BSC + CCS: WK11-12 Flashcards
during bruising, what colour tint does biliverdin give?
a) red
b) green
c) yellow
d) golden brown
b
microcephaly is due to:
a) failure of the cervical end to close
b) neural tube lying ectopically in the cystic space
c) failure of normal size development of the neural tube
d) failure of the cephalic end to close
c
what makes CSF? Where is CSF stored?
choroid plexus, ventricles
in deoxygenated blood, Hb is in the __ state. in oxygenated blood Hb is in the __ state.
T, R
true or false: replication and transcription occur in the nucleus and translation occurs in the cytoplasm
true
low pH, high concentrations of 2,3-BPG, and binding of CO2 and CO all encourage release of oxygen from Hb.
Does this favour the T state or the R state?
Is the oxygen dissociation curve shifted to the left or right?
favours the T state, shifted right
R state is when holding onto oxygen - oxyHb
T state is when its released the oxygen - deoxyHb
fatty acid synthesis involves malonyl-CoA to eventually form
a) oxaloacetate
b) acetyl-CoA
c) pyruvate
d) palmitic acid
d
what is a chaperone?
a) a protein that assists in post-mRNA modification
b) a protein that assists the binding of initiation factors
c) a protein that assists transport of polypeptide chains
d) a protein that assists the folding of other proteins
d
two flexures of the brain are:
cephalic flexure, cervical flexure
activation of death domains leads to activation of ________. this causes activation of caspases __, __ and __.
procaspase-8
3, 6, 7
p53 activates ___ and ___ of the BCL family. these proteins insert into the mitochondrial membrane to create pores that enables proteins to leak out into the cytoplasm to activate the ______ cascade.
Bax, Bak, caspase
which of these is NOT a stop codon?
a) UAA
b) UAC
c) UAG
d) UGA
b
during intrinsic apoptosis, Apaf-1 activates:
a) caspase-8
b) caspase-9
c) cytochrome C
d) Bax and Bak
b
true or false: rami are lateral branches of spinal nerves that are distal to the spinal canal. they can carry both sensory and motor fibres
true
which of the following regarding meningomyelocele is false?
a) spinal cord protrudes throguh an unfused portion of the spinal column
b) spinal cord is often tethered and clinical presentation is severe
c) occurs during 3rd week fo development
d) all of the above are true
d
which of the following is false regarding bilirubin?
a) conjugation occurs in the liver
b) conjugation makes bilirubin more fat-soluble
c) conjugated bilirubin is excreted from the liver in bile
d) excretion of bile with bilirubin is active and thus energy-dependent
b) more water-soluble
the mucosa has all of the GIT of these component layers:
a) epithelium, lamina propria, lymphoid nodules, muscularis mucosa
b) epithelium, submucosa, lymphoid nodules, muscularis mucosa
c) epithelium, submucosa, muscularis externa, serosa/adventitia
d) glands, lamina propria, lyphoid nodules, muscularis externa
a
how many heme groups does myoglobin have?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
a
a child was born stillborn and diagnosed with hydrops fetalis. what is this caused by?
a) anencephalopathy
b) mutations in all copies of HBB on chromosome 11
c) microcephaly
d) mutations in all copies of HBA1 and HBA2 on chromosome 16
d) mutations in all alpha globin genes that contribute to Hb production
increase in cell volume, loss of plasma membrane integrity and leakage of cellular contents is seen in:
necrosis
when should testing for diabetes begin for low risk individuals?
a) 35
b) 45
c) 55
d) not required unless they enter high risk
b
true or false: 2x vertebral arteries and 2x carotid arteries provide blood to the brain
true
label the type of diabetes for each definition:
a) beta-cell destruction due to autoimmune process usually leading to insulin deficiency
b) caused by mis-regulation of fluids. The condition is caused by a hormonal abnormality and isn’t related to beta cell damage. Typically due to pituitary gland or hypothalamus injury or tumour.
