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ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY > Body systems > Flashcards

Body systems Flashcards

1
Q

what is the hypothalamus involved in?

A

homeostasis

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2
Q

what does the hypothalamus control?

A

pituitary gland

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3
Q

what shape is the thyroid gland

A

H shaped

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4
Q

what is the thyroid gland wrapped around

A

the trachea in the neck

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5
Q

what does the thyroid gland secrete

A

thyroxine

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6
Q

what does thyroxine control?

A

growth
development
metabolic rates

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7
Q

what does parathyroid glands secrete?

A

parathyrin

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8
Q

what does parathyrin control?

A

blood and tissue calcium levels

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9
Q

what are adrenal glands?

A

2 triangular glands that sit atop of the kidney

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10
Q

what is the structure of the adrenal glands?

A

central medulla surrounded by a cortex

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11
Q

what does the adrenal glands secrete?

A

adrenaline

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12
Q

what is noradrenaline?

A

adrenaline

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13
Q

what does noradrenaline cause?

A

fight or flight response

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14
Q

what does ADH stand for?

A

antidiuretic hormone

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15
Q

what does FSH stand for?

A

follicle stimulating hormone

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16
Q

what does LH stand for?

A

luteinising hormone

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17
Q

what does TSH stand for?

A

thyroid stimulation hormone

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18
Q

what does MSH stand for?

A

melanocyte stimulating hormone

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19
Q

what does GH stand for?

A

growth hormone

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20
Q

what does ACTH stand for?

A

adrenocorticotrophic hormone

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21
Q

what does FSH do?

A

release of ova and sperm

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22
Q

what does LH cause?

A

ovulation

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23
Q

what does TSH secrete?

A

thyroxine

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24
Q

what does MSH secrete?

A

melanin

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25
Q

what does GH cause?

A

dwarfism

giantism bone

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26
Q

what does ACTH secrete?

A

cortisol from adrenal glands

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27
Q

what is peristalsis?

A

when in the digestive tract 1 sheet of muscles runs in circular fashion around intestines while another runs down the length

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28
Q

in peristalsis what do the 2 sheets of muscles do?

A

work against each other to propel the food down the tract

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29
Q

what is the lymphatic system?

A

collection of lymph vessels and 2 glands

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30
Q

what are the 2 glands in the lymphatic system?

A

spleen and thymus

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31
Q

what are the three main roles of the lymphatic system?

A

fluid balance
protection from infection
absorption of fats

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32
Q

what is fluid balance in the lymphatic system?

A

returning lymph to blood from tissues

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33
Q

what is protection from infection in the lymphatic system?

A

produces white blood cells and lymphocytes

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34
Q

what is absorption of fats in lymphatic system?

A

when they transport the digested fats from villi to blood stream

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35
Q

what is the lymphatic system made up of?

A

thin tubes known as lymphatic vessels that run throughout the body

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36
Q

what does the lymphatic system form part of?

A

immune system

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37
Q

what does the lymphatic system help to protect?

A

against infection and disease

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38
Q

what is the lymphatic system compromised of?

A

lymph nodes and 2 major organs

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39
Q

what 2 organs are involved in the production of lymphocytes?

A

tonsils and spleen

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40
Q

what do lymphatic vessels do?

A

drains excess lymph from tissues and transports the clean fluids back to the blood

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41
Q

what are lymph vessels?

A

thin tubes

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42
Q

what do lymph vessels do?

A

transport the lymph fluid through the body via lymph nodes

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43
Q

where can lymph fluid be found?

A

between the cells of tissues

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44
Q

where is lymph fluid brought back to?

A

into the blood

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45
Q

where does lymph travel to?

A

towards the heart

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46
Q

what do lymphocytes do?

A

defend the body against disease

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47
Q

what percentage does lymphocytes normally account for of the circulating blood?

A

1%

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48
Q

what causes the amount of lymphocytes percentage of circulating blood to increase?

A

during infection or inflammation

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49
Q

what do lymphocytes target?

A

specific pathogens as part of the immune response

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50
Q

what is the most common type of lymphocytes?

A

neutrophils

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51
Q

what are neutrophils?

A

cells that consume invading pathogens

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52
Q

what do T cells do?

A

attack pathogens

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53
Q

what do B cells do?

A

produce antibodies against pathogens

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54
Q

what is the size of a kidney?

A

a fist

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55
Q

where are the kidneys located?

A

just below rib cage 1 on each side of the spine

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56
Q

what do healthy kidneys filter?

A

1/2 a cup of blood every minute removing wastes and extra water to make urine

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57
Q

where does urine flow?

A

from the kidneys to the bladder through ureters

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58
Q

what does the bladder store?

A

urine

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59
Q

what is the bladder a part of?

A

urinary tract

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60
Q

what does urine leave the bladder through?

A

the urethra

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61
Q

what is a UTI?

A

bacterial infection

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62
Q

why do UTI’s mainly occur?

A

due to close proximity of rectum to urethra then to bladder

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63
Q

what is the urethra?

A

2 thin tubes of muscle either side of your bladder

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64
Q

what does acute kidney failure cause?

A

permanent loss of kidney function or end stage renal disease

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65
Q

what do people with end - stage renal disease require?

A

either a dialysis or a kidney transplant to survive

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66
Q

what is a dialysis?

A

a mechanical filtration process used to remove toxins and wastes from the body

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67
Q

what are the 4 symptoms of kidney failure?

A

lower output of urine
pain or pressure in chest
swelling of limbs
seizure

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68
Q

what are the 4 parts of the circulatory system?

A

heart
blood vessels
blood
lymphatic system

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69
Q

what are the 3 blood vessels?

A

arteries
veins
capillaries

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70
Q

what are the 4 bloods?

A

red blood cells
white blood cells
platelets
plasma

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71
Q

what are the 4 functions of the circulatory system?

A

To transport nutrients gases and waste products around the body,
To protect the body from infection and blood loss,
To help the body maintain a constant body temperature also known as thermoregulation,
To help maintain fluid balance within the body

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72
Q

what is the cardiac cycle?

A

the performance of the heart from the end of one heartbeat to the beginning of the next

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73
Q

what two periods does the heartbeat consist of?

A

diastole and systole

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74
Q

what is diastole?

A

when the heart muscle relaxes and refills with blood in the atrium

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75
Q

what is the systole?

A

happens following a period of robust contraction and pumping of blood from ventricles

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76
Q

what is the cardiac cycle?

A

the circulation of blood through the heart in every heart beat

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77
Q

what does the right hand side of the heart receive?

A

de - oxygenated blood from the body tissues via the vena cava into the right atrium

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78
Q

where is this de - oxygenated blood forced through?

A

tricuspid valve into the right ventricle

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79
Q

what is the rate of diastolic pressure?

A

80mmm Hg

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80
Q

where is this blood then forced under high pressure to?

A

forced under high pressure by the septum out of the right ventricle to the lungs via pulmonary artery

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81
Q

what does the left hand side of the heart receive?

A

oxygenated blood from the lungs via the pulmonary veins into the left atrium

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82
Q

where does this oxygenated blood then pass through and to?

A

through the bicuspid valve into the left ventricle

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83
Q

where is the oxygenated blood then pumped to after it is in the left ventricle?

A

to the aorta under greater pressure

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84
Q

what is the rate of systolic pressure?

A

12O mm Hg

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85
Q

what does the higher pressure that the oxygenated blood is pumped into the aorta ensure?

