary structure
d) quaternary structure
d
true or false: ketoacidosis onset is typically hours to days
true
basophilic calcium deposits surrounded by inflammation indicates what type of necrosis?
a) caseous necrosis
b) liquefactive necrosis
c) fatty necrosis
d) gangrenous necrosis
c
alpha thalassemia is caused by mutations in the alpha globin genes. Which of the following statements is false?
a) each person has four alleles
b) chromsome 16 is affected
c) excess alpha chains are produced
d) encoded by two genes
c) its beta chains
which of these is false regarding necrosis:
a) unprogrammed cell death
b) typically from exogenous sources
c) affects single cells
d) due to irreversible cell injury
c) groups
when coagulation factors are present in the blood its called:
plasma
the substantia nigra nad dorsal striatum are features of:
basal ganglia
what is heme?
a complex of iron and protoporphyrin IX
a high anion gap indicates:
a) acidosis
b) high levels of sodium in the blood
c) hgih levels of potassium in the blood
d) all of the above
d
nucleus becomes smaller with chromatin clumping and condensation is:
a) karyolysis during necrosis
b) karyorrhxis during necrosis
c) pyknosis during necrosis
d) any of the above
c
overview of intrinsic apoptotic pathway: p53 activated –> upregulation of Bax and ___ (proapoptotic BCL proteins) –> _________ leaks out of mitochondria –> CytC binds to Apaf-1 –> Apaf-1 activates _______ –>Caspase-3, 6, 7
Bak, cytochrome C, caspase-9
remnant of notochord is:
intervertebral discs
the main role of myoglobin is:
store and diffuse oxygen for tissue to use
true or false: most mutations causing beta thalassemia occur in the promoter regions preceding the beta globin genes
true
true or false: each cerebral cortex has an outer layer of white matter and an inner layer of grey matter
false: outer layer = grey . inner layer = white (myelinated)
haemocrit (Hct) tells us:
a) how many red blood cells you have
b) proportion of volume that is red blood cells
c) amount of haemoglobin found in red blood cells
d) average weight of haemoglobin based on volume of red blood cells
b
when are the two peaks in paediatrics for type I diabetes?
a) 4-6yrs, 10-14yrs
b) 2-5yrs, 16-18yrs
c) 4-6yrs, 13-17yrs
d) 2-5yrs, 10-14yrs
a
in which region of the spinal cord is the cauda equina found?
conus medullaris
true or false: loss of plasma membrane integrity occurs in autophagy and necrosis
true
which of these is false regarding erythrocytes?
a) granular and anuclear
b) nucleus sheds before maturation
c) biconcave disc with central pallor
d) lifespan of 120 days
a) not granular
true or false: post-death clearance for necrosis, apoptosis and autophagy always involve phagocytosis of debris
false: only apoptosis. no phagocytosis for autophagy and cell lysis occurs for necrosis
autophagosomes fuse with a ______ and release the inner vesicle inside the ______. Enzymes breadkown the veiscle and the resulting macromolecule is recycled
lysosome, lysosome
lymphoid follicles are distinguishing features of which two segments of the GIT?
a) appendix and ileum
b) stomach and colon
c) jejunum and ileum
d) duodenum and appendix
a
when haemoglobin is in the __ state, it is ready to release O2. when haemoglobin is in the __ state, it is ready to accept O2.
R, T
R = release oxygen
T = take oxygen
true or false: the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin via thrombin is part of primary haemostasis
false: secondary
what enables bile to move between the hepatocyte and bile duct?
a) albumin
b) organic anion transporter protein (OATP)
c) multidrug resistance protein 2 transporter (MRP2)
d) conjugation with glucoronic acid
c
best place on the spine to collect spinal fluid is:
a) S1-S2
b) L1-L2
c) C5-C7
d) L3-L4
d
a lumbar puncture collects CSF fluid for testing. what region is the fluid found in?
a) subdural space
b) subarachnoid space
c) epidural space
d) any of the above
b
what is the role of each site during translation?