c) glucose intolerance with the onset or first recognition during pregnancy
d) a progressive insulin secretory defect against a background of insulin resistance
a) beta-cell destruction due to autoimmune process usually leading to insulin deficiency type I
b) caused by mis-regulation of fluids. The condition is caused by a hormonal abnormality and isn’t related to beta cell damage. Typically due to pituitary gland or hypothalamus injury or tumour. diabetes insipidus
c) glucose intolerance with the onset or first recognition during pregnancy gestational diabetes
d) a progressive insulin secretory defect against a background of insulin resistance type II
Kupffer cells are resident macrophages that are found in what part of the liver?
a) beneath the capsule
b) cords of hepatocytes
c) portal tract
d) sinusoids
d
alpha thalassemia causes excess beta chain production. What would you typically see elevated in an adult with alpha thalassemia?
a) HbF
b) HbA
c) HBb
d) HbH
d) HbH 4 beta chains
what causes the conversion of Hb from the R state back to the T state in tissue?
a) drop of partial pressure
b) binding of CO2
c) lowered pH
d) tissue affinity for oxygen
b) affinity for O2 decreases
what can cause levels of haemoglobin A1c to rise?
excessive blood glucose
true or false: meningocele involves protrusion of spinal cord through an unfused spinal column
false: the spinal cord doesnt herniate, its just fluid. herniation = myelomeningocele
skin epidermis and epithlium are derived from:
a) ectoderm
b) endoderm
c) mesoderm
a
which of these is not a result of ischemia?
a) increase in intracellular pH
b) decreased delivery of O2
c) anaerobic glycolysis
d) lactic acid accmulation
a) causes cellular acidosis
individuals with pernicious anaemia will have:
a) hypochromic microcytic cells
b) hyperchromic macrocytic cells
c) normochromic macrocytic cells
d) normochromic normocytic cells
c
Platelet pathway: common _____ progenitor –> megakaryocyte-erythrocyte progenitor –> __________ –> promegakaryocyte –> _______ –> platelet
myeloid, megakaryoblast, megakaryocyte
a fasting plasma glucose between 6.1-6.9mM indicates:
a) pre-diabetes
b) type II diabetes
c) gestational diabetes
d) hypertension
a
true or false: Without BPG, haemoglobin has a high affinity for oxygen and acts as an oxygen trap
true
bundles of neurons in the spinal cord are called:
a) funiculi
b) commissures
c) fascicles
d) nucleus
c
what is this? what process is it involved in?
short sequence of nucleotides which are synthesised discontinuously and later linked together by DNA ligase.
okazaki fragments in replication on the lagging strand
transcription factors have a ___ _____ domain and _______ domain. they can act as both repressors and activators
DNA binding, activation
at what translational site does amino acid binding occur?
a) E
b) P
c) A
c
which of the following is false regarding wet gangrene?
a) bacteria fail to survive
b) more common in bowel
c) no line of demarcation
d) appears moist, soft, swollen and dark
a) this is a feature of dry gangrene. numerous bacteria in wet gangrene
individuals with acute blood loss will have:
a) hypochromic microcytic cells
b) hyperchromic microcytic cells
c) normochromic macrocytic cells
d) normochromic normocytic cells
d
what is the Bohr effect?
a) binding of CO2 facilitates unloading of oxygen from Hb by reducing affinity of O2
b) low pH environments will alter Hb conformation, reducing affinity of O2
c) binding of 2,3-BPG causes a conformational change at the heme binding site of O2, increasing affinity of O2
d) binding of one O2 molecule to one heme group will cause conformational changes to the other heme groups, increasing O2 affinity
a
three transverse subdivisions of the midbrain are:
- cerebral peduncles
- midbrain tectum
- midbrain tegmentum
two products of ketogenesis are:
acetoacetate and beta-hydroxybutyrate
jaundice is the result of:
a) excess of bilirubin when the kidneys and colon are at maximum deconjugation rate
b) raised conjugated bilirubin levels that deposit in the skin and sclera
c) raised unconjugated bilirubin levels that deposit in the skin and sclera
d) raised bilirubin levels that negatively remove elastin-rich tissue
d
what attaches the cerebrum to the brainstem?