A

that the oxygenated blood leaving the heart via the aorta is effectively delivered to other parts of the body via the arteries, arterioles and capillaries

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86
Q

where is blood circulated in cardiac circulation?

A

the heart

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87
Q

where is the blood circulated in pulmonary circulation?

A

heart and lungs

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88
Q

where is blood circulated in systemic circulation?

A

the rest of the body

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89
Q

what is important for the main 3 circulations to work properly together?

A

they must work independently

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90
Q

what does the cardiac cycle move?

A

O2 AND CO2 within the heart

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91
Q

what does the pulmonary circuit move?

A

blood to and from the lungs using pulmonary vein and artery

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92
Q

what does the systemic circuit move?

A

blood to and from the rest of the body to cells, tissues and organs

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93
Q

what do the left and right atrium contract by and what does this do?

A

an electric pulse in the atrium sending blood into ventricles

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94
Q

what is the process of an electric pulse in the atrium sending blood into ventricles called?

A

sinoatrial node

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95
Q

what does the atrioventricular node do?

A

sends a message down the septum to tell the ventricles to contract moving the blood to lungs and body

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96
Q

what is the diastole?

A

relaxation of the heart

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97
Q

what is the systole?

A

the contraction of the heart

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98
Q

what is the heart rate?

A

number of beats per minute

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99
Q

what is the stroke volume?

A

the volume of blood pumped from the left ventricle per beat

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100
Q

what can stroke volume apply to?

A

each of the 2 ventricles of the heart but normally only the left ventricle

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101
Q

what does blood do?

A

circulates throughout our body and delivers essential substances like sugar, oxygen, hormones and nutrients to the body cells and brings away waste products

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102
Q

what does plasma do?

A

transports nutrients, hormones and proteins

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103
Q

what colour is plasma?

A

yellow

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104
Q

what percentage does plasma make up of the body blood vol?

A

55%

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105
Q

what does platelets do?

A

form clots to stop bleeding

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106
Q

what percentage of blood do platelets make?

A

1%

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107
Q

what do red blood cells do?

A

carry fresh oxygen through the body and remove carbon dioxide

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108
Q

what percentage of blood do red blood cells make up?

A

40 - 45%

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109
Q

what is white blood cells apart of?

A

bodys immune system

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110
Q

what do white blood cells do?

A

detect and fight viruses and bacteria

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111
Q

how many types of major white blood cells?

A

5

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112
Q

what percentage of blood does white blood cells make up?

A

1%

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113
Q

what is plasma made up of?

A

suspended fat globules

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114
Q

what is plasma given to do?

A

bring blood pressure up

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115
Q

what are erythrocytes?

A

cellular structures that carry oxygen and carbon dioxide

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116
Q

what shape is erythrocytes?

A

round in shape and have a large surface area

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117
Q

where are erythrocytes made?

A

inside bone marrow

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118
Q

how long do erythrocytes live?

A

120 days and then die

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119
Q

what do erythrocytes contain?

A

haemoglobin

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120
Q

what is haemoglobin?

A

an iron rich protein that carries oxygen to all cells

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121
Q

what are erythrocytes?

A

white blood cells

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122
Q

what are leukocytes?

A

white blood cells

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123
Q

what do leukocytes do?

A

engulf and destroy many bacterias, fungi and viruses

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124
Q

what do leukocytes form?

A

our immune system

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125
Q

what do leukocytes do?

A

protects us from developing infections as much as possible

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126
Q

what are thrombocytes?

A

platelets

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127
Q

what do platelets and fibrin help?

A

the blood clot to stop blood leaking out quite quickly in an accident

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128
Q

what do thrombocytes not have?

A

any colour or nucleus

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129
Q

what is blood pressure?

A

the force that blood exerts when it pushes against the side of blood vessels when moving

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130
Q

what are the two types of blood pressure?

A

systolic and diastolic

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131
Q

what is systolic blood pressure?

A

pressure inside your arteries when your heart is pumping

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132
Q

what is diastolic blood pressure?

A

pressure inside your arteries when your heart is relaxed

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133
Q

what is classed as high blood pressure?

A

anything higher than 140/90

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134
Q

what is normal blood pressure?

A

120/80

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135
Q

what is hyper tension?

A

when your arteries are too narrow or stiff the blood pressure rises and the heart gets overworked and arteries become damaged

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136
Q

what happens to our arteries the older we get?

A

the less elastic they are

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137
Q

what does less elastic arteries lead to?

A

higher blood pressure

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138
Q

what has a negative impact on problems with the cardiovascular system?

A

poor life style factors

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139
Q

what is high blood pressure a sign of?

A

the heart and blood vessels are being overworked

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140
Q

if hypertension is untreated what can the disease lead to?

A

atherosclerosis and congestive heart failure

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141
Q

what does heart disease contribute to?

A

75% of all heart attacks and strokes

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142
Q

what are 5 diseases of the cardiovascular system?

A 
strokes
cardiovascular disease
angina
anaemia 
hypertension
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143
Q

what are the two main causes of strokes?

A

ischaemic and haemorrhagic

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144
Q

what is ischaemic?

A

where the blood supply is stopped because of a blood clot

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145
Q

what is haemorrhagic?

A

where a weakened blood vessel supplying the brain bursts

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146
Q

in both cases of ischaemic and haemorrhagic what happens to the brain cells?

A

they die as they do not receive oxygen leading to serious illness, coma or brain death

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147
Q

what do muscle cells need to work?

A

oxygen and food

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148
Q

what happens if the blood carrying oxygen is stopped from getting to a cell or a group of cells like muscles?

A

then it is starved of oxygen and dies off

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149
Q

what are the 5 symptoms of coronary artery disease?

A 
chest pain
indigestion or nausea
light headedness or sweating
fast heart rate 
shortness of breath
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150
Q

what causes the blockages stopping blood?

A

fatty substances in the coronary arteries

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151
Q

what is atherosclerosis?

A

when over time the walls of your arteries can become furred up with fatty deposits lining the artery lumens

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152
Q

what are the fatty deposits furring up the arteries called?

A

atheroma

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153
Q

what is angina?

A

when a coronary artery becomes partially blocked causing chest pain

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154
Q

what can severe angina cause?

A

a painful feeling of heaviness or tightness usually in the centre of the chest which may spread to the arms, neck, jaw, back or stomach

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155
Q

what is angina often triggered by?

A

physical activity or stressful situations

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156
Q

what are 3 risk factors for angina?

A

high blood pressure
unhealthy cholesterol levels
obesity

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157
Q

what is respiration?

A

the process of exchanging gases between the atmosphere and body cells

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158
Q

what are 4 examples of non respiratory air movements?

A

coughing
sneezing
crying
hiccuping

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159
Q

what is pulmonary ventilation?

A

movement of air into and out of the lungs

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160
Q

what is external respiration?

A

O2 and CO2 exchange between the lungs and the blood

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161
Q

what does respiration transport?

A

O2 and CO2 in the blood

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162
Q

what is internal respiration?

A

O2 and CO2 exchange between systemic blood vessels and tissues

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163
Q

what are 6 organs of the respiratory system?

A 
nose 
pharynx 
larynx
trachea 
bronchi 
lungs
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164
Q

what is the one part of the respiratory system that can be externally seen?

A

the nose

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165
Q

what does the interior of the nose consist of?

A

a nasal cavity divided by a nasal septum

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166
Q

what is the 1st line of defence against airborne antigens?

A

nose

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167
Q

what is the function of the nose?

