boot camp

Question 1

Which type of cancer is most commonly associated with Epstein-Barr virus?

Answer 1

EVB
is commonly associated with a variety of lymphoid and epithelial cancers. There is a strong association between the Epstein-Barr virus and nasopharyngeal carcinoma.

Question 2

Oral cancer

Answer 2

Oral
The most common form of oral cancer is oral squamous cell carcinoma (SCC).

SCC risk factors
* smoking tobacco products
* alcohol use.

Question 3

Oropahryngel

Answer 3

Oropharyngeal

Cancer-causing strains of the human papillomavirus (HPV), such as HPV 16 and 18, are the most common cause of oropharyngeal cancers.

Question 4

Salivary gland

Answer 4

Salivary gland

The most common cause of salivary gland cancer is mucoepidermoid carcinoma

Question 5

Apnea

Answer 5

Apnea is the complete cessation of breathing lasting for a period of over 10 seconds, but commonly lasts for longer periods (beyond 30 seconds).
This can be due to a central process where there is lack of respiratory effort, or this can be as a result of physical obstruction in the airway

Question 6

Hypopnea

Answer 6

is a period of decreased breathing, diagnosed by the following parameters:

• Over a 30% reduction in airflow
• Lasting 10 seconds or more
• 4% or greater desaturation in oxygen levels

Question 7

differnce between apnea and hypoapnea

Answer 7

it does not involve the complete cessation of airflow and gas exchange. .

Question 8

simmilar symptoms of apnea in hypoapnea

Answer 8

• fatigue,
• waking from sleep,
• choking during sleep,

Question 9

Platysma

Answer 9

muscle of facial expression innervated by the cervical branch of the facial nerve.
Action: It lowers the corners of the mouth and lower lip.

Question 10

Orbicularis Occulis

Answer 10

Action
muscle closes the eyelid and assists in pumping tears from the eyes into the nasolacrimal ducts.
Innervation
by the zygomatic and temporal branches of the facial nerve

Question 11

Marginal leakage

Answer 11

occurs when unwanted fluids and bacteria leak into the space between the tooth and restoration over time

Question 12

Polymerization shrinkage

Answer 12

of the composite resin and adhesion failure between the restoration and preparation allow leakage of fluids which may cause staining at the margin.

Question 13

Hyperthyroidism

Answer 13

is an endocrine disorder resulting from excess thyroid hormone in the systemic circulation.
common cause of hyperthyroidism is an autoimmune disorder known as Graves’ disease -> antibodies target thyroid-stimulating hormone receptors and stimulate more thyroid hormone release.

Symtoms
heat intolerance because their metabolism is elevated. This increase in metabolic activity generates more heat, making them feel excessively warm or uncomfortable in normal temperatures

Question 14

thyroid storm

Answer 14

, a medical emergency that causes tachycardia, atrial fibrillation, sudden fever, sweating, and loss of consciousnes

Question 15

symptoms of hyperthiroidism

Answer 15

Symptoms of hyperthyroidism include:

Nervousness, anxiety, and irritability

Hyperactivity

Mood swings

Difficulty sleeping

Sensitivity to heat

Muscle weakness

Diarrhea

Frequent urination

Persistent thirst

Itchiness

Question 16

fecebow

Answer 16

The facebow consists of adjustable bars and a metal arch placed in the patient’s ear, which extends with a bite fork and wax on the maxilla. The facebow record captures the relationship of the maxilla to the hinge axis of rotation of the mandible. This allows the maxillary cast to be placed in an equivalent relationship on a semi-adjustable articulator.

Question 17

Diaphoresis,

Answer 17

excessive sweating, is an early symptom associated with anaphylaxis

Question 18

Contact dermatitis

Answer 18

is a type of allergic reaction in the form of a red, itchy, rash. It is usually caused by direct contact with a substance. In general, contact dermatitis caused by local anesthetics is rare and not likely to be caused by injection. It can be seen in rare cases as a reaction to topical application of anesthetic agents.

Question 19

Syncope also know as

Answer 19

Syncope also know as–> vasovagal syncope can be seen in patients, especially those with dental anxiety.
Additionally, if an anaphylactic reaction progresses, a patient may lose consciousness.