a) E
b) P
c) A
a) E - exit site: holds the tRNA without amino acid
b) P - peptidyl site: holds the tRNA with the growing peptide chain
c) A - aminoacyl site: binds the incoming tRNA with the complementary codon on the mRNA
which of these is false regarding Kussmal respiration?
a) seen in both severe metabolic acidosis and ketoacidosis
b) attempt to increase blood pH via CO2 increase
c) breathing can be gasping and deep
d) characterised by rapid breathing
d) deep, laboured and gasping
excess protein is excreted via:
a) conjugation
b) krebs cycle
c) glucose-alanine cycle
d) cori cycle
c
mean cell volume (MVC) tells us:
a) how many red blood cells you have and size
b) proportion of volume that is red blood cells
c) amount of haemoglobin found in red blood cells
d) average weight of haemoglobin based on volume of red blood cells
a
true or false: TNF-alpha production by activated macrophages is part of the intrinsic apoptosis pathway
false: extrinsic
where does initiation occur during translation?
a) P site
b) E site
c) A site
d) any of the above
P
tubular glands are found in what mucosal segments of the GIT?
a) stomach, jejunum, colon
b) stomach, small intestines, colon
c) duodenum, stomach, oesophagus
d) oesophagus, stomach, small intestines
b
what do the orange-staining granules of eosinophils contain?
histamine
what is the ratio of mucosa to muscularis externa in the small intestines?
a) 50:50
b) 70:30
c) 40:60
d) 30:70
b
which is false regarding the corpus callosum?
a) largest commissure in the body
b) connects two cerebral hemispheres
c) formed by grey matter
d) lies beneath the cerebral cortex
c) white matter
to initiate translation, a _____ ribosomal complex carrying UAC and ________ (start codon) will start at the 5’ cap and search for AUG (start codon on mRNA). It will bind here at the __ site and the ____ ribosomal will join to form the initiation complex.
small, methionine, P, large
individuals with thalassemia will have:
a) hypochromic microcytic cells
b) hyperchromic microcytic cells
c) normochromic macrocytic cells
d) normochromic normocytic cells
a
why does HbF has a lower affinity for 2,3-BPG than HbA?
a) due to lower partial pressure of O2 in the womb
b) no competition with HbA in the womb
c) results in ‘holding on’ to oxygen for longer
d) due to lack of functional lungs inside the womb
c
anencephaly is due to:
a) failure of the cervical end to close
b) neural tube lying ectopically in the cystic space
c) failure of normal size development of the neural tube
d) failure of the cephalic end to close
d
what lobe interprets and integrates sensations?
a) frontal
b) occipital
c) parietal
d) temporal
c
failure in fusing of the neural tube in local regions or failure in vertebral neural arch formation leads to:
a) anencephaly
b) spina bifida
c) microcephaly
d) B and C
b
which of the following will cause release of oxygen in the tissue from haemoglobin?
a) high 2,3-BPG
b) high O2
c) low pH
d) all of the above
d
unconjugated bilirubin is pre-hepatic/post-hepatic and conjugated bilirubin is pre-hepatic/post-hepatic
pre-hepatic, post-hepatic
true or false: Low/absent insulin levels + inappropriately high glucagon induce the liver to produce glucose at a drastically increased rate, causing acetyl-CoA resulting from beta-oxidation of fatty acids to be converted to ketone bodies.
true
which of the following is false regarding the glucose-alanine cycle?
a) glutamate (from protein) + pyruvate = alanine
b) process occurs in the liver
c) reversible reaction
d) urea is the by-product
b) alanine reaction doesnt occur in the liver
during transcription, ______ proteins bind to ______ regions that are necessary for making the initiation complex. this recruits ____ ______ II to the initiation complex, where transcription begins.
regulatory, promoter, RNA polymerase II
true or false: roots lie medial to spinal nerves and are strictly sensory or motor
true
what kind of side chains on amino acids can oxygen bind to?