a) cerebral peduncles
b) midbrain tectum
c) midbrain tegmentum
d) cerebellum
a
goblet cells are found in the:
a) large intestines, stomach, duodenum
b) colon, ileum, appendix
c) jejunum, ileum and caecum
d) small intestines, appendix, colon
d
ketogenesis occurs in:
a) mitochondrial matrix
b) cytosol
c) liver
d) liver and skeletal muscle
c
ketogenesis occurs primarily in the liver due to whcih enzyme?
a) CoA-SH
b) HMG-CoA synthase
c) pyruvate dehydrogenase
d) pyruvate carboxylase
b
autophagy begins with the formation of large membrane-bound vesicles called _______ which sequester organelles such as mitochondria.
autophagosomes
true or false: HbF has a higher affinity for O2 than HbA, but a lower affinity for 2,3-BPG
true
successive O2 binding to Hb subunits increases affinity for O2 is:
cooperative binding
true or false: there is high partial pressure of O2 in the lungs and thus haemoglobin is in the T state. it has low affinity
true
a patient with microcytic RBCs are normal ferritin likely has:
a) iron deficiency
b) B12/folate deficiency
c) thalassemia
d) haemolysis
c
necrosis involves three major stages. list them in order and name them
- nuclei and condensed
- nuclei break up into fragments
- nuclei are dissolved
- nuclei and condensed - pyknosis
- nuclei break up into fragments - karyorrhexis
- nuclei are dissolved -karyolysis
what three regions make up the brainstem?
midbrain
pons
medulla oblongata
thalassemia is:
a) autosomal recessive
b) autosomal dominant
c) X-linked recessive
d) X-linked dominant
a
what are 4 substances that haemoglobin can bind to?
NO
CO
CO2
O2
what blood cell makes up the 2nd largest portion of white blood cells?
a) neutrophils
b) monocytes
c) NK cells
d) lymphocytes (B and C)
d
what two segments of the GIT tract have glands in the submucosa?
a) jejunum and ileum
b) stomach and duodenum
c) oesophagus and duodenum
d) oesophagus and colon
c
true or false: there are no visible changes of organelles during apoptosis
true
how many oxygen molecules can haemoglobin carry?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
d
how many alpha helices make up myoglobin?
8
true or false: the heme-iron centre is the active site of cytochrome P450 enzymes
true
C1-C7 spinal nerves leave the spinal canal through the intervertebral foramen:
a) immediately below corresponding vertebrae
b) above correspondig vertebrae
c) at level of correspondinig vertebrae
d) none of the above
n
what is responsible for the yellow colour of urine?
a) urobilin
b) stercobilin
c) biliverdin
d) unconjugated bilirubin
a
meningomyelocele is often referred to as:
open spina bifida
which of these is false regarding hypochromic microcytic anaemia?
a) pallor upon blood smear
b) indicates iron deficiency
c) MVC <75fL
d) indicates thalassemia
c) <80fL
urogenital structures derive from:
a) endoderm
b) paraxial mesoderm
c) intermediate mesoderm
d) lateral plate mesoderm
c
the epithalamus is also known as:
a) thalamus
b) pituitary gland
c) pineal body
d) basal ganglia
c
the nucleus breaking up into many small fragments scattered about the cytoplasm is:
a) karyolysis during necrosis
b) karyorrhexis during necrosis
c) pyknosis during necrosis
d) any of the above
b
how many globular chains does myoglobin have?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
a
true or false: both afferent and efferent visceral fibres can be sympathetic or parasympathetic
true
skeletal muscle can be distinuged from smooth muscle by:
a) absence of dense bodies on the surface of skeletal muscle
b) smooth muscle cells dont have striations
c) muscle muscles contract using teh same act in and myosin filaments, just in a different way
d) skeletal muscle fibre is composed of many cells whereas smooth muscle is made up of single cells
d
what are the three processes of mRNA post-transcriptional modification?