Question 20

type II error describes

Answer 20

A type II error describes the error that occurs when one fails to reject a null hypothesis that is actually false

The hypothesis of this study is that the new treatment will reverse periodontal tissue destruction. The null hypothesis would then be that the new treatment does not reverse periodontal tissue destruction.
visto ene l tercer test en la pregunta 57

Question 21

A type I error

Answer 21

The treatment was incorrectly found to reverse periodontal tissue destruction

describes the error that occurs when one rejects a null hypothesis that it is actually true.

Question 22

Statistical significance

Answer 22

is a determination of whether results will be accepted as valid or not. This is usually interpreted through the designation of a significance level (𝛂). This value represents the probability of making a type I error and is usually set at 0.05. If the calculated p-value is less than the predetermined significance level, then the results can be considered statistically significant

Question 23

The most common cause of pulp calcification in primary teeth

Answer 23

The most common cause of pulp calcification in primary teeth is trauma. Evidence shows that pulp calcification is most common after traumatic luxation injuries.

Traumatic events cause damage to the pulp neural supply, resulting in extensive dentin formation and loss of control of odontoblast secretory activity. Hemorrhaging of the pulp after trauma can also lead to pulp calcification.

Question 24

recurrent herpes labialis, or infection with herpes simplex virus (HSV-1)

Answer 24

This patient presents with clusters of vesicles on the vermillion border of his lip. This presentation is characteristic of recurrent herpes labialis, or infection with herpes simplex virus (HSV-1), which reactivates from latency during a period of lowered immunity, such as from stress for this patient while aggressively practicing for his wrestling tournament.

Question 25

Famciclovir

Answer 25

Famciclovir (Famvir®) is an antiviral medication used to treat the symptoms of recurrent herpes labialis and can be recommended for this patient.

Question 26

Fluconazole (Diflucan®)

Answer 26

Fluconazole (Diflucan®) is an azole antifungal medication used for both the prevention and treatment of various fungal and yeast infections

Question 27

Lamivudine (Epivir®)

Answer 27

Lamivudine (Epivir®) is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI), which is a class of antiretroviral medications commonly used to prevent and treat HIV/AIDS.

Question 28

Isoniazid (Tubizid®)

Answer 28

Isoniazid (Tubizid®) is an antibiotic used to prevent and treat tuberculosis, a serious bacterial infection caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

Question 29

Anesthetics

Answer 29

Protein binding is associated with the duration of action: the lower the protein binding, the shorter the duration of action. less protein binding allows the anesthetic to be more readily removed from the nerve. This refers to how much of the anesthetic attaches to proteins in your body. The more it binds, the slower it may be removed, which usually means a longer duration of action pKa is associated with the diffusion of the local anesthetic across the lipid bilayer. Lower pKa increases diffusion into tissues, and therefore more rapid onset of action.pKa Value: This is a measure of acidity. A lower pKa means the anesthetic can more easily penetrate tissues, leading to a quicker onset of action. Since local anesthetic X has lower protein binding and lower pKa than Y, it will have a shorter duration of action and a more rapid onset of action

Question 31

P-value

Answer 31

Represent probability and indicate the chance that any observed difference between groups is due to randomness. A p-value close to 0 the observed differnce--> unlikely to be random, p-value near 1 --> suggests no significant difference between groups other than what might occur by chance. In this case methamphetamine has the p-value closest to 0, indicating the strongest association with caries rate. Generally, a p-value that is less than 0.05 indicates that the results are statistically significant.

Question 32

most common heart defect in down syndrome

Answer 32

Down syndrome, with the most common example being an atrioventricular septal defect (AVSD). involves communications between the left and right atria and ventricles, allowing blood to move in unwanted directions. It may lead to a number of complications, such as pulmonary edema. Nearly all cases of congenital AVSD necessitate heart surgery in order to close the defects

Question 34

Atrioventricular node block

Answer 34

An atrioventricular node block describes a partial or complete block in electric impulse transmission between the atria and ventricles. This condition is not commonly noted as a congenital heart defect in individuals with Down syndrome.