transition metals such as copper and iron
true or false: macrophages have an irregular shape and irregular nucleus
true
true or false: extrinsic apoptotic pathway is initiated by activation of caspase 9, whilst intrinsic apoptotic pathway is initiated by activation of caspase 8
false:
extrinsic = caspase 8
intrinsic = caspase 9
true or false: alpha thalassemia typically has point mutations whilst beta thalassemia typically has deletion mutations
false; other way around
true or false: people with beta thalassemia major have no functional beta chains and thus have excess Haemoglobin A production
false: cant make haemoglobin A without beta chains
autophagy is a type of:
apoptosis
true or false: conjugated bilirubin is reabsorbed via enterohepatic circulation at the terminal ileum
true
what is the final layer that the needle must pass through to perform an epidural?
a) interspinous ligament
b) supraspinous ligament
c) ligamentum flavum
d) dura mater
c
true or false: myelin gives white matter its white appearance
true
what is the benefit of blebbing regarding necrosis & apoptosis?
a) activately promotes phagocytosis via adhesive glycoproteins during necrosis
b) enables a strong inflammatory response to clear the debris quicky
c) activately promotes phagocytosis via adhesive glycoproteins during apoptosis
d) all of the above are correct
c
what is responsible for dehydration seen in type I diabetes?
a) reduced bicarbonate level
b) DKA
c) excess potassium
d) osmotic diuresis
d
goblet cellspredominate in what mucosal segment of the GIT?
a) jejunum
b) ileum
c) colon
d) appendix
c
death-inducing signalling complexes activate:
a) caspase-8
b) caspase-9
c) cytochrome C
d) apoptosis activating factor 1 (Apaf-1)
a
mean corpuscular haemoglobin (MCH) tells us:
a) how many red blood cells you have
b) proportion of volume that is red blood cells
c) amount of haemoglobin found in red blood cells
d) average weight of haemoglobin based on volume of red blood cells
c
what stabilises platelet plugs?
fibrin deposits
what is secondary haemostasis?
a) formation of a platelet plug
b) formation of insoluble fibrin via coagulation casade
c) injury at a site outside of a blood vessel requiring infiltration to form a platelet plug
d) all of the above
b
which of these is not a feature of hyperglycaemic hyperosmolar syndrome?
a) high serum and urinary ketones
b) severe dehydration
c) gradual onset
d) serum pH >7.4
a) no ketone production because of the small amounts of insulin produced
how is bilirubin transported to the liver?
a) via erythrocytes
b) chylomicrons
c) facilitated diffusion via albumin
d) via portal system
c
true or false: somatic and visceral afferent fibres are voluntary and involuntary respectively
false: sensory doesnt have voluntary/involuntary function
dermis of skin is derived from?
a) surface ectoderm
b) paraxial mesoderm
c) intermediate mesoderm
d) lateral plate mesoderm
b
cytochrome P450 enzymes are:
a) sulfonic-thiolate enzymes
b) hemosiderin-thiolate enzymes
c) haem-thiolate enzymes
d) none of the above
c
what are the three orientations of beta sheets
anti-parallel
parallel
mixed
the trilaminar germ disc is formed by the epiblast and hypoblast. which of these statements is false?
a) epiblasts will undergo epithelial-mesenchymal transition to replace hypoblast
b) middle layer proliferates to form mesoderm
c) disc is present from weeks 2-8
d) all of the above is true
d
what is the most dangerous complication of DKA?
cerebral oedema
DNA primase is a DNA-dependent RNA polymerase. What process is it involved in?
a) replication
b) transcription
c) translation
d) protein formation
a
what typically preceeds DKA?
a) kussmaul breathing
b) osmotic diuresis
c) hyperglycaemic hyperosmolar state
d) polyuria
c
true or false: Hb has a higher affinity for CO and CO2 than O2. Binding of CO2 and CO will reduce affinity of O2, causing Hb to release O2 bound.
false: this is only true of CO2 - Bohr effect
what is the main goal of autophagy?
obtain nutrients for survival during times of cell stress
monocytes make up what percent of white blood cells?
