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Alaska Pilots > ***BRM for Maritime Pilots (old) > Flashcards

***BRM for Maritime Pilots (old) Flashcards

1
Q

When the Pilot has the con, the person directing the movement of the vessel must (5):

A
  1. Be informed of the position of the vessel from each fix on a chart of the area.
  2. Know the danger and evaluation of each closing visual and radar contact.
  3. Know magnetic and gyro error and correctly apply them to vessels that may affect its safe navigation.
  4. Set and drift, tidal state
  5. Safe speed
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2
Q

What non-operating equipment must be reported to the USCG by the Pilot? (5)

A
  1. Radio navigation receivers
  2. Radar
  3. Gyrocompass
  4. Echo depth sounding device
  5. Primary steering (local)
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3
Q

A marine casualty consists of (5):

A
  1. Unintended grounding or unintended striking of a bridge
  2. Intended grounding or striking of a bridge that creates a hazard to navigation, the environment, of safety of the vessel.
  3. Occurrence that affects vessel seaworthiness
  4. Loss of main propulsion, steering or any control system that reduces maneuverability
  5. Loss of life or injury that requires professional medical treatment
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4
Q

What are the guiding principles behind good management practices? (4)

A
  1. Clarity of purpose
  2. Delegation of authority
  3. Effective organization
  4. Motivation
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5
Q

Under STCW code the officer of the watch may be the sole look out when?

A

In daylight conditions (section 3.2.1.1)

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6
Q

The STCW code stipulates that Bridge team members must take mandatory rest periods. What are the rest periods?

A
  1. At least 10 hrs in any 24 hr period
  2. If two periods, breaks must be 6 hrs
  3. Not less than 70 hrs rest in a 7 day period
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7
Q

STCW code advises maximum blood alcohol level of no more than ____ during watch keeping and prohibits consumption ____ hours commencing watch?

A

0.08%
4 hours

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7
Q

What are the differences between x-band and s-band radar?

A

X-band radars are capable of operating in the 96 Hz frequency and are capable of detecting search and rescue transponders (SART devices)

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8
Q

What is the basic range of Loran C?

A

1200 miles

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9
Q

What is the accuracy of the GPS in commercial use?

A

100 meters

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10
Q

What global datum do GPS receivers calculate to?

A

WGS 84

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11
Q

What is the accuracy of the DGPS?

A

10 meters

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12
Q

Electronic positioning systems are how accurate GPS? (3)

A
  1. SPS - 100 meters
  2. DGPS - differential GPS - 10 meters
  3. Loran C - 50 meters
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13
Q

What is the difference between vector and raster charts?

A

Vector charts are compiled by attributing to each and every chart feature a set of values.

Raster charts are exact copies of paper charts.

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14
Q

What does the acronym RADAR stand for?

A

Radar detection and ranging

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15
Q

What are the two band frequencies for radars?

A
  1. X-band radar, which has a wavelength of 3 cm and a frequency between 9300-9500 MHZ
  2. S-band radar, which has a wavelength of 10 cm and frequency of 2900-3100 MHZ
16
Q

What are the typical vertical and horizontal beam widths of radars?

A
  1. Horizontal beam width is 0.65 - 2.0
  2. Vertical beam width is 15% to 30%
17
Q

What are the factors that affect bearing accuracy? (3)

A
  1. Horizontal bearing width
  2. Range to target
  3. CRT spot size
18
Q

What is Fast Time Constant (FTC) used for?

A

Fast time constant (rain control) covers the whole screen and helps increase range, resolution, and lower ranges.

19
Q

What are the factors that affect range resolution? (4)

A
  1. Length of transmitted pulse
  2. Receiver gain
  3. CRT spot size
  4. Range scale
20
Q

Sensitivity time control (STC) is used for what?

A

(Sometimes called sea clutter control) it is used to suppress sea clutter out to a limited distance from the ship

21
Q

Search and rescue transponders (SART) may be triggered by what Band radar?

A

X-band radar (3 cm) 9200-9500 MHZ out to a range of approx. 8 nautical miles

22
Q

Datum for bridge and cables, and datum for depths?

A
  1. Vertical clearance of bridge and overhead cables are in feet above mean high water (MHZ)
  2. Depths are expressed in (feet, meters, fathoms) referenced from mean lower low water (MLLW)
23
Q

What is the difference between an enrolled vessel and registered vessel?

A
  1. An enrolled vessel is in constant trade
  2. A registered ship is in foreign trade
24
Q

Radio frequencies (4)

A
  1. 2182 KHz
  2. Channel 16 VHF 156.80 MHZ (EPIRB)
  3. 406 MHZ category 1 & 11 Dec.
  4. Channel 70 VHF 156.525 MHZ
25
Q

Light visibility range (3)

A
  1. Normal range - max distance a light may be seen in clear weather expressed in nautical miles
  2. Luminous range - max distance which a light may be seen under existing visibility conditions
  3. Geographic range - determined by the curvature of the earth, height of the light, and height of the eye observing
26
Q

General descriptions of Buoys
(ILA region B when entering from seaward)
(5)

A
  1. Starboard side red right returning, with even numbers
  2. Port side green with odd numbers
  3. Mid-channel buoys red and white vertical stripes
  4. Junction buoys red and green with horizonal ands (top band is the preferred side of the channel or passage)
  5. Can buoys to port, Nun buoys to starboard
27
Q

Pilot directing the movement of the ship (8)

A
  1. Informed of the position from each fix
  2. Know dangers of radar contacts
  3. Magnetic variation of gyro compass error
  4. Draft, maneuvering characteristics, and peculiarities of the vessel
  5. Know current velocity and direction of the area
  6. Know the predicted set and drift
  7. Tidal state
  8. Set vessel speed (prevailing conditions), water, visibility, sheer, squat, channel, width, traffic, wake, etc.
28
Q

What is the formula for change in salinity of water?

A

Change in draft = displacement (change of density)
Tons per inch

Fresh water - 1.000
Salt water - 1.025
Brackish water - 1.070

29
Q

What is the difference in density between water and air?

A

Water is 900 more times more dense than air

Note a 30 knot wind has about the same effect as 1 knot of current

30
Q
A

Alaska Pilots (36 decks)

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