A

allows air to enter your body, then filters debris and warms and moistens the air

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168
Q

where are olfactory receptors located?

A

in the mucosa on the superior surface

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169
Q

what is cavity lined with?

A

respiratory mucosa and cilia

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170
Q

what do lateral walls have?

A

projections called conchae

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171
Q

what is the nasal cavity separated from?

A

oral cavity by palate

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172
Q

what are the 2 palates of the nasal cavity?

A

anterior hard palate

posterior soft palate

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173
Q

what is the anterior hard palate?

A

bone

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174
Q

what is the posterior soft palate?

A

muscle

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175
Q

what are cavities within bones surrounding the nasal cavity called?

A

sinuses

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176
Q

what is the function of the sinuses?

A

produces a mucus that moisturises the inside of the nose

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177
Q

what is the pharynx?

A

the throat

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178
Q

what are the 3 regions of the pharynx?

A

nasopharynx
oropharynx
laryngopharynx

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179
Q

what is the larynx?

A

voice box

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180
Q

what does the larynx do?

A

routes air and food into proper channels

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181
Q

what does the larynx play a role in?

A

speech

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182
Q

what is the larynx made up of?

A

8 rigid hyaline cartilages and epiglottis

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183
Q

what is the thyroid cartilage?

A

Adams apple

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184
Q

what does the epiglottis do?

A

routes food to the larynx and air toward the trachea

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185
Q

what is speech?

A

intermittent release of expired air while opening and closing the glottis

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186
Q

what is pitch determined by?

A

the length and tension of the vocal cords?

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187
Q

what does loudness of your speech depend on?

A

upon the force of air

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188
Q

what amplifies and enhances sound quality?

A

chambers of pharynx, oral, nasal and sinus cavity

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189
Q

what is sound shaped into language by?

A

muscles of the pharynx, tongue, soft palate and lips

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190
Q

what is the trachea?

A

the windpipe

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191
Q

what is the trachea lined with?

A

pseudo stratified ciliated mucosa

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192
Q

what does trachea branch into?

A

brochi

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193
Q

how many orders of branching do brochi have?

A

23

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194
Q

what size are bronchioles?

A

less than 1 mm in diameter

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195
Q

what isn’t there on bronchioles?

A

no cartilage

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196
Q

what do lungs occupy?

A

most of the thoracic cavity

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197
Q

where is the apex near?

A

the clavicle

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198
Q

what does the base of the lungs rest on?

A

the diaphragm

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199
Q

how many lobes does the left lung have?

A

2

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200
Q

how many lobes does the right lung have?

A

3

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201
Q

where does gas exchange take place?

A

within the alveoli

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202
Q

what covers external surfaces of alveoli?

A

pulmonary capillaries

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203
Q

what is pulmonary ventilation?

A

the process of inspiration and expiration

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204
Q

what is pleural space?

A

the cavity between the lungs and underneath the chest wall

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205
Q

what stops the lungs from collapsing?

A

differences in lungs and pleural space pressures

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206
Q

what is atelectasis?

A

lung collapse

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207
Q

what is alveolar ventilation rate? (AVR)

A

flow of gases into and out of the alveoli during a particular time

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208
Q

what is the sum of AVR?

A

AVR = frequency X dead space

ml/min. breaths/min. ml/breath

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209
Q

what decreases AVR?

A

rapid shallow breathing

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210
Q

what is external respiration?

A

oxygen movement into the blood and carbon dioxide movement out of the blood

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211
Q

what is blood leaving the lungs during external respiration?

A

oxygen rich and carbon dioxide poor

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212
Q

what is the oxygen transport in the blood attached to?

A

haemoglobin

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213
Q

what is carbon dioxide transported in the blood transported in?

A

plasma as bicarbonate ion

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214
Q

what is internal respiration?

A

exchange of gases between blood and body cells

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215
Q

what happens during internal respiration to the two main gases?

A

carbon dioxide diffuses out of tissue to blood and oxygen diffuses from blood into tissue

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216
Q

what does pontine respiratory centers interact with?

A

the medullary respiratory centres to smooth the respiratory pattern

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217
Q

what does ventral respiratory group contain?

A

rhythmic generators whose output drives respiration

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218
Q

what does dorsal respiratory group integrate?

A

peripheral sensory input and modifies the rhythms generated by the ventral respiratory group?

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219
Q

what physical factors affect breathing?

A

increased body temperature
exercise
talking
coughing

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220
Q

what emotional factors affect breathing?

A

fight or flight

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221
Q

what chemical factors affect breathing?

A

carbon dioxide levels if increased increase respiration

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222
Q

what is asthma?

A

chronic inflamed hypersensitive bronchiole passages

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223
Q

what are 5 effects of cigarettes?

A 
cilia dissapear
excess mucus produced
lung congestion increases lung infections 
lining of bronchioles thicken
bronchioles lose elasticity
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224
Q

what are smokers at an increased risk of?

A

cancer of the larynx
cancer of oral cavity
cancer of oesophagus
cancer of bladder kidneys or pancreas

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225
Q

what is the skeletal system divided up into?

A

axial skeleton and appendicular skeleton

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226
Q

what is included in the axial skeleton?

A

skull

spinal column

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227
Q

what is included in the appendicular skeleton?

A

limbs

girdle

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228
Q

what are 3 functions of the bones?

A

support the body
protects the soft organs
blood cell formation

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229
Q

how many bones does the skeleton have?

A

206

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230
Q

what are the 2 basic types of bone tissue?

A

compact bone which is rigid

spongy bone which are small needle-like pieces of bones

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231
Q

what is the shape of flat bone?

A

curved such as the skull

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232
Q

what does the flat bone do?

A

protection

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233
Q

what is the shape of irregular bones?

A

odd shapes such as vertebrae and pelvis

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234
Q

what is the shape of long bones?

A

they are longer than they are wide such as arms and legs

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235
Q

what is the shape of short bones?

A

usually square in shape and cube like such as wrist or ankle

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236
Q

what is the shape of sesamoid bones?

A

round bone such as kneecap

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237
Q

what do irregular bones do?

A

protect the internal organs

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238
Q

what do long bones do?

A

support weight

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239
Q

what do short bones do?

A

provide stability

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240
Q

what do sesamoid do?

A

protect parts that cover tendons

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241
Q

what is another name for flat bone?

A

frontal

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242
Q

what is another name for short bone?

A

carpal

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243
Q

what is another name for irregular bone?

A

vertebra

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244
Q

what is another name for sesamoid bone?

A

patella

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245
Q

what is another name for long bone?

A

femur

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246
Q

what does the axial skeleton form?

A

the longitudinal part of the body

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247
Q

what is the axial skeleton divided into?

A

skull
vertebral column
rib cage

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248
Q

what does the axial skeleton do?

A

supports and protects organs of head, neck and trunk

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249
Q

what does the skull include?

A

cranium

facial bones

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250
Q

what does the hyoid bone include?

A

anchors tongue

muscles associated with swallowing

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251
Q

what does the vertebral column include?

A

vertebrae

disks

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252
Q

what does the bony thorax include?

A

ribs

sternum

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253
Q

how many sutured bones in the cranium?

A

8

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254
Q

how many facial bones are sutured and mandible?

A

13 sutured

1 mandible

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255
Q

what does the cranium do?

A

encases brain

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256
Q

what are paranasal sinuses?

A

hollow portions of bones surrounding the nasal cavity

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257
Q

what is the hyoid bone?