a) 0-2%
b) 2-4%
c) 4%
d) 7%
c
an arterial pH of <7 indicates:
a) severe DKA
b) moderate DKA
c) mild DKA
a
mast cells come from:
a) common lyphoid progenitor
b) common myeloid progentior
c) pronormoblasts
d) basophilic meta myelocyte
b
overview of ketogenesis: 2x acetyl-CoA –> __________. this can be reduced to form ___________ and the ketone group is converted to an alcohol
acetoacetate, beta-hyoxybutyrate
what three structures are derived from the hindbrain?
pons, medulla oblongata, cerebellum
which of these is false regarding translation initiation?
a) methionine is the first start codon and sits on the P site of the small ribosomal subunit
b) the small ribosomal subunit will bind to the 5’ cap
c) the large ribosomal subunit is joined by the small subunit after recognition of start codon AUG
d) all are true
c) small is there before large
what stimulates the bone marrow to produce granulocytes and stem cells to release in the blood stream?
a) erythropoietin (EPO)
b) granulocyte colony stimulating factor (GCSF)
c) interleukins
d) thrombopoietin
b
the result of the coagulation cascade is:
conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
the cerebrum develops from:
a) telencephalon
b) mesencephalon
c) rhobencephalon
d) diencephalon
a
what are the two genes on chromsome 16 that affect the alpha globin chains? How many alleles does a person have?
HBA1, HBA2 –> 2 alleles from mum + 2 from dad = 4 alleles
eosinophils make up what perfect of white bood cells?
a) 0-2%
b) 0-4%
c) 4-10%
d) 10-16%
b
chromatin condensation occurs in (multiple answers):
a) apoptosis
b) necrosis
c) autophagy
d) none of the above
A and B
true or false: hypoxic cells within the CNS often manifests as liquefactive necrosis likely to be due to abundant lysosomal enzymes in the lipid-rich CNS.
true
spinal nerve C8 passes:
a) immediately below C7
b) immediately above C7
c) immediately above T1
d) immediately below T1
b
which of these does not derive from the common myeloid progenitor line?
a) dendritic cells
b) basophils
c) monocytes
d) erythrocytes
a
the hindbrain can be divided into the metaencephalon and myelencephalon. what structures develop from each region?
- Metencephalon: pons + cerebellum
- Myelencephalon: medulla
what level does the spinal cord terminate in adults and children?
adults L1
children L2
true or false: initiation complex is required for replication
false: transcription
bilirubin is conjugated in the liver to ________ ____ where it becomes more water-soluble
glucoronic acid
where do activators bind during transcription?
promoter region or enhancer region
what relays motor and sensory signals to the cerebral cortex and cerebellum
a) hypothalamus
b) thalamus
c) insula
d) corpus callosum
b
true or false: there are only ventral ganglions, no dorsal ganglions
false: only dorsal
fatty acid oxidation occurs in:
a) mitochondrial matrix
b) cytosol
c) liver
d) liver and skeletal muscle
a
during bruising, what colour tint does haemosiderin give?
a) red
b) green
c) yellow
d) golden brown
d
the supportive structure in red bone marrow is:
a) fibrin
b) adipocytes
c) collagen
d) reticulin
d
excess hemolysis causes pre-hepatic/post-hepatic jaundice
pre-hepatic
a baby is born with a hairy patch on his lower back. what could this be a sign of?
spina bifida occulta
true or false: both alpha helices and beta sheets form hydrogen bonds between N-H and C=O groups
true
the inner oblique muscle layer of muscularis externa is a feature of?
a) appendix
b) duodenum
c) oesophagus
d) stomach
d
what translational site holds the growing peptide chain?
a) E
b) P
c) A
b
what is the ratio of mucosa to muscularis externa in the colon?
a) 50:50
b) 20:80
c) 40:60
d) 60:40
a
necrotic cells often appear anuclear due to which three processes?
karyolysis
pyknosis
karyorrhexis
during bruising, what colour tint does bilirubin give?
a) red
b) green
c) yellow
d) golden brown
c
what is the start codon?