- capping of teh 5’ end
- polyadenylation tail added to 3’ end
- removal of introns via splicing
haemaglobin A is the most common form in humans. Whats its composition?
a) two alpha and two beta subunits
b) four alpha subunits
c) two alpha and two delta subunits
d) two alpha and two gamma subunits
a
2nd-5th lumbar nerves, 1st-5th sacral nerves and coccygeal nerves arise from:
a) conus medullaris
b) lumbar plexus
c) filum terminale
d) none of the above
a
which of the following is false regarding platelets?
a) contain a nucleus
b) contain fibrin
c) numerous cytoplasmic granules
d) derived from megakaryocytes
a) no nuelcus
Anion gap is a measurement of the difference between negatively charged and positively charged electrolytes in the serum. A normal anion gap is:
a) 3-12 mEq/L
b) 3-7mEq/L
c) 7-11mEq/L
d) 3-11mEq/L
d
which of these is false regarding the filum terminale?
a) modification of arachnoid mater
b) begins at S2
c) composed of delicate fibrous tissue
d) goes to coccyx
a) pia mater
what is responsible for the brown colour of faeces?
a) urobilin
b) stercobilin
c) biliverdin
d) unconjugated bilirubin
b
spinal dura mater ends at __ and then continues as an outer layer of _____ _____ to the coccyx
S2, filum terminale
phospholipase causes progressive loss of phospholipids in the cell membrane. what causes this?
a) decrease intracellular calcium
b) increase intracellular calcium
c) increase intracellular potassium
d) decrease intracelluar potassium
b
what is responsible for fine motor control and motor learning?
a) motor cortex
b) basal ganglia
c) corpus callosum
d) limbic system
b
axial skeleton and muscle is derived from?
a) surface ectoderm
b) paraxial mesoderm
c) intermediate mesoderm
d) lateral plate mesoderm
b
liquefactice necrosis is usually caused by:
a) neutrophil enzymes
b) coagulation of proteins
c) acute inflammatory response
d) excess release of lipase
a
true or false: necrosis induces host inflammatory response, whilst apoptosis doesnt
true
during bruising, what colour tint does haemoglobin give?
a) red
b) green
c) yellow
d) golden brown
a
list two major pathways of extrinsic apoptosis
TNF-alpha produced by activated macrophages
fatty acid synthase receptor initiation
true or false: ischemia leads to potassium accumulation as a lack of aerobic glycolysis fails to remove it intracellularly. this leads to phospholipase activation adn membrane damage
false: its calcium not potassium
how many genes encode the beta chain of hemoglobin?
a) 1 gene on chromosome 11
b) 1 gene on chromosome 16
c) 2 genes on chromosome 11
d) 2 genes on chromosome 16
a
Erythrocyte pathway: common _____ progenitor –> megakaryocyte-erythrocyte progenitor –> pronormoblast –> basophilic normoblast –> polychromatic normoblast –> orthochromic normoblast –> ________–> erythrocyte
myeloid, reticulocyte
if the mRNA contains the nucleotide sequence “AUC” what will the anticodon on the tRNA be?
UAG
liver cells store energy in what form?
a) glucose
b) chylomicrons
c) zymogen granules
d) glycogen granules
d
haemoglobin dissociation curve is:
a) sigmoidal
b) linear
c) exponential
d) sinusoidal
a
true or false: 2,3-BPG has a high affinity for haemoglobin in the tissue, when its in the R state
true
neural crest cells derivates can be remembered via GAMES. What does it stand for?