Question 35

Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)

Answer 35

Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is a congenital defect where the fetal communication between the aorta and pulmonary artery fails to close completely, reducing cardiovascular efficiency. While PDA has a higher prevalence among individuals with Down syndrome,

Question 36

thickness mucoperiosteal flap

Answer 36

When utilizing a full thickness mucoperiosteal flap, the flap should always end on the bone. Full thickness flaps allow access to underlying osseous structures during surgical procedures (e.g., surgical extractions, removal of osseous tori)

Question 37

partial thickness flaps

Answer 37

partial thickness flaps are supraperiosteal and are used in mucogingival surgeries

Question 38

Incisions along the edentulous ridge

Answer 38

Incisions along the edentulous ridge should be made at a 90-degree angle to the bone for a full thickness flap. This allows for optimal bone visibility and access, adequate blood supply to the flap, and trauma limitation to soft tissues. Additionally, this enables primary closure of the wound.

Question 39

Incisions must be made over intact bone

Answer 39

Incisions must be made over intact bone, not over bony defects, eminences, or vital structures. This reduces the risk of dehiscence, compromised blood flow, and delayed bone healing.

Question 40

The base of the flap should be narrower than the free margins

Answer 40

The base of the flap should be narrower than the free margins The base of the flap should always be wider than the free margins. A wider base ensures adequate blood supply to the flap

Question 41

herpes virous simple

Answer 41

diagnosis of herpes simplex virus (i.e., cold sores) A history of herpes simplex virus (HSV), recent stressors, intraoral vesicular lesions all . This is a recurrent HSV-1 infection reemerging from the trigeminal nerve. Intraorally, herpes simplex occurs mainly on keratinized tissues (e.g., vermillion border of lips, hard palate, attached gingiva) in immunocompetent patients. However, in some cases, lesions can be seen on nonkeratinized tissues. Stress, menstruation, sunlight, or fevers may influence cold sore outbreaks. The condition is often self-limiting and should resolve within two weeks.

Question 43

odds ratio (OR)

Answer 43

An odds ratio (OR) measures the association between two factors in a population. If OR = 1, the exposure does not affect the odds of the disease If OR > 1, the exposure is associated with higher odds of the disease If OR < 1, the exposure is associated with lower odds of the disease

Question 44

Anterior repositioning splints

Answer 44

Anterior repositioning splints are designed to protrude the mandible, which can be useful in sleep apnea patients to open the airway. These splints can also aid in recapturing an anteriorly displaced articular disc. This patient is experiencing an ‘open lock’ which is caused by posterior displacement of the articular disc and inability to close the mouth, thus this splint would not help this patient and could further worsen TMD symptoms.

Question 45

Obesity is associated

Answer 45

Obesity is associated with a higher risk of cancers of the liver and prostate. Chronic inflammation, changes to the gut microbiome, and alterations in fatty acid metabolism in obesity are linked to carcinogenesis

Question 46

The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA

Answer 46

is an organization responsible for regulating the safety of workers. They provide training, outreach, safety standards, and education to both employers and workers. Regulation within dental offices falls under the responsibility of this organization due to multiple occupational exposures to injuries, diseases, and chronic illnesses.

Question 47

supernumerary tooth

Answer 47

common symptom impeded eruption of permanent teeth. A radiograph should be taken to confirm the clinical finding. A radiograph should be taken to confirm the clinical finding.

Question 48

Streptococcus mutans

Answer 48

the predominant bacteria in dental plaque, a colorless or white, sticky bacterial biofilm that adheres to all surfaces of the mouth. It commonly appears on the gingival margins or interproximal areas of the teeth.

Question 49

The critical pH

Answer 49

The critical pH is the value below which a substance will become soluble. The critical pH of dentin and cementum are 6.2 and 6.7, respectively. This is below both the critical pH values of dentin and cementum only, the patient will most likely suffer from root decay.

Question 51

The submandibular space

Answer 51

is often infected by mandibular second or third molars. These teeth have roots that extend below the attachment of the mylohyoid muscle at the mylohyoid line, allowing infections to spread into this space.