methionine AUG
melanocytes are derived from:
a) ectoderm
b) endoderm
c) mesoderm
a
true or false: the pons is part of the hindbrain
true
true or false: 2,3-BPG enhances the ability of RBCs to release oxygen near tissues that need it most
true
heme is converted to _____ by heme oxygenase. Carbon monoxide is produced and acts as a vasodilate. ferrous iron is recycled
biliverdin
myoglobin is a:
a) primary structure
b) secondary structure
c) tertiary structure
d) quaternary structure
c
coarsely granular, eosinophilic debris with a macroscopic cheese-like appearance is often:
a) caseous necrosis
b) liquefactive necrosis
c) fatty necrosis
d) gangrenous necrosis
a
two major parts that ectoderm forms?
surface ectoderm
neural ectoderm
when coagulation factors are absent or dormant, blood is called:
serum
glutamate is transffered to the liver from peripheral tissuue via:
a) pyruvate dehydrogenase
b) aminotransferase
c) transaminase
d) glutamine synthetase
d
three stages of transcription are
initiation
elongation
termination
cholestasis is
reduced or obstructed bile flow
each globular protein subunit of haemoglobin contains _______ chain + ___________ _____ group
protein, non-protein haem
which of the following is false regarding 2,3-BPG?
a) competitive agonist for Hb
b) binds with great affinity for deoxygenated Hb beta subunits
c) decreases the affinity of O2
d) encourages release of remaining O2 molecules bound to Hb
a) is an allosteric effector
folding of the neural plate is inducted by the notochord going into the neural tube. the result is the neuroectoderm which forms the CNS and spinal cord. This process is called:
neurulation
the majority of white blood cells are:
a) basophils
b) lymphocytes
c) neutrophils
d) monocytes
c
during intrinsic apoptosis, which protein leaks out of the mitochondria to bind to Apaf-1 (apoptosis activating factor 1)?
a) Bak
b) Bax
c) cytochrome C
d) p53
c
true or false: the complement system is always involved in both apoptosis and necrosis
false: only apoptosis
nucleus showing progressive loss of chromatin is:
a) karyolysis during necrosis
b) karyorrhexis during necrosis
c) pyknosis during necrosis
d) any of the above
a
normal blood pH is between:
a) 7-7.35
b) 7.1-7.45
c) 7.35-7.45
d) 7.3-7.5
c
where does RNA pol II bind to start transcription?
promoter region/initiation complex
a patient presents to the ER with signs of anaemia. upon blood smear examination, you note the patient’s RBCs are normochromic and macrocytic. this indicates:
a) alpha thalassemia
b) beta thalassemia
c) folate or B12 deficiency
d) acute blood loss
c
what stimulates production and differentiation of megakaryocytes in the bone marrow?
a) erythropoietin (EPO)
b) granulocyte colony stimulating factor (GCSF)
c) interleukins
d) thrombopoietin
d
true or false: alpha helix secondary protein structure cannot be a single chain and typically appears in groups of 3
false: can be a single chain
Neutrophil pathway: common ______ progenitor –> granulocyte-monocyte progenitor –> _______ –> promyelocyte –> myelocyte –> metamyelocyte –> ______ –> neutrophil
myeloid, myeloblast, band cell
true or false: ketoacidosis is common in type II diabetes
false: type I
mean corpuscular haemoglobin count (MCHC) tells us:
a) how many red blood cells you have
b) proportion of volume that is red blood cells
c) amount of haemoglobin found in red blood cells
d) average weight of haemoglobin based on volume of red blood cells
d
thrombopoietin is produced in the _____ and _____ and regulates production of ________.
liver, kidney, platelets
basal ganglia develop from the:
a) telencephalon
b) mesencephalon
c) rhobencephalon
d) diencephalon
a
what can be used as a marker for myocardial damage?
a) haemoglobin
b) myoglobin
c) bilirubin
d) blood pH
b
list 5 comorbidities of diabeties
- retinopathy
- neuropathy
- hypertension
- nephropathy
- atherosclerosis
- peripheral arterial disease
- diabetic ulcers
true or false: hyperglycaemic hyperosmolar state (HHS) is a complication in which hyperglycaemia results in high osmolarity with significant ketoacidosis.
false: without significant acidosis
true or false: both replication and transcription require helicase and a primer
false: transcription doesn’t need either of them
what is the rate-limiting factor regarding EPO and RBC production?
a) oxygen availability
b) iron availability
c) bone marrow stores of committed RBC
d) heme availability
b
necrosis is a microscopic term to describe dead cells. what is the macroscopic equivalent?
infarction
what are the three pathways of the coagulation cascade?