Ganglia
Adrenal medulla
Melanocytes
Enteric ganglia
Schwann cells
limb skeleton and muscular wall of the gut tube derive from:
a) endoderm
b) paraxial mesoderm
c) intermediate mesoderm
d) lateral plate mesoderm
d
Jen has a mutation on gene HBA1, chromosome 16 on an allele from her mothers side as well as an allele on her fathers side. What does this make Jen?
a) beta thalassemia minor
b) alpha thalassemia minor
c) carrier of beta thalassemia
d) carrier of alpha thalassemia
b
thalassemia is a condition affecting ________, which is composed of four protein chains: 2 _____ and 2 ____.
haemoglobin, alpha, beta
true or false: R-groups of amino acids on beta sheets are directed to both inside and outside of the sheet, whereas on alpha helices the R-groups are orientated outside of the helix
true
the _____ end of the neural tube forms three dilatations leading to ______, _____- and ______.
cranial, forebrain, midbrain, hindbrain
true or false: both haemoglobin and myoglobin participate in cooperative binding
false: myoglobin cant as it only has one heme group
during intrinsic apoptosis, cytochrome C binds to
a) caspase-8
b) caspase-9
c) p53
d) apoptosis activating factor 1 (Apaf-1)
d
what three features are required to diagnose DKA?
hyperglycaemia
high ketones in blood/urine
acidosis (arterial blood pH)
what causes the zig-zag shape of beta sheets?
a) adjacent peptide bonds have alternating negative forces, causing a zig-zag pattern
b) peptide bonds of adjacent residues point in opposite directions
c) layering of the sheets forces opposing forces to be in close contact, causing a zig-zag pattern
d) all of the above cause zig-zag shape
b
NK and dendritic cells come from:
a) common lymphoid progenitor
b) common myeloid progentior
c) pronormoblasts
d) basophilic meta myelocyte
a
list two scenarioes when autophagy is preferable over apoptosis
massive cell elimination is required
when phagocytes dont have easy access to dying cells
which of these is false regarding CO and Hb?
a) will eliminate sigmoidal response of Hb
b) allosteric effector
c) 250x greater affinity than O2
d) significantly reduces capacity of Hb to release O2
b) competitive binder
how does the body try to manage ketoacidosis?
bicarbonate buffering system
Jen has a mutation on gene HBA1, chromosome 16 on an allele from her mothers side. What does this make Jen?
a) beta thalassemia minor
b) alpha thalassemia minor
c) carrier of beta thalassemia
d) carrier of alpha thalassemia
d
spina bifida is due to:
a) neural tube lies in the normal position with a cyst formed by the protruding subarachnoid space
b) local regions of neural tube fail to fuse
c) failure of normal size development of the neural tube
d) failure of the cephalic end to close
b) also could be failure in formation of the vertebral neural arches
other than blood, lymph vessels, nerve fibres, and ganglia, the submucosa contains mostly:
a) epithelial cells
b) lymphoid tissue
c) smooth muscle
d) collagen
d
thrombin causes fibrinogen to form ______
fibrin
there are __ cranial nerves
31 pairs of spinal nerves:
cervical __
thoracic __
lumbar __
sacral __
coccygeal __
12 cranial
cervical 8
thoracic 12
lumbar 5
sacral 5
coccygeal 1
which of the following is false regarding alpha helix secondary structures:
a) can be single chain
b) hydrogen bonds form between N-H and C=O groups
c) R-group amino acids are orientated inside the helix
d) bonds are formed within the peptide chain
c) outside the helix
lining of the GIT and respiratory systems is derived from?
a) surface ectoderm
b) paraxial mesoderm
c) endoderm
d) lateral plate mesoderm
c
Ben has been diagnosed with beta thalassemia. He has no functional HBB mRNA or protein. He has:
a) beta thalassemia minor
b) beta thalassemia intermedia
c) beta thalassemia major
c
what is responsible for sodium loss seen in type I diabetes?
a) reduced bicarbonate level
b) DKA
c) excess potassium
d) osmotic diuresis
d
cell shrinkage, plasma membrane blebbing and formation of apoptotic bodies is seen in:
apoptosis
Ben has been diagnosed with beta thalassemia. He has one wild-type allele from his father, and a mutated allele from his mother. He likely has:
a) beta thalassemia minor
b) beta thalassemia intermedia
c) beta thalassemia major
a
which of these is false regarding neutrophils?