A

the only bone that does not articulate with another bone

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258
Q

what does the hyoid bone do?

A

serves as a moveable base for the tongue and other muscle attachments

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259
Q

what is the vertebrae separated by?

A

intervertebral discs made of cartilage

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260
Q

what shape is the spine?

A

in a normal s curvature

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261
Q

what does the appendicular skeleton include?

A

bones of limbs

bones that anchor them to the axial skeleton

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262
Q

what is the pectoral girdle?

A

clavicle

scapula

263
Q

what is the upper limbs?

A

arms

264
Q

what is the pelvic girdle?

A

sacrum

coccyx

265
Q

what is the lower limbs?

A

legs

266
Q

what is articulation?

A

where joins meet connect and are formed

267
Q

what is the thoracic cage made up of?

A

ribs
thoracic vertebrae
sternum
costal cartilages

268
Q

what are true ribs directly attached to?

A

the sternum

269
Q

what are 3 false ribs joined to?

A

the 7th rib

270
Q

what do joints do?

A

hold the skeleton together and support movement

271
Q

what is joint function?

A

range of motion

272
Q

what is cartilage?

A

a soft cushioning substance which covers the ends of the bones

273
Q

what does cartilage act as?

A

a shock absorber

274
Q

what does cartilage reduce?

A

the rubbing of the bone surfaces

275
Q

what are ligaments?

A

strong bands which connect bones to bones at the joint

276
Q

what do ligaments do?

A

allow movement of that joint but are strong enough to stop movement outside the normal range

277
Q

what is a joint?

A

where 2 bones come together

278
Q

what are fibrous joints?

A

immovable joints such as connecting bones that have no movement such as skull and pelvis

279
Q

what are cartilaginous joints?

A

slightly moveable joints like the bones that are attached by cartilage which have little movement such as spine or ribs

280
Q

what are synovial joints?

A

freely moveable joints, this fluid helps lubricate and protect the bones

281
Q

what do hinge joints allow?

A

extension and retraction of an appendage such as elbow and knee

282
Q

what does a ball and socket joint allow?

A

allows for radial movement in almost any direction

283
Q

where are ball and socket joints found?

A

in the hips and shoulders

284
Q

what happens in gliding joints?

A

bones slide past each other

285
Q

what are gliding joints?

A

mid carpal and mid tarsal joints such as hands and feet

286
Q

when does a saddle joint occur?

A

when touching surfaces of 2 bones have both concave and convex regions with the shapes of the 2 bones complementing one other and allowing a wide range of movement. such as the thumbs

287
Q

when can the cartilage in the hip joint degenerate?

A

with age and use

288
Q

what happens when the cartilage in the hip joint degenerates?

A

tissue becomes frayed and rough exposing the bone surfaces beneath

289
Q

what does the degeneration of the cartilage in the hip joint cause?

A

pain when moving

290
Q

what is the condition of degeneration of the cartilage in the hip joint called?

A

osteoarthritis

291
Q

what are the risk factors of osteoarthritis?

A

obesity

292
Q

what are the symptoms of osteoarthritis?

A

stiffness
pain
tenderness

293
Q

what also may form around the joint with osteoarthritis to cause further pain?

A

bone spurs

294
Q

what is the main action of the Deltoid?

A

raises your arm sideways at the shoulder

295
Q

what is the main action of the biceps?

A

bends your arm at the elbow

296
Q

what is the main action of the abdominals?

A

pull in your abdomen and flexes your trunk so you can bend forward

297
Q

what is the main action of the quadriceps?

A

straightens your leg at the knee and keeps it straight when you stand

298
Q

what is the main action of the pectorals?

A

raises your arm at the shoulder and draws it across your chest

299
Q

what is the main action of the latissimus dorsi?

A

pulls your arm down at the shoulder and draws it behind your back

300
Q

what is the main action of the trapezius?

A

holds and rotates your shoulders

moves your head back and sideways

301
Q

what is the main action of the triceps?

A

straightens your arm at the elbow

302
Q

what is the main action of the gluteals?

A

pull your leg back at the hip

raise your leg sideways at the hip

303
Q

what is the main action of the hamstrings?

A

bends your leg at the knee

304
Q

what’s the main action of the gastrocnemius?

A

straightens the ankle joint so you can stand on tiptoes

305
Q

what are 4 types of connective tissue?

A

bone
blood
cartilage
tendon

306
Q

what are erythrocytes?

A

red blood cells

307
Q

what are leukocytes?

A

white blood cell

308
Q

what are thrombocytes?

A

platelets

309
Q

what do bones store?

A

minerals such as calcium and phosphorus

310
Q

what are 3 functions of the muscular system?

A

enables us to move our body parts
protect and keep in place our abdominal organs
help in the circulation of our blood

311
Q

when can muscles contract?

A

can only contract if one muscle contracts to bring 2 bones together

312
Q

how do muscles work?

A

always in pairs

313
Q

what does agonists do?

A

contracts to start a movement

314
Q

what does antagonists do?

A

relaxes to allow movement to take place

315
Q

what is nervous tissue?

A

internal communication

316
Q

what is involved in nervous tissue?

A

brain
spinal cord
nerves

317
Q

what does muscle tissue do?

A

contracts to cause movement

318
Q

what does epithelial tissue do?

A

forms boundaries between different environments
also protects from outside things
secretes
filters what to eat so doesn’t absorb everything
absorbs vitamin D

319
Q

what does connective tissue do?

A

supports
protects
binds tissues together

320
Q

what is isometric contraction?

A

muscles contract but no movement

e.g: tug of war

321
Q

what is concentric contraction?

A

muscles contract, shorten and increase tension

e.g: bicep curl

322
Q

what is eccentric contraction?

A

muscle contracts, lengthens

e.g: like carrying a load but in opposite direction

323
Q

how many bones are muscles attached to?

A

2 or more different bones

324
Q

what is a tendon?

A

inelastic soft tissues made of strong collagen fibres

325
Q

what does a muscle end in?

A

a tendon

326
Q

what are the fibres of the tendon embedded in?

A

periostium

327
Q

what does the periostium do?

A

anchors the tendon strongly and spreads the force of the contraction

328
Q

what do tendons join muscle to?

A

bone

329
Q

what does ligaments join bone to?

A

bone

330
Q

what are muscles attached to?

A

bone by tendons

331
Q

what is a fascia?

A

a strong sheet of areolar tissue to which muscles can be attached

332
Q

where is fascia found?

A

in the face

333
Q

what needs to happen to make facial expressions?

A

muscles need to move

334
Q

what is Duchennes muscular dystrophy?

A

progressive weakness and wasting of muscles

335
Q

what type of disease is duchennes muscular dystrophy?

A

genetic disease

336
Q

who mostly inherits duchennes muscular dystrophy?

A

males

337
Q

what are symptoms of duchennes muscular dystrophy?

A

history fo motor dev. delay
clumsiness
frequent falls
difficulty climbing stairs, running and riding tricycle

338
Q

what is a fixator muscle?

A

holds surrounding bones and joints steady to from a stable base for movement

339
Q

what is a synergist muscle?

A

stabilises the movement

340
Q

in duchennes muscular dystrophy when breathing muscles become more affected what happens?

A

life threatening infections are common and actually leads to death by age 15-18 years

341
Q

what muscles extend or straighten a body part?

A

extensor

342
Q

what muscles are controlled by the autonomic muscle system and are involuntary?