- intrinsic
- extrinsic
- common
where do suppresors bind during transcription?
promoter region or silencer region
list whether the following structures derive from forebrain, midbrain, or hindbrain:
a) cerebral cortex
b) pons
c) basal ganglia
d) medulla oblongata
e) epithalamus
f) midbrain of brain stem
a) cerebral cortex - forebrain
b) pons - hindbrain
c) basal ganglia - forebrain
d) medulla oblongata - hindbrain
e) epithalamus - forebrain
f) midbrain of brain stem - midbrain
which of these is false regarding coagulative necrosis?
a) resembles coaguation of proteins upon heating
b) manifestation of ischemia
c) has a firm texture
d) can be seen in all organs
d) all organs except the brain
pancreas, liver and bladder derive from:
a) endoderm
b) paraxial mesoderm
c) intermediate mesoderm
d) lateral plate mesoderm
a
all blood cells come from common _____ or _____ progenitor cells
lymphoid, myeloid
- death of single cells by a genetically determined process of cell destruction is
apoptosis
granulomas consisting of epithelioid macrophages and giant cells are typically seen in:
a) caseous necrosis
b) liquefactive necrosis
c) fatty necrosis
d) gangrenous necrosis
a
true or false: when haemoglobin is not carrying oxygen, it is in a T state and has a low O2 binding affinity and is ready to accept O2.
true
what is the most important gene regarding apoptosis?
p53
Ben has been diagnosed with beta thalassemia intermedia. What would Ben have low levels of compared to a non-mutated individual?
a) haemoglobin B
b) haemoglobin H
c) foetal haemoglobin
d) haemoglobin A
d) no HbA produced
reticulocyte count indicates:
a) how many red blood cells you have
b) proportion of volume that is red blood cells
c) amount of haemoglobin found in red blood cells
d) amount of immature red blood cells present
d
when blood pH <7, the bicarbonate buffer system will:
a) shift to the left and increase CO2
b) shift to the left and decrease CO2
c) shift to the right and increase CO2
d) shift to the right and decrease CO2
a
true or false: epidural punctures are deeper than lumbar punctures
false
true or false: during the final stages of both necrosis and apoptosis, organelles are no longer functional
false: apoptosis can still have functioning organelles within the blebs
why does type I diabetes cause diabetic ketoacidosis?
a) increased glucagon levels
b) increased hyperlipidemia
c) increased ketone production
d) all of the above
c
true or false: hyperglycaemic hyperosmolar state onset is typically hours to days
false: days to weeks
signals that pass via neurotransmitters and may elicit an electronic response or secondary messenger pathway are:
chemical synapses
primitive streak grows _____ to _____
caudal to cranial
what induces notochord formation?
a) neurulation
b) primitive streak
c) trilaminar germ disc
d) neural crest
b
a OGTT (2hrs post-load) reading of 7.8-11mM indicates:
a) pre-diabetes
b) type II diabetes
c) gestational diabetes
d) hypertension
a
true or false: neutrophils have a segmented nucleus with 2-3 lobes
false: this is eosinophils
the limbic system is found deep in what lobe?
a) frontal
b) occipital
c) parietal
d) temporal
d
true or false: beta sheets cannot exist as a single beta strand and typically exist in groups of 3
true
membrane blebbing is a feature of _____. it is regulated by _____
apoptosis, ROCK1
HbA = alpha2 beta2 and makes up ___% of Hb
HbA2 = alpha2____2 and makes up 2.5% of Hb
___ = alpha2gamma2 and makes up 0.5% of Hb
97%
delta
HbF (foetal)
three main proteins in blood are:
albumin
globulin
fibrinogen
hypersegmentation of RBCs and WBCs is indicative of:
a) B12/folate deficiency
b) iron deficiency
c) marrow hypoplasia
d) haemolysis
a) Maturing out of sync with each other = B12 folate deficiency
which of these is false regarding replication?