Question 52

The sublingual space

Answer 52

is often infected by teeth that have roots above the attachment of the mylohyoid to the mylohyoid line (i.e., mandibular incisors, canines, premolars, or first molars).

Question 53

EpiPen® is the brand name

Answer 53

EpiPen® is the brand name of an auto-injectable device that delivers epinephrine. used for the emergency treatment of anaphylaxis. A 0.3 mL EpiPen® delivers a single dose of 0.3 mg epinephrine, which is equal to 1 g/1000 mL or a concentration of 1:1000. The recommended concentration for children under approximately 66 pounds is 0.15 mg or a concentration of 1:2000.

Question 54

Hypoglisemia

Answer 54

condition in which the body’s blood sugar or glucose level is lower than normal result lightheadedness agitation confusion coma even death. Patients with diabetes type two have some risk for hypoglycemic episodes injection of excess medication delaying or skipping meals, or increasing exercise without adjusting food intake or dosage of medication

Question 55

if the patienent doesnt respond with orange juice

Answer 55

1 mg intramuscular glucagon should be used in conscious patients if they are not responsive to an initial oral source of glucose. Intramuscular glucagon is indicated in any hypoglycemic patient that is unconscious.

Question 56

Null hypothesis

Answer 56

null hypothesis --> in a statistical study --> proposes that there is no significant difference between the outcomes of different groups. Investigators will aim to disprove the null hypothesis through experimentation and statistical analysis. determine whether the difference between two groups or characteristics is statistically significant and to reject the null hypothesis is by using the confidence interval. If the confidence interval does not include the null hypothesis mean (zero), the results are statistically significant, and the null hypothesis can be rejected. In this specific case, the confidence interval of (-3.41, 16.41) includes the null hypothesis mean of 0. Thus, the results are not significant, and the null hypothesis cannot be rejected.

Question 57

Nitrous oxide at 30-40%

Answer 57

Nitrous oxide at 30-40% is optimal sedation for dental procedures, offering relaxation, comfort, and slight analgesia while maintaining high levels of patient cooperation.

Question 58

OR odds ratio

Answer 58

measures the association between two factors in a population. It represents the odds that an outcome will occur given exposure compared to the odds an outcome will occur without the exposure. OR = 1: the exposure does not affect the odds of the outcome OR > 1: the exposure is associated with increased odds of the outcome OR < 1: the exposure is associated with decreased odds of the outcome

Question 59

Osteoarthritis

Answer 59

is a degenerative joint disease, in which the cartilage in joints breaks down.

Question 60

Factor V Leiden

Answer 60

Factor V Leiden, an inherited disorder characterized by a mutation in the factor V protein. This mutation ultimately increases the risk of venous thromboembolism. Patients with Factor V Leiden are in a prothrombotic state. Factor V Leiden is associated with osteonecrosis, which manifests in the oral cavity as idiopathic osteonecrosis of the jaw (ONJ). Patients with Factor V Leiden are in a hypercoagulable state, and thrombotic occlusion of blood vessels that supply the jaw can lead to ischemic bone destruction and osteonecrosis. ONJ can progress following tooth extraction and alveolar osteitis (dry socket)

Question 61

hypercoagulable state

Answer 61

A hypercoagulable state, also known as thrombophilia, is a condition where the blood is more prone to forming clots than usual, increasing the risk of thrombosis

Question 62

mplant health maintenance

Answer 62

Proper hygiene is an essential part of implant health maintenance. The accumulation of plaque and calculus on implants differs from that on natural dentition. There is less accumulation and tenacity of calculus, and removal is best achieved using a plastic scaler. Additionally, a plastic scaler will avoid creating microdefects in the titanium implant that are caused by metal-on-metal contact and can impact the longevity of the implant.

Question 63

Occulusal contact

Answer 63

In a class I occlusion, the distobuccal cusp of the right mandibular first molar occludes in the central fossa of the maxillary first molar. A protrusive movement of the mandible (the mandible sliding anteriorly) will translate this tooth directly anterior, resulting in this cusp passing the mesial marginal ridge of the maxillary first molar.