A

smooth

343
Q

what voluntary muscles are striated?

A

skeletal

344
Q

what muscles work close to the joint?

A

flexor

345
Q

where is rectus abdominus located?

A

front of abdomen

346
Q

what action does rectus abdominis do?

A

flexes trunk forward

347
Q

where is biceps brachii located?

A

front of forearm

348
Q

what action does biceps brachii do?

A

flexes forearm and turns it upwards

349
Q

where is triceps brachii located?

A

back of forearm

350
Q

what is the action of the triceps brachii?

A

extends the forearm and helps adductors

351
Q

where is latissimus dorsi?

A

lower back from spine

352
Q

what is the action of the latissimus dorsi?

A

adducts and inwardly rotates arm

353
Q

what are the 4 stages to food processing?

A

ingestion
digestion
absorption
egestion

354
Q

what is ingestion?

A

taking in food

355
Q

what is digestion?

A

breaking down food into nutrients

356
Q

what is absorption?

A

taking in nutrients by cells

357
Q

what is egestion?

A

removing any leftover wastes

358
Q

what is the digestive system used for?

A

breaking down food into nutrients which then pass into the circulatory system and taken to where they are needed in the body

359
Q

what is the duodenum?

A

the tube that runs from the stomach to the small intestine

360
Q

what does the pancreas secrete?

A

a juice to reduce the acidity of chyme

361
Q

what is the jejunum?

A

is where the majority of absorption takes place

362
Q

what is the ileum?

A

the last portion of the small intestine

363
Q

what does the ileum do?

A

compacts the left overs to pass through into the large intestine

364
Q

what does bile produced in liver but stored in gall bladder do?

A

breaks down fats

365
Q

what is the large intestine used for?

A

to absorb water from the waste material leftover

to produce vitamin K and some B using the helpful bacteria that live in the large intestine

366
Q

what is the antagonist pair of biceps?

A

triceps

367
Q

what is the antagonist pair of the back?

A

abdominus

368
Q

what is the antagonist pair of the abs?

A

erector spinae

369
Q

what is the antagonist pair of the shoulders?

A

chest and back

370
Q

what is the antagonist pair of the quadriceps?

A

hamstring

371
Q

what is the antagonist pair of the tibias anterior (shin)?

A
372
Q

what is egestion?

A

when all leftover waste is compacted and stored in the rectum waiting for the rectum to be full so the anal sphincter can loosen and the waste passes out of the body

373
Q

where is the liver located?

A

right quadrant of the abdominal cavity

374
Q

what is the liver divided into?

A

right and left lobes

375
Q

what does the liver do?

A

converts food nutrients into usable substances

secretes a yellowish-brown to greenish substance called bile

376
Q

where is bile stored?

A

gall bladder

377
Q

what does the liver store?

A

glucose in the form of glycogen

378
Q

what does the liver secrete?

A

bilirubin

379
Q

what is bilirubin?

A

a bile pigment that is combined with bile and excreted into the duodenum

380
Q

what does the gallbladder store?

A

bile from the liver

381
Q

what connects for the flow of bile?

A

liver
gall bladder
duodenum

382
Q

what does the gallbladder release?

A

bile when it is needed for emulsification of fat

383
Q

what is emulsification?

A

breakdown

384
Q

what does the pancreas secrete?

A

a pancreatic juice that includes various enzymes such as amylase and lipase and an endocrine gland

385
Q

what is a stomach ulcer?

A

an ulceration of the mucosal lining of either the stomach or duodenum

386
Q

what can a stomach ulcer be caused by?

A

increased stomach acid

bacteria

387
Q

what is coeliac disease?

A

intolerance to gluten

388
Q

what does eating gluten in coeliac disease trigger?

A

triggers an immune response which damages your small intestines lining villi and prevents it from absorbing some nutrients which causes malabsorption

389
Q

what does the cerebrum do?

A

thinking

390
Q

what does the cerebellum do?

A

processes sensory info from body

391
Q

what does the medulla oblongata do?

A

controls involuntary processes such as blood pressure and temperature

392
Q

what does the cerebrum include?

A

occipital
frontal
parietal
temporal

393
Q

what does the cerebellum include

A

brain stem

394
Q

what are nerves made up of?

A

neurons wrapped in connective tissue

395
Q

what are nerves?

A

the basic unit of structure and function of the nervous system

396
Q

what is a neuron?

A

nerve cells

397
Q

what are the 3 parts of a neuron?

A

cell body
dendrites
axon

398
Q

what does the cell body of a neuron include?

A

the nucleus

399
Q

what do dendrites of a neuron do?

A

receives impulses and delivers them to the cell

400
Q

what does an axon of a neuron do?

A

is the nerve fibre and carry impulses away from the cell

401
Q

what do schwann cells make?

A

myelin

402
Q

what is myelin?

A

a fatty layer that wraps spirally around the axon

403
Q

what is an axon?

A

nerve fibre

404
Q

what does schwann cells do?

A

speeds transmission

405
Q

what is a node of ranvier in nerves?

A

tiny space between 2 schwann cells that allow nerve impulse to jump to the next node

406
Q

in nerves what is synapse?

A

small gap between one neuron and the next

407
Q

in nerves what is a neurotransmitter?

A

chemical substance which is secreted into the synapse allowing impulse to move across to the next neuron

408
Q

what does the central nervous system consist of?

A

the brain and spinal cord

409
Q

what is the CNS responsible for?

A

sensory activities
storing memories
emotions

410
Q

what does PNS stand for?

A

peripheral nervous system

411
Q

what does the PNS consist of?

A

cranial and spinal nerves

412
Q

what does the PNS do?

A

brings messages to and from the CNS to the rest of the body

413
Q

what is the somatic nervous system responsible for?

A

responsible for muscle movement

414
Q

what is the autonomic nervous system responsible for?

A

involuntary actions such as heart beat

415
Q

what is the sympathetic nervous system responsible for?

A

flight or fight response

416
Q

what is the parasympathetic nervous system responsible for?

A

rest and relax actions

417
Q

what does sympathetic nervous system do?

A

speeds up heart when excited or frightened

418
Q

what does the parasympathetic nervous system do?

A

slows down sympathetic response

419
Q

what are the main parts of the brain?

A 
cerebrum
cerebellum
brain stem 
frontal lobes
parietal lobes
temporal lobes
occipital lobes
420
Q

what part of the brain controls movements and balance?

A

cerebellum

421
Q

what is the function of the brain stem?

A

breathing and heart rate

422
Q

what part of the brain stores data?

A

cerebrum

423
Q

if a person cannot walk after an accident what part of the brain was injured?

A

cerebellum

424
Q

where is the spinal cord?

A

attached to brain stem

425
Q

how do we call the long fibres that connect the brain and spinal cord with the organs?

A

peripheral nervous system

426
Q

if you cannot feel a match burning you which nerves have been damaged?

A

sensory

427
Q

what happens to the cortex of the brain during Alzheimers?

A

the cortex shrivels up damaging the areas involved in thinking planning and remembering

428
Q

what happens to the ventricles of the brain during Alzheimers?

A

they fill with cerebrospinal fluid and grow larger

429
Q

what happens to the hippocampus of the brain during Alzheimers?

A

shrinks severely

430
Q

what is the hippocampus of the brain critical to?

A

formation of new memories

431
Q

what is the cerebral cortex responsible for?

A

language and info processing

432
Q

what causes Parkinson disease?

A

when levels of dopamine decrease causing a loss of control over body movement

433
Q

what is dopamine?