a) uses DNA primsae to create an RNA primer
b) semi-conservative process
c) bidirectional
d) one replication site
d) many
cooperative binding occurs due to:
a) iron atom moving toward the centre of the plane due to O2 binding
b) conformatinoal changes of other heme sites
c) increased O2 affinity
d) all of the above
d
what stimulates survival, proliferation, differentiation and function of neutrophil precursors and mature neutrophils?
a) erythropoietin (EPO)
b) granulocyte colony stimulating factor (GCSF)
c) interleukins
d) thrombopoietin
b
individuals with an iron deficiency will have:
a) hypochromic microcytic cells
b) hyperchromic microcytic cells
c) normochromic macrocytic cells
d) normochromic normocytic cells
a
true or false regarding haemoglobin: when oxygen is bound, it whas a high O2 affinity and is ready to release oxygen. When oxygen is not bound, it has a low O2 affinity and is ready to accept oxygen
true
why is hyperglcaemic hyperosmolar state more common in type II diabetics?
small amounts of insulin prevent full on ketoacidosis
a patient with microcytic RBCs are low ferritin likely has:
a) iron deficiency
b) B12/folate deficiency
c) thalassemia
d) haemolysis
a
During _______, mRNA is converted to a polypeptide change in the ____, on ribosomes. Translation RNA (tRNA) converts the messenger RNA by adding ____ _____. 3 Nucleotide sequence equals 1 _____.
translation, cytosol, amino acids, codon
intestinal bacteria deconjugate bilirubin to _______. This occurs in the ____ via oxidation
urobilinogen, colon
true or false: brain glucose uptake is independent of insulin
true
which of the following statements regarding osmotic diuresis is false?
a) increase in osmotic pressure causes retention of water within the lumen
b) excess glucose is responsible for the shift of free water from intracellular space to intracellular space
c) there is decreased urine output
d) there is increased osmolality
c) increased
EPO targets committed erythroid progenitor cells that have EPO receptors. downregulation of EPO will result in:
a) decreased oxygen delivery around the body
b) increased RBC production and maturation
c) decreased RBC production and maturation
d) increase/unregulated apoptosis of RBC precursors
c
what is primary haemostasis?
a) formation of a platelet plug
b) activation of coagulation casade
c) formation of fibrin
d) all of the above
a
which of these will NOT reduce affinity of Hb to oxygen and encourage the oxygen to be released?
a) binding of CO2
b) increased 2,3-BPG
c) high pH
d) binding of CO
c) low pH
The neural plate folds into a tube and the cranial and caudal ends remain open initially and close later on. Failure to close leads to _______ and _______
encephalocele and meningocele.
which of the following is true regarding haemoglobin’s structure?
a) consists of 2 alpha helices and 2 beta sheets
b) consists of 4 beta sheets
c) consists of 4 alpha helices
d) none of the above
c
obstructed bile duct causes pre-hepatic/post-hepatic jaundice
post-hepatic
intrinsic apoptotic pathway is also known as the ________ pathway and is activated by intracellular signals generating during cell stress. ___ is the main activator
mitochondrial, p53
true or false: aceto-acetate and beta-hydroxybutyrate can be converted back to acetyl-CoA in most organs
true
list the purines and pyrimidines
purines: adenine, guanine
pyrimidines: cytosine, thymine, uracil
lacteals that transport products of digestion are:
a) lymphatic vessels found in the villi of the small intestine
b) epithelial cells of the brunner glands
c) crypts of the small intestines
d) large veins of the small intestines
a
if a patient is acidotic and has a normal anion gap, this indicates:
a) diabetic ketoacidosis
b) lactic acidosis
c) bicarbonate loss
d) respiratory acidosis
c
true or false: pyknosis, karyorrhexis and karyolysis are common to both necrosis and apoptosis
true
how are polypeptide chains formed?