a) contains lilac granules involved in phagocytosis
b) polymorphonuclear
c) 1/2 the size of RBC
d) 50-60% of WBCs are neutrophils
c) 2x bigger than RBC
true or false: between L2 and S2 there is no spinal cord but the subarachnoid space still exists
true
Ben has been diagnosed with beta thalassemia. He has one mutated allele from his father, and a mutated allele from his mother. He likely has:
a) beta thalassemia minor
b) beta thalassemia intermedia
c) beta thalassemia major
b
trilaminar germ disc = _____ + ________
epiblast, hypoblast
what are the four caspases involved in apoptosis?
caspase 8
then caspases 3, 6, 7
how many genes encode the alpha chain of hemoglobin?
a) 1 gene on chromosome 11
b) 1 gene on chromosome 16
c) 2 genes on chromosome 11
d) 2 genes on chromosome 16
d
true or false: CO2 competes for the same binding site as O2 on Hb
false: different binding sites, but it does change affinity.
which of these is NOT a positive indicator of diabetes?
a) venous plasma glucose >11mM at least 2hrs postprandial
b) fasting venous plasma glucose >6mM
c) HbA1c level >6.5%
d) OGTT 2hr post-load >11mM
b) its => 7mM
true or false: myogloin has a higher affinity for oxygen than haemoglobin
true
the thalamus, hypothalamus and epithalamus develop from:
a) telencephalon
b) mesencephalon
c) rhobencephalon
d) diencephalon
d
which of these is NOT involved in transcription?
a) initiation complex
b) DNA pol II
c) transcription factors
d) regulatory proteins
b) RNA pol II
gangrene is a type of:
a) caseous necrosis
b) liquefactive necrosis
c) fatty necrosis
d) coagulative necrosis
d
extrinsic apoptosis pathway is activated by ______ _____ binding to the cell surface death receptors, leading to the formation of ____-______ ______ _____ known as “___”
extracellular ligands, death-inducing signalling complexes (DISC)
neural crest and tube give rise to what three major structures?
brain, spinal cord, peripheral nerves
nerve cell group inside the CNS is called ____ whereas nerve cell group outside the CNS is called ___
nucleus, ganglion
the outermost surface of the gastrointestinal tract is composed of:
a) adventitia
b) mesothelium
c) parietal layer
d) visceral layer
b
what lobe screens all sensory messages travelling to the cortex?
a) frontal
b) occipital
c) parietal
d) temporal
d) temporal - contains limbic system
true or false: the caudal end of the neural tube closes earlier than the cranial end
false
meningocele is due to:
a) neural tube lies in the normal position with a cyst formed by the protruding subarachnoid space
b) neural tube lying ectopically in the cystic space
c) failure of normal size development of the neural tube
d) failure of the cephalic end to close
a
a patient with normocytic RBCs and a normal reticulocyte count likely has:
a) iron deficiency
b) B12/folate deficiency
c) thalassemia
d) haemolysis
d
caspases are:
cystine aspartic acid proteases
what enables bile to move between the hepatocyte and blood?
a) albumin
b) organic anion transporter protein (OATP)
c) multidrug resistance protein 2 transporter (MRP2)
d) conjugation with glucoronic acid
b
leukocytes can be broken up into granular and agranular. state which of the following are granular and agranular:
a) lymphocyte
b) neutrophil
c) eosinophil
d) monocyte
e) basophil
a) lymphocyte - agranular
b) neutrophil - granular
c) eosinophil - granular
d) monocyte - agranular
e) basophil - granular
what are the three components of DNA?
nitrogenous base, phosphate group, sugar
cranial closure of the neural tube occurs around the ___ day after fertilization and caudal closure occurs around the ___ day.
23rd, 27th
the lower end of the spinal cord is called the ____ _____ and occurs near L1 and L2.
conus medullaris
erythropoietin is a _______ and cytokine produced in the ______. it is elevated in states of hyoxia and anaemia.
glycoprotein, kidneys
haemoglobin is a:
a) primary structure
b) secondary structure
c) tertiary structure
d) quaternary structure
d