A

a neurotransmitter

434
Q

what are symptoms of Parkinson disease?

A

stooped posture
tremor
short ruffling steps
hips and knees slightly flexed

435
Q

what happens to the immune system in multiple sclerosis?

A

white blood cells attack the myelin that covers nerve fibres

436
Q

what does the attack on myelin in multiple sclerosis cause?

A

communication problems between brain and rest of body

437
Q

what eventually happens to the nerves in multiple sclerosis?

A

deteriorate or become permanently scarred

438
Q

what does the spleen do?

A

filters blood
destroys worn out blood cells
forms blood cells in foetus

439
Q

what does the thymus do?

A

helps mature T cells, white blood cells that originate in the bone marrow

440
Q

what do T cells do?

A

directly ‘kill’ viruses

441
Q

what does the thymus also help get rid of?

A

white blood cells that do not recognise viruses or bacteria

442
Q

what does the spleen do by filtering the blood?

A

removes foreign bodies, microbes and faulty red blood cells into its red pulp

443
Q

what does the spleen do in its white pulp?

A

produces lymphocytes and makes antibodies essential to immune function

444
Q

what are antibodies?

A

a protective protein that latches onto pathogens so body can recognise and remove it

445
Q

what do cytotoxic T cells do?

A

kill virus infected and damaged cells

446
Q

what do helper T cells do?

A

help cytotoxic T cells and B cells in their immune functions

447
Q

what do B cells do?

A

produce antibodies

448
Q

what are tonsils?

A

small masses of lymphoid tissue around the pharynx

449
Q

what do tonsils do?

A

trap and remove bacteria and other foreign materials

450
Q

what causes tonsillitis?

A

congestion with bacteria

451
Q

where is peyers patches found?

A

wall of the small intestine

452
Q

what do peyers patches do?

A

capture and destroy bacteria in the intestine

453
Q

what do lymphocytes do?

A

defend the body against disease

454
Q

what do lymphocytes do?

A

target specific pathogens as part of immune response

455
Q

what are neutrophils?

A

phagocytes

456
Q

what do phagocytes do?

A

consume invading pathogens

457
Q

what do T cells do?

A

attack pathogens

458
Q

what do B cells do?

A

produce antibodies against pathogens

459
Q

what is Hodgkins lymphoma?

A

a type of cancer of lymphocytes

460
Q

what is the cause of Hodgkins lymphoma?

A

no specific cause but HIV, and certain rare genetic disorders can cause it

461
Q

what are symptoms of Hodgkins lymphoma?

A 
fever
night sweats
shortness of breath
weight loss 
non painful enlarged lymph nodes in neck arm or groin
462
Q

what are symptoms of Hodgkins lymphoma?

A 
fever
night sweats
shortness of breath
weight loss 
non painful enlarged lymph nodes in neck arm or groin
463
Q

what is leukaemia?

A

a cancer of blood cells usually from bone marrow

464
Q

what does leukaemia result in?

A

high number of abnormal cells

465
Q

what type of blood cell is leukaemia a cancer of?

A

white blood ells but can start in other blood cell types

466
Q

what are 8 symptoms of leukaemia?

A 
nose bleeds
weight loss
swollen lymph nodes
night sweats
fever
red spots on skin
bone pain
bleeding easily
467
Q

what is the size of the kidneys?

A

size of a fist

468
Q

where are the kidneys located?

A

just below the rib cage one on each side of your spine

469
Q

what do healthy kidneys filter?

A

half a cup of blood every minute removing wastes and extra water to make urine

470
Q

where does the urine flow from in the renal system?

A

kidneys to bladder through the ureters

471
Q

what are the ureters?

A

two thin tubes of muscle

472
Q

where are the ureters located?

A

one on each side of bladder

473
Q

what does the bladder store?

A

urine

474
Q

what is part of the urinary tract?

A

kidneys
ureter
bladder

475
Q

what does urine leave the bladder through?

A

urethra

476
Q

what is a nephron in renal system?

A

part of kidney that produces urine and removes waste substances from blood

477
Q

what is a glomerulus?

A

a special blood vessel

478
Q

what happens in each nephron?

A

the glomerulus keeps blood cells and needed substances in while letting extra fluid and wastes out

479
Q

what does each kidney contain?

A

about 1 million nephrons

480
Q

where does blood enter the kidney?

A

through the renal artery

481
Q

where does urine travel to the bladder through?

A

a ureter

482
Q

as blood flows into each nephron what does it enter?

A

the glomerulus

483
Q

what does the glomerulus allow?

A

smaller molecules, wastes, mostly water to pass through into the tubules

484
Q

what are the 2 layers of the uterus?

A

endometrium and myometrium

485
Q

what does endometrium provide?

A

nourishment and protection for developing baby

486
Q

what happens in endometrium?

A

has a rich blood supply that reacts to hormonal changes every month that prepare it to receive fertilised ovum

487
Q

what happens in myometrium?

A

muscle contractions assist in moving foetus through the birth canal at delivery

488
Q

what is endometriosis?

A

a condition in which cells similar to those in the endometrium grow outside the uterus

489
Q

in endometriosis where do the cells grow?

A

on ovaries, Fallopian tubes and tissue around uterus

490
Q

what is the main symptom for endometriosis?

A

pelvic pain

491
Q

what does endometriosis result in?

A

infertility

492
Q

what is polycystic ovary syndrome?

A

where tiny cysts develop in the ovaries

493
Q

what does polycystic ovary syndrome affect?

A

balance of hormones is altered and affects the way ovaries work

494
Q

what is thought to be the cause of polycystic ovary syndrome?

A

abnormal hormone levels

495
Q

what can polycystic ovary syndrome make more difficult?

A

to get pregnant

496
Q

what does polycystic ovary syndrome cause to the body?

A

irregular periods
unwanted hair on your body and face
acne

497
Q

where are the testes located?

A

they hand between the thighs in the scrotum

498
Q

what is the scrotum?

A

sac of skin

499
Q

what do the testes produce?

A

both sperm and testosterone

500
Q

where is the epididymis located?

A

rests atop each testis

501
Q

what dose epididymis store?

A

sperm

502
Q

what does vas deferens transport?

A

sperm from the epididymis to the seminal vesicle

503
Q

what do seminal vesicles do?

A

nourishes sperm rich in glucose

504
Q

what dose the prostate gland contain?

A

substances that neutralise PH of vagina

505
Q

what do prostate gland produce?

A

fluids that become part of semen

506
Q

what is semen?

A

fluid that carries sperm through the urethra and out of the body

507
Q

what does the penis contain?

A

erectile tissue

508
Q

what does sperm pass through to get out of the body?

A

urethra

509
Q

what is the urethra in male reproductive system?

A

tube that carries urine from the bladder to outside of body as well as sperm outside of the body

510
Q

what is hydrocele?

A

a type of swelling in the scrotum

511
Q

when does hydrocele occur?

A

when fluid collects in the thin sheath surround a testicle

512
Q

where is hydrocele common?

A

in newborns

513
Q

when does hydrocele disappear in newborns?

A

without treatment by age 1

514
Q

what are the causes of hydrocele?

A

inflammation of an injury or infection within the scrotum

515
Q

what is the treatment of hydrocele?

A

fluid is removed through a hollow needle

516
Q

what is prostate cancer?

A

when abnormal cells develop in prostate

517
Q

what are the symptoms of prostate cancer?