a) hydration reaction between carboxyl group and amine group
b) hydration reaction between two amine groups
c) dehydration reaction between two amine groups
d) dehydration reaction between carboxyl group and amine group
d
true or false: mutations on chromosome 16 will cause thalassemia that affects _____ chains. This will cause excess of ____ chains. These mutations are typically of a deletion nature
alpha, beta
the primitive streak appears superiorly from a thickened region of:
a) mesoderm
b) epiblast
c) ectoderm
d) endoderm
c
which of these is NOT involved in replication?
a) RNA pol II
b) DNA primase
c) DNA pol alpha
d) DNA poly delta
a) can’t be RNA if its going from DNA to DNA
a patient presents to the ER with signs of anaemia. upon blood smear examination, you note the patient’s RBCs are normochromic and normocytic. this indicates:
a) alpha thalassemia
b) beta thalassemia
c) folate or B12 deficiency
d) acute blood loss
d
nucleotides on DNA are connected by:
a) ionic bonds
b) covalent bonds
c) hydrogen bonds
d) phosphodiester bonds
d
how much glucose is given in the oral glucose tolerance test?
75g
which process(es) are ATP-dependent?
a) apoptosis
b) necrosis
c) autophagy
d) none of the above
apoptosis A
red blood cells are broken down into heme in:
a) spleen
b) pancreas
c) liver
d) kidneys
a
irreversible cell injury is called
necrosis
neural tube forms ____ and _____
brain, spinal cord
brunner glands identify what segment of the GIT?
a) ileum
b) duodenum
c) oesophagus
d) appendix
b
true or false: myoglobin is found in all muscle types
false: only skeletal and cardiac
biliverdin is converted to bilirubin via:
biliverdin reductase
the forebrain (prosencephalon) is divided into two regions. they are:
- telencephalon
2, diencephalon
ketone bodies have:
a) high pKa and are very basic
b) low pKa and are very acidic
c) low pKa and are very basic
d) high pKa and are very acidic
b
axons conduct impulses ___ the soma of the neuron via the ___ _____. Dendrites conduct impulses ____ the soma via the _______ ____
away, axon hillock
to, dendritic spine
true or false: when oxygen is bound to haemoglobin, it is in a R state and has a high O2 affinity and is ready to release O2.
true
meningomyeocele is due to:
a) failure of the cervical end to close
b) neural tube lying ectopically in the cystic space
c) failure of normal size development of the neural tube
d) failure of the cephalic end to close
b
a patient with macrocytic RBCs likely has:
a) iron deficiency
b) B12/folate deficiency
c) thalassemia
d) haemolysis
b
list 4 features that describe the benefit of blebbing during apoptosis
- activately promotes phagocytosis
- secretes soluble factors that recruit phagocytes
- adhesive sticky glycoprotein that is recognised by phaogcytes
- coated with natural antibodies and proteins of the complement system
what orientation is the parent strand and leading strand during replication?
parent strand 3’–>5’ and thus leading strand is synthesised 5’–>3’
which of the following is false regarding haemoglobin T state?
a) carrying oxygen
b) low O2 binding affinity
c) favoured by low pH and high O2
d) want to release oxygen at level of tissue
a) its not carrying oxygen
osmotic diuresis is a result of increased osmolality. excess glucose increases osmotic pressure causing water retention in the lumen. what does it drag with it?
a) calcium and potassium
b) chloride and sodium
c) sodium and chloride
d) sodium and potassium
d
which of these is a feature of necrosis?
a) plasma membrane blebbing
b) increase in cell volume
c) formation of apoptotic bodies
d) all of the above are features
b
which statement is true regarding haemoglobin in the lungs?
a) low affinity for oxygen in the T stated causes binding of oxygen to heme
b) high affinity for oxygen in the R stated causes binding of oxygen to heme
c) high partial pressure of O2 is what causes binding of oxygen to heme
d) high affinity for oxygen in the T stated causes binding of oxygen to heme
c) its in T state and has low affinity for oxygen