Question 64

Sickle cell anemia

Answer 64

Sickle cell anemia is an inherited condition affecting the shape of red blood cells. Sickle cell is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern. If both of the parents are carriers, they each carry one affected allele but are generally asymptomatic. If both parents are carriers, their children have a 25% chance to carry no gene (AA), a 50% chance to be carriers (Aa), and a 25% chance to have sickle cell anemia (aa).

Question 65

Binary variables

Answer 65

, also known as dichotomous variables, are variables that can only take on two possible values or categories. Examples include yes/no outcomes, heads/tails in a coin flip, and win/loss in a competition. In this case, oral cancer can either be present or absent during the screening process and can only take on those two distinct categories.

Question 66

Discrete variables

Answer 66

are numeric variables that are obtained by counting and taking values from a set of distinct whole values.

Question 67

Continuous variables

Answer 67

Continuous variables are numeric variables that are obtained by measuring and can, therefore, assume any value within a certain set of real numbers. The value given for a continuous variable can be as small as the instrument of measurement allows. However, the presence or absence of oral cancer is not measured on a numerical score.

Question 68

Ordinal variables

Answer 68

Ordinal variables are organized by ordering or ranking of groups. In the case of oral cancer screening, the presence or absence of the disease is not affected by rank since there is no clear order of the outcome.

Question 69

tetrallogy of fallot

Answer 69

rare congenital condition that consists of four different heart defects: pulmonary trunk stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy, a ventricular septal wall defect, and an overriding aorta. Patients generally have a full repair of TOF when they are infants. Patients with repaired TOF will require antibiotic prophylaxis before dental treatments if the patient has a prosthetic valve, residual shunts, or valvular regurgitation. It is unknown how this patient’s TOF was repaired, so it is best to consult with the patient’s pediatric cardiologist before proceeding with treatment, with or without the use of antibiotics.

Question 70

Hypomineralization of enamel

Answer 70

This is a condition in which enamel mineral content is deficient--> making the enamel softer and more porous. Appearence white or opaque spots on the teeth, especially on anterior teeth. Hypomineralization occurs due to disruptions in the enamel formation process during tooth development. Fluorosis or trauma during development are causes of hypomineralization.

Question 71

A lingual plate is

Answer 71

indicated as a major connector in a removable partial denture primarily when there is insufficient room for a lingual bar. The lingual bar is a common connector used in mandibular partial dentures, but it requires adequate space to be effective and comfortable. If the anatomy of the patient’s mouth (such as the presence of a high floor of the mouth or other structures) does not allow for this space, a lingual plate can provide a suitable alternative.

Question 72

Human papillomavirus (HPV)

Answer 72

group of over 100 viruses, many of which are sexually transmitted as they spread via skin to skin contact. Many HPV subtypes can be asymptomatic or cause benign warts on the skin and mucosa. Others can be cancerous. There are two high risk HPV types: HPV 16 HPV 18. Strains are associated with many cancers oropharynx, larynx, cervix, vagina, penis, anus in both men and women.

Question 73

Epstein Barr

Answer 73

Epstein Barr virus is associated with an increased risk of nasopharyngeal carcinoma and Burkitt’s lymphoma.

Question 74

Schistosomiasis

Answer 74

Schistosomiasis is an infection caused by parasitic flatworms. This infection is associated with bladder cancer but not with cervical cancer.

Question 75

Cytomegalovirus

Answer 75

Cytomegalovirus is usually a subclinical infection (in healthy adults) and causes sore throat and fever. It does not increase the risk of cervical cancer.

Question 76

crepitus

Answer 76

Crepitus is a grinding sound within the TMJ and is often associated with more advanced TMD or degeneration. The sound results from bone-to-bone contact of the mandibular condyle with the articular portion of the temporal bone. Generally, this results from damage to the articular disc and can result in damage to the articular cartilage, mandibular condylar head, mandibular fossa, and articular eminence

Question 77

Locking

Answer 77

Locking is another sign of advanced TMJ dysfunction, usually resulting from articular disc displacement without reduction. Anterior dislocation of the disc relative to the head of the mandibular condyle is most common and results in a “closed lock” that prevents full mouth opening. An “open lock” may also occur when the articular disc is posteriorly displaced, resulting in the inability to close the mouth