A 
sexual dysfunction 
weakness or numbness in legs 
changes in bladder habits
blood in the urine 
frequent pain
518
Q

what is spina bifida?

A

a babys spine and spinal cord does not develop properly in the womb causing a gap in the spine

519
Q

what is spina bifida a type of?

A

neural tube defect

520
Q

what is the neural tube?

A

the structure that eventually develops into the baby’s brain and spinal cord

521
Q

what are the 3 things that can increase the risk of getting spina bifida?

A

low folic acid intake during pregnancy
family history of it
medicines such as valproic acid which prevents seizures during pregnancy

522
Q

what is cerebral palsy?

A

Brain injury of movement

523
Q

what causes cerebral palsy?

A

damage to parts of the brain that control movement, balance and posture

524
Q

what are treatments for cerebral palsy?

A 
physiotherapy
speech and language therapy
occupational therapy
medicines
surgery
525
Q

what is rubella?

A

an infection caused by rubella virus

526
Q

what physically happens with rubella?

A

a rash lasts for 3 says and usually starts on face and spreads to rest of body and is sometimes itchy

527
Q

what are symptoms of rubella?

A

rash
fever
sore throat
fatigue

528
Q

what happens if a pregnant woman has rubella?

A

can miscarry
give birth to babies with deafness or blindness
baby can have congenital heart defect
baby can have learning difficulties

529
Q

what is the treatment for rubella?

A

MMR vaccine

530
Q

what is a gamete?

A

reproductive cells

531
Q

what are male gametes?

A

sperm

532
Q

what are female gametes?

A

ovum

533
Q

how many chromosomes do each gamete have?

A

23

534
Q

what is it called when gametes join?

A

zygote

535
Q

what happens when both gametes join?

A

first stage of the development of the foetus begin

536
Q

what is meiosis?

A

the division that produces gametes with 1/2 normal number of chromosomes

537
Q

what weeks is first trimester of pregnancy?

A

1-12 weeks

538
Q

what weeks is second trimester of pregnancy?

A

12-28 weeks

539
Q

what weeks is third trimester of pregnancy?

A

29-40 weeks

540
Q

what are the 4 types of birth delivery?

A

normal delivery
Caesarean section
cupping
forceps

541
Q

what is normal delivery in pregnancy?

A

vaginal birth

542
Q

what is Caesarean section in pregnancy?

A

operation using general anaesthetic or spinal anaesthetic

543
Q

what are 4 reasons that caesarean section would happen?

A

breech birth
baby not made sufficient descent into pelvis
previous Caesarean section
baby in distress

544
Q

what is cupping in pregnancy?

A

cup like appliance with suction machine creates a vacuum to deliver baby

545
Q

what is forceps in pregnancy?

A

large spoon like instruments fit around baby head and gentle traction

546
Q

what does the placenta link together?

A

the mothers blood stream to the developing embryo or foetus

547
Q

what is teratogens?

A

environmental factors that produce a birth defect

548
Q

what are 4 things that can cause a birth defect?

A

psychoactive drugs
environmental hazards and pollutants
incompatible blood types of parents
other prenatal factors

549
Q

what are 3 examples of psychoactive drugs that can cause a birth defect?

A

caffeine
alcohol
nicotine

550
Q

what are 2 examples of incompatible blood types of parents that cause a birth defect in pregnancy?

A

Rh - positive and Rh - negative

maternal diseases like German measles, HIV and AIDS

551
Q

what are 3 examples of other prenatal factors that cause birth defects in pregnancy?

A

maternal age and risks
maternal emotions states and stress
paternal factors

552
Q

where are the receptors for both temperatures located?

A

in peripheral skin towards internal organs

553
Q

what does hypothalamus send?

A

nerve impulses to muscles, sweat glands and skin arterioles via the autonomic nerves to cause changes that counteracts external changes

554
Q

what is shivering?

A

rhythmic involuntary contractions of the skeletal muscles

555
Q

what does muscular activity generate?

A

heat for example when your cold you shiver

556
Q

what type of surface area to volume ratio do small bodies have?

A

large surface area compared to volume

557
Q

what do small bodies lose?

A

heat to their surroundings very quickly

558
Q

what type of surface area to volume ratio do larger bodies have?

A

small surface area compared to their volume

559
Q

what do people with larger bodies have difficulties with?

A

overheating

560
Q

babies have a larger surface area to volume ratio than?

A

adults

561
Q

what can’t babies do according to heat?

A

cannot effect changes to gain or lose heat for themselves

562
Q

what are babies more at risk of?

A

developing hyperthermia or hypothermia

563
Q

what do babies not do?

A

sweat that much or shiver

564
Q

what is it important to do with babies to protect them?

A

wrap babies warming in cold weather including the extremities and head

565
Q

when does fever tend to occur and why?

A

as a result of infection because bacteria and viruses release toxins

566
Q

what is the body reaction to fever?

A

to raise the temperature to try to neutralise the averobe invaders

567
Q

what do individuals with untreated diabetes mellitus have?

A

high plasma glucose levels

568
Q

what do high plasma glucose levels lead to?

A

other biochemical disturbances

569
Q

what does the plasma glucose do in healthy people?

A

hardly varies at all because liver cells under control of insulin convert glucose into liver glycogen for storage

570
Q

what must happen to maintain a balance of water in the body?

A

fluid intake must roughly equal fluid output

571
Q

what is fluid intake through?

A

liquids drunk

food eaten

572
Q

what is fluid outtake through?

A 
urine
falles
sweating
expired air 
vomiting 
fevers
573
Q

what are kidneys and the renal system responsible for?

A

maintaining the composition and volume of body fluids

574
Q

what do kidneys filter out?

A

many waste products of protein enzymes, hormones and drugs from blood

575
Q

what is hypothermia?

A

any body temperature lower than 35 degrees Celsius

576
Q

when can hypothermia occur?

A

at any age if someone is exposed to cold and damp for a long time

577
Q

who does hypothermia mostly happen to?

A

older people living in poorly heated houses with physical or mental disabilities

578
Q

what are the symptoms of hypothermia?

A

drowsiness
low pulse
low breathing rates
confusion

579
Q

what does hypothermia eventually lead to?

A

coma and death if untreated

580
Q

what declines during the onset of hypothermia?

A

brain function meaning people do not even feel cold and therefore can’t take the appropriate action

581
Q

what must happen to people who have hypothermia?

A

must be warmed up slowly

582
Q

what is dehydration?

A

when the water content of the body is too low

583
Q

what are the symptoms of dehydration?

A

feeling thirsty
dry lips
dry mouth
producing only a small volume of dark urine

584
Q

why does dehydration happen?

A

due to a lack of water

585
Q

what is sever dehydration cause?

A

life threatening with drowsiness and coma preceding death

586
Q

how is dehydration treated?

A

by supplying fluid either by mouth or intravenously

587
Q

what is cardiac output?

A

quantity of blood expelled from heart in 1 minute

588
Q

what does an average individual have a stroke vol of?

A

70ml and heart rate of 60-80 beats / min

589
Q

what do you do to calculate cardiac output?

A

multiple heart rate by stroke vol

590
Q

what is Huntington’s disease?

A

rare genetic disease that is caused by a faulty dominant allele

591
Q

what age are people normally by the time signs and symptoms are apparent during Huntington’s disease?

A

in their 40’s

592
Q

what does Huntington’s disease cause?

A

cause brain damage resulting in personality changes, irritability, mood swings, dementia and fidgety or jerky movements

593
Q

what is amniocentesis?

A

when amniotic fluid is taken through abdominal wall and uterine wall by a hollow needle to screen for abnormalities in developing foetus

594
Q

what does amniotic fluid surround?

A

foetus

595
Q

what would amniotic fluid be analysed by?

A

biochemical tests

596
Q

what does amniocentesis have an additional risk of?

A

miscarriage

597
Q

when is amniocentesis carried out?

A

can only be carried out between 15th-20th week of pregnancy

598
Q

what do humans have according to body temp?

A

efficient thermoregulatory homeostatic processes

599
Q

what happens to water components of body when temperature gets to -3o.c?

A

they would freeze

600
Q

what would happen to your body if its about 50+.c ?

A

enzymes and body proteins would be permanently denatured

601
Q

what plays an important role in homeostatic regulation?

A

skin

602
Q

what is the order of homeostatic control of falling body temp?

A

body temperature falls,
thermal receptors in skin and around internal organs stimulated,
temperature control centre in brain switches on heat-conserving mechanisms,
sweat glands close up so that no sweat pours onto skin surfaces and muscles beneath skin contract causing shivering and goosebump effect,
arterioles in skin contract causing decreased blood glow to skin so that skin becomes cold and pale

603
Q

behaviour altered because of drop in body temperature?

A

clothes increased,
curled up posture,
hot food and drink taken,
response - body temp increased

604
Q

what happen if processes for maintaining physical and chemical regulation can sometimes fail?

A

can be life threatening

605
Q

what is the heart surrounded by?

A

a tough membrane called the pericardial which contains a thin film of fluid to prevent friction

606
Q

what is the heart?

A

a double pump

607
Q

what does each side of the heart consist of?

A

a muscular upper chamber - atrium and a lower chamber - ventricle

608
Q

what does the right side of the heart pump?

A

deoxygenated blood from the veins to the lungs

609
Q

what does the left side of the heart pump?

A

oxygenated blood from lungs to body

610
Q

what are the 2 sides of the heart separated by?

A

a septum

611
Q

how does blood pass through the heart?

A

2 times through in any 1 cycle

612
Q

what does each 4 chambers of the heart have?

A

a major blood vessel entering or leaving it

613
Q

what do veins enter?

A

the atria

614
Q

arteries leave what?

A

the ventricles

615
Q

what is pulmonary circulation?

A

circulation to and from lungs

616
Q

what is systemic circulation?

A

circulation around body

617
Q

what are arteries?

A

blood vessels that leave the heart

618
Q

what do veins take towards the heart?

A

blood

619
Q

what happens in pulmonary circulation?

A

the pulmonary artery carrying deoxygenated blood leaves ventricle to go to lungs to be supplied

620
Q

where must pulmonary veins that are carrying oxygenated blood enter?

A

L atrium

621
Q

what is the main artery to the body leaving the L ventricle?

A

aorta

622
Q

what is the main vein to bring blood back to the heart from body and enters R atrium?

A

vena cava

623
Q

how many branches does the vena cava have?

A

2

624
Q

what does the vena cava do?

A

returns blood from rest of body

625
Q

what is important for blood to do with the heart?

A

important that blood flows in any 1 direction through heart

626
Q

what is between the atria and ventricles?

A

2 sets of valves 1 on each side

627
Q

what is bicuspid?

A

L valve which has 2 cups

628
Q

what is tricuspid?

A

R valve which has 3 cups

629
Q

what do tendinous cords do?

A

hold valves in place

630
Q

what do pulmonary artery and aorta also have?

A

exits guarded by valves called semilunar valve

631
Q

what are semilunar valves needed to prevent?

A

blood forced into arteries by ventricular muscle contractions from flowing back into the ventricles when they relax

632
Q

what is the heart capable of?

A

rhythmic contractions without a nerve supply

633
Q

why do atrial muscles beat at different pace to ventricle muscle?

A

so contractions are organised and co-ordinated by a nerve supply to ensure that the heart is an efficient pump

634
Q

where does the R ventricle deliver blood?

A

only short distances lungs on either side of heart

635
Q

what is the order of double circulation?

A 
Lungs
Pulmonary Vein 
L heart pump
Aorta
Body
Vena Cava
R heart pump
Pulmonary artery
636
Q

where is cardiac muscle found?

A

in 4 chambers of the heart

637
Q

what is cardiac muscle?

A

myogenic because can rhythmically contract without receiving any nervous stimuli

638
Q

what does each cell of the cardiac muscle have?

A

central nucleus

639
Q

what are intercalated discs?

A

the divisions between cells in cardiac muscle

640
Q

what are cardiac muscle specially adapted for?

A

transmission of impulses

641
Q

what does autonomic NS control?

A

the rate of concentration via nerves in order to adapt the flow of. blood to specific circumstances

642
Q

what is the order of events in the cardiac cycle?

A

1: both atria contract forcing blood under pressure into ventricles
2: ventricles are bulging with blood and the increased pressure forces the atria-ventricular valves shut
3: muscles in ventricular walls contract, pressure on blood inside rises and forces open the semilunar valves in aorta and pulmonary artery
4: ventricular systole forces blood into aorta and pulmonary artery
5: as blood leaves ventricles, muscles start to relax. for a fraction of a second blood falls. backwards catching pockets of semilunar valves and making them close up
6: with the ventricles in diastole the atrioventricular valves are pushed open with the blood that has been filling the atria. when the ventricles are about 70% full the atria contract to push in the remaining blood rapidly and the next cycle has begun

643
Q

what is the heart controlled by?

A

autonomic NS which is divided into 2 sections sympathetic and parasympathetic NS

644
Q

when is sympathetic NS active?

A

during muscular work

645
Q

what does parasympathetic NS calm down?

A

heart output and is active during peace and contentment

646
Q

order of homeostatic control of an increasing body temp?

A

body temp rises,
thermal receptors in skin and around internal organs stimulated,
temp control centre in brain switches on heat losing mechanisms,
sweat glands activated causing sweat to be poured onto skin surface as evaporation of water removes heat energy from skin and cooling occurs,
arterioles in skin dilated increasing blood flow to skin and warms the skin up making it pink
behaviour altered - clothes removed,
stretched out posture,
cool drinks,
conduction and convection still occur but can’t be increased to any significant level
response - body temp decreased

647
Q

order of negative feedback mechanisms to maintain blood glucose levels if too high?

A

pancreas releases insulin,

liver removes glucose from blood and stores it as glycogen

648
Q

order of negative feedback mechanisms to maintain blood glucose levels if too low?

A

pancreas releases glucagon,

liver breaks down stored glycogen and releases glucose into blood

649
Q

when does negative feedback occur?

A

a key variable deviates from the accepted limits

650
Q

what does negative feedback trigger?

A

responses that return the variable to within a normal range

651
Q

what does deviation produce in negative feedback?

A

a -ve response to counteract the deviation

652
Q

what plays a vital role in controlling homeostasis mechanisms?

A

brain and NS

653
Q

what 3 things does negative feedback require?

A

receptors to detect change,
a control centre to receive info and process the response,
effectors to reverse the change and re-establish the original state

654
Q

what is the order of feedback control systems?

A

1: Control centre inforced, control centre activates the effectors
2: change in activity - increase / decrease from normal
3: detection by receptors which inform control centres
4: control centre informed, control centre activates effectors
5: effectors become active to do something about the change
6: response by effectors restores normal activity

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY (8 decks)